Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MATS Part 1 > Aircraft Emergencies > Flashcards

Aircraft Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of an emergency?

A

Any unusual occurrence that precludes a controller from handling the aircraft in the anticipated/normal manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are ways that an ATCO can recognise an emergency situation?

A

Radio contact is not established at time expected
Radio contact is lost
Report from pilot or other pilots
Erratic behaviour observed
A/C overdue at destination aerodrome
Pilot reports short of fuel
Reports from unofficial third parties
Emergency Squawk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the Main Categories of ABES?

A

Radio Failure
Unlawful interference / Hijack
Bomb Threat
Strayed / Unidentified Aircraft
Aircraft unable to maintain height
Control difficulty which affects handling
Pilot unsure of position
Diversion
Non-specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the general principles of emergencies?

A

Acknowledge the Mayday or Pan call
Ascertain type of emergency, intention of crew, position and level
Crash Alarm
Ask for Help
Alert Local Emergency Services
Get help of other ATSUs or D&D
Provide crew with any information ie. suitable aerodromes, minimum safe altitudes, weather etc
Avoid changes of frequency
Limit manoeuvres
Advise other aircraft in vicinity
Plot the emergency aircraft position
Ensure an uninterrupted approach
Try not to route emergency aircraft over densely populated areas
Consider all means at your disposal
Beware complacency in a familiar situation
Teamwork - don’t keep it to yourself

Once on the ground
Pass surface wind if aircraft on fire
Find out the reduced RFFS Category
Inform AAIB once initial actions are concluded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 questions an ATCO should ask to determine how severe the emergency is?

A
  1. Are you able to maintain height?
  2. Can you affect a safe landing?
  3. Persons on board
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are factors to consider for an emergency straight after Take Off?

A

Crash alarm
Ask for Help
Category of Emergency
Runway inspection
Land ASAP or burn off fuel
Overweight landing?
Visual return or needs IAP?
Allow pilot to dictate runway and circuit direction
Deal with traffic accordingly (inform/separate)
Time available
Coordinate with other ATSUs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What factors are to be considered for an emergency overweight landing?

A

Aircraft should intercept final at or below the glide path
Likely that full runway will be utilised
Additional braking may be required, raising risk of wheel fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are factors to consider for an emergency on landing?

A

Crash alarm
Category of emergency
Ability to steer and stop - brakes, tyre burst, flaps hydraulics?
Evacuation of aircraft
Runway inspection
Removal of wreckage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are factors to consider for an aircraft conducting a forced landing?

A

Persons on board
Advice on the local area
Inform local police and local fire service
Fix the position
Attempt to maintain two way contact - use relay if required
Advise Wind at airport
Notify SAR
Reassure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are factors to consider for an emergency with handling difficulties?

A

What speed do they need?
What is their rate of Climb/Descent?
What is their ability to turn - preferred direction?
Can they steer and stop on landing?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should you do if an aircraft is unable to maintain height and aircaft is beyond range?

A

Alert emergency services and use local knowledge of terrain to assist in selection of most suitable area for forced landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should you do if an aircraft is unable to maintain height but the aircaft is within range?

A

Advise shortest route to the aerodrome
If too high, advise to remain close to airfield and hold across final approach track
Monitor rate of descent by frequent checks from crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an emergency descent and what are ATCOs to consider?

A

A manoeuvre initiated by flight crew to bring an aircraft to a safe level, in the minimum time, with the least possible passenger discomfort. Most frequently conducted by aircraft suffering loss of cabin pressure.

ATCOs must consider that the first indication may be an unexpected change in level. A single prompt to squawk 7700 is acceptable. ATCOs should state the minimum altitude to maintain terrain clearance and provide QNH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can potential emergencies be caused by?

A

Adverse weather
Crew inexperience
Crew Incapacitation
Medicals
Insecure cargo - affects centre of gravity
Technical Malfunction
Maintenance Errors
Foreign Object Debris
Terrorism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

After an inspection flyby, what should the information passed to pilots be?

A

Advisory and not specific. “It appears that…”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are a pilot’s order of priorities in an emergency?

A

Aviate
Navigate
Communicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the NITS briefing?

A

Nature of Emergency
Intentions of Crew
Time Available
Special Instructions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is TDODAR?

A

Time
Diagnose
Options
Decide
Allocate Tasks
Review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is ASSISTS?

A

An ATCO “Asissts” a pilot during an emergency

Acknowledge
Separate
Silence
Inform
Support
Time
Squawk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is STORCALE and when is it used?

A

Used for RT Fail

Separate
Transmit
Others (inform other a/c)
Request Assistance
Continue to Transmit
Alternates
Liaise
Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are distress messages prefixed?

A

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the condition of distress

A

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How are urgency messages prefixed?

A

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the condition of urgency

A

A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What will a distress/urgency message contain?

A

(1) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY or PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
(2) Name of the station addressed
(3) Identification of the aircraft
(4) Nature of the emergency
(5) Intention of the person in command
(6) Present position, level and heading
(7) Qualification of the pilot (urgency)
(8) As much other information as time permits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What should the ATCO do if the pilot gives information normally associated with an emergency message without prefixing either ‘MAYDAY’ or ‘PAN’?

A

ATCO will ask the pilot if they wish to declare an emergency. If the pilot declines to do so, the controller may carry out the necessary emergency actions anyway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some visual signals to notify distress?

A

SOS with signalling apparatus
Firing red flares in short intervals
Red parachute flare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some visual signals notifying urgency?

A

Landing lights on/off repeatedly
Navigation lights on/off repeatedly
Succession of white pyrotechnic lights
Signal XXX with signalling apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the emergency squawk codes?

A

7500 - Hijack/Unlawful Interference
7600 - Radio Tricks
7700 - Emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the phraseology to acknowledge an emergency call?

A

(Callsign), (ATSU Callsign), roger Mayday/Pan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the phraseology to impose silence during a Mayday?

A

All stations, (ATSU callsign), stop transmitting, Mayday

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the phraseology to cancel a distress call/silence on the frequency?

A

All stations, (ATSU callsign), Distress traffic ended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the phraseology to transfer all aircraft except the emergency aircraft to another frequency?

A

Mayday (Callsign), all other aircraft contact (station) on (frequency) - out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the emergency triangle procedure?

A

Right Turns - Transmitter failure only (Hear Alright)
Left Turns - Complete Failure (Nothing Left)

2 minute legs for 300knts or less
1 minute legs for 300knts or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the D&D Frequencies?

A

121.5MHz and 243MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What must ATCOs consider regarding D&D?

A

If an aircraft calls on 121.5, D&D has both executive and operational control. If D&D transfer the aircraft to another unit they pass-over Operational Control but retain Executive Control.

Surveillance Cover - D&D only have access to Area Control ATS, which may have poor low-level coverage, and so D&D may seek early handover to diversion aerodrome.

MSA - D&D do not have detailed knowledge of local airspaces, terrain or obstacles. Therefore, D&D may require guidance on local Minimum Sector Altitudes.

RTF Coverage - D&D’s low-level radio coverage (below 3,000 ft amsl) is poor and so an early handover to the diversion aerodrome may be sought by D&D.

D&D can provide an instant VHF auto-triangulation fixing service on 121.5 MHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When are Aerodrome Control Towers responsible for alerting RFFS?

A

An aircraft accident has occurred on or in the vicinity of the aerodrome
Info has been received that the safety of an aircraft has been impaired
Requested by the flight crew
When deemed necessary or desirable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How is a message from the operator to be passed?

A

To the commander immediately using the operator’s own words.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When an aircraft in CAS needs to dump fuel, what should ATC coordinate with the flight crew?

A

Route to be flown
Level to be used
Estimated duration of fuel dump
Frequency to be monitored whilst dumping fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the levels for jettisoning fuel?

A

At least 10,000ft above ground level

If not practical or unsafe, aircraft may dump fuel at

7000ft agl in winter
4000ft agl in summer

Only in extreme emergency scenarios can it be lower

Avoid Thunderstorms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the definition of a strayed aircraft?

A

An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track, or which reports it is lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the definition of an unidentified aircraft?

A

An aircraft which has been observed or reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity has not been established

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the actions for a strayed aircraft?

A

Attempt to establish comms and inform pilot of their position

Inform other ATSUs into whose area the aircraft has strayed or may stray

Request assistance from D&D, other units and other aircraft in establishing comms

Notify ACC Sup if unlawful interference is suspected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the actions for a Lost aircraft?

A

Endeavour to provide every possible assistance
Treat estimated positions given by pilots with caution
Use ATS systems and VDF to help locate the aircraft
If RT is poor, suggest pilot climbs if able to get better coverage
Be aware of local terrain and obstructions and advise pilot to climb if there is any doubt that adequate terrain clearance exists
Request assistance from other ATSUs
Inform D&D
Notify ACC Sup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What should be done for a lost aircraft once its position has been established?

A

Advise aircraft of its position and issue any corrective action
Coordinate with other ATSUs when providing corrective action
Notify units that were consulted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What should be done about an unidentified aircraft?

A

Attempt to establish the identity of the aircraft
Attempt to establish two-way comms
Inform D&D and request assistance
Attempt to obtain info from other aircraft
Notify those units consulted when the aircraft’s identification has been established
Notify ACC Sup if unlawful interference is suspected
Complete MOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the preliminary actions for an overdue non-radio aircraft?

A

To commence not later than 30 mins after ETA

Check flight plan for errors
Consult operator
Confirm ATD with aerodrome of departure
Inform ACC and together; check alternates, send RQS message, check aerodromes near route

48
Q

What are the full overdue actions for non-radio aircraft?

A

Commence not later than 1 hour after ETA

Notify parent ACC that the aircraft is now fully overdue and state action already taken
Keep trying to trace aircraft

49
Q

What are the preliminary actions for an overdue radio aircraft?

A

To be commenced no later than 30 minutes after ETA at aerodrome or reporting point

(1) Inform ACC Supervisor that aircraft is overdue
(2) Confirm ATD with aerodrome of departure
(3) Ensure that an RQS is sent

50
Q

What are the full overdue actions for radio aircraft?

A

To commence when there is no news after preliminary action or 1 hour has elapsed since scheduled position report should have been received or fuel exhausted (whichever sooner)

Inform ACC aircraft fully overdue

51
Q

Things to consider when deciding whether to take overdue action

A

Type of Aircraft - May not have been able to keep to flight plan
Route - Over sparsely populated areas/water/mountains
Weather - May have diverted which has lengthened route

52
Q

What are the actions for a non-appearance aircraft?

A

Fails to land within 5 mins of estimated time of landing and communication lost.

AREA-CRA

  • Approach
  • Request Aircraft in vicinity to keep a lookout
  • Exercise caution with movement of aerodrome traffic
  • Alert Emergency services
  • Check aerodromes in vicinity
  • RQS message
  • Advise ACC
53
Q

When should you adopt the RCF procedure?

A

A7600 observed and pilot does not respond to ATC

Communication cannot be maintained with an aircraft receiving ATC or Advisory Service

Communication cannot be established with an aircraft operating or intending to operate on an IFR flight plan in Controlled or Advisory Airspace

54
Q

What is the standard ATCO procedure for RCF?

A

STORCALE

Separate - Maintain separation between RCF and other traffic

Transmit - Level, Route, EAT/ETA to which the RCF aircraft is adhering plus weather at destination/alternate and suitable areas for descent through cloud

Other - Inform other aircraft of RCF

Request Assistance - Other ATSUs attempt to contact, other aircraft attempt to relay, utilise ACARS/Datalink

Continue - To transmit information

Alternates - Notify alternates and request attempt to establish comms

Liaise with operator - Transmit ‘blind’ any information as requested

Emergency - When considered appropriate initiate overdue or other action

55
Q

What procedures will pilots follow in the event of RCF?

A

IFR flights will adopt IMC procedures unless an overriding safety reason compels them to adopt VMC procedures.

If the RCF aircraft has clearance to enter CAS, they may enter CAS. If they do not, they should not enter CAS unless an overriding safety reason compels them to.

56
Q

What is the VMC procedure for a pilot to adopt in the event of RCF?

A

Squawk 7600 and land at nearest suitable aerodrome
Take account of visual landing aids and visual signals
Report arrival to appropriate ATC unit ASAP
When VMC cannot be maintained, adopt IMC procedures

57
Q

What is the IMC procedure for a pilot to adopt in the event of RCF?

A

Squawk 7600
Maintain speed and last assigned level or MSA (whichever higher) for 7 mins from when 7600 set

If on a SID, continue SID as published until last assigned fix, then as above for the remainder of the 7 mins.
After 7 mins adjust speed and level as per FPL to appropriate designated landing aid at destination.
Attempt to transmit position reports, including altitude/flight level.

If being radar vectored, or on offset RNAV, continue last acknowledged ATC instruction for 3 mins, then route direct to original FPL route, remaining at or above MSA.
Comply with LoC procedures in AIP.

If during arrival,
Arrive over designated landing aid as close as possible to ETA at the highest MSA.
If flying a STAR, after the 7 minute period, descend as close to the descent planning profile.
When reaching the landing aid, descend at a rate of descent not less than 500fpm. Carry out Instrument approach Procedure and land within 30 mins of EAT or calculated ETA.
If delay was not determined, go to alternate destination.

If radio fails during an approach directed by Radar, continue visually or by alternate aid. If not practical, go-around, fly to a holding facility and conduct the IAP from there.

58
Q

IMC Procedure for Pilots - STAROPDIR

A

SELECT (7600)
TIME (7 mins)
ADJUST (speed and level as per FPL)
RNAV (3 mins on vector then route shortest route)
OVER (fly over destination aerodrome close to ETA as possible)
PROFILE (after 7 mins on STAR, be at minimum published level at the designated Initial Approach Fix)
DESCEND (not less than 500fpm)
INSTRUMENT APPROACH PROCEDURE (land within 30 mins)
RADAR (if comms fails carry out visually)

59
Q

What is the SVFR procedure for a pilot to adopt in the event of RCF?

A

Squawk 7600
Transmit blind position reports and intentions
If not yet entered CTR, remain clear even if SVFR clearance has been obtained

If CTR entered, proceed in accord with SVFR clearance to aerodrome and land ASAP, watching for ground signals

If transiting/leaving, continue not above cleared altitude
Leave CTR by most direct route
Take into account weather, obstacle clearance, areas of dense traffic

If on a Radar Heading, assume own navigation

60
Q

When can normal ops be resumed after an RCF emergency?

A

If positive information indicates that RCF aircraft has landed.
OR
If RCF aircraft position cannot be determined within 30 minutes after it should have begun descent, it is pilots responsibility to determine whether they will resume normal ops or take action.

61
Q

If an aircraft has an emergency as well as RCF what should they squawk?

A

A7700

62
Q

What are the speechless codes when using carrier wave only?

A

1 = Yes
2 = No
3 = Say Again
4 = Homing
X = Further Emergency
1 Long Wave = Manoeuvre Complete

63
Q

What callsign can be used when using the speechless code?

A

Speechless One

64
Q

What are the main questions to ask a speechless aircraft?

A

Do you have a further emergency?
If yes,
Can you maintain height?
Can you make a normal descent?
Can you make a normal landing?

65
Q

What will QDM give?

A

Magnetic heading to reach the airfield, not accounting for drift

66
Q

What are unlawful aircraft uses?

A

Unlawful seizure/exercise of control by force or threats
Unauthorised removal of aircraft and its subsequent flight
Flight of an aircraft with intent to defect
Illegal use to effect escape of prisoners or special hospital patients
Use of aircraft in furtherance of crime including terrorism

67
Q

Unless otherwise specifically directed by a responsible higher authority, what is the the policy within UK airspace for hijacked aircraft?

A

Land Immediately

68
Q

What should an ATCO upon seeing an aircraft squawking 7500?

A

“(Callsign) confirm you are squawking (assigned code)”

If no verification can be attained, unlawful interference must be assumed.

69
Q

What are ways of identifying a hijacked aircraft?

A

Squawking 7500
Unauthorised deviation from cleared flight profile
Refusal/inability to comply with ATC instruction for no good reason
Loss of RT contact, particularly associated with flight profile deviation
Unauthorised SSR code changes; extend use of IDENT
Use of non-standard phraseology
Squawk of 7600/7700 associated with deviations
External sources
Open RT from cockpit
Non-ATC related RT transmission, e.g political statement
Non-specific threat passed via third party

70
Q

Who has overall responsibility and direction of unlawful interference?

A

Responsibility - Watch supervisor at ACC unit, taken over by Air Defence Authority (if required)

Direction - Government, acting through DfT/MoD and ACC

71
Q

What are the general ATCO actions for hijack/unlawful interference?

A

Shall attend promptly to requests by the aircraft
Give aircraft priority and expedition
Dont reference the situation on RT to other aircraft, unless already communicated
Reduce separation if more than one aircraft involved, at the request of the lawful commander
Relay all messages to the authority
Transmit and continue to transmit pertinent safety information without expecting a reply
Monitor and plot the progress of the flight, and coordinate transfer of control with adjacent ATS units

72
Q

Define Alerting Service

A

A service provided to notify and assist organisations of aircraft in need of SAR

73
Q

To which aircraft is an Alerting Service Provided?

A

An alerting service shall be provided
(1) To all aircraft provided with an air traffic service
(2) In so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the ATSU
(3) To any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

74
Q

Who is responsible for initiating alerting action?

A

The ATSU that was last in comms with the aircraft in need of SAR aid

75
Q

What are the three phases of an emergency?

A

Uncertainty Phase INCERFA
Alert Phase ALERFA
Distress Phase DETRESFA

76
Q

Describe INCERFA

A

Uncertainty Phase

A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

77
Q

What is the duration of the Uncertainty phase?

A

Maximum of 30 minutes

78
Q

Describe ALERFA

A

Alert Phase

A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

79
Q

What is the duration of the Alert phase?

A

Maximum of 1 hour

80
Q

Describe DETRESFA

A

Distress Phase

A situation wherein there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance

81
Q

What is the duration of the distress phase?

A

Until aircraft is found and survivors rescued
or
It is clear there is no longer any chance of so doing

82
Q

When does the Uncertainty phase commence?

A

30 minutes since comms were expected
OR
First time unable to contact
OR
Aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes of ETA
OR
Cleared to commence approach and fails to land within 5 minutes of ETA

83
Q

When does the Alert phase commence?

A

Enquiries during uncertainty phase have failed to reveal any news
OR
Aircraft cleared to land fails to land within 5 minutes and comms not regained
OR
Information received indicating aircraft impaired but forced landing not likely
OR
Aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference

84
Q

When does Distress phase commence?

A

More widespread enquiries during alert phase have failed to reveal any news
OR
Further attempts to establish comms indicate aircraft distress
OR
Fuel on board considered exhausted or insufficient
OR
Info received indicating aircraft impaired and forced landing likely
OR
Info or certainty exists that aircraft has made a forced landing

85
Q

What should an aircraft conducting routine operations on the same frequency be expected to transmit every 30 minutes?

A

Pilots should transmit “Ops Normal” every 30 minutes. ATCOs who do not receive this message, should attempt to contact and ask if “Ops Normal”. If the pilot fails to respons to three successive attempts, ATCO should initiate overdue action.

If a “Rescue” callsign fails to respond, JRCC should be requested to establish comms.

86
Q

Regarding emergencies, what is the Aerodrome Operator responsible for?

A

Preparation of detailed aerodrome emergency orders
Determining radius of action of the AFS
Advising the ATSU and aircraft operators whenever RFFS are depleted for any reason

87
Q

What should an ATCO do regarding Emergency Services when aware of an aircraft in need of aid?

A

ATCO shall immediately alert emergency services and anticipate the need for AFS vehicles to cross runways and should issue clearances in advance of the requirements.

88
Q

What does the Aerodrome RFFS Category number depend on?

A

The length and width of the largest aircraft normally using the aerodrome

89
Q

What are the helicopter fire categories based on?

A

Helictoper Overall Length

90
Q

What are the RFFS Categories?

A

Special
1 (low) - 10 (high)

91
Q

What is Fire Category 8?

A

Aircraft Length
49m up to but not including 61m

Maximum Fuselage Width
7m

92
Q

What are the response times that RFFS should be able to achieve?

A

2 mins, not exceeding 3 mins, to end of runway.

93
Q

What are the ATCO actions for a reduction in RFFS cat?

A

Transmit the message received from the AO
“Message from the Aerodrome Operator, rescue and fire facilities reduced to category (number)”

Inform the ACC Sup

Inform any other appropriate agency

94
Q

What extra pertinent information do Fire Crews require?

A

POB
Dangerous Goods
Fuel on Touchdown
Live Weapons

95
Q

What are the Emergency Categories?

A

Aircraft Accident
Aircraft Accident Imminent
Aircraft Ground Incident
Full emergency
Local Standby
Weather Standby

96
Q

What is an Aircraft Accident/Aircraft Accident Imminent?

A

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

97
Q

What is an Aircraft Ground Incident?

A

Where an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, requiring the attendance of emergency services.

98
Q

What is a Full Emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

99
Q

What is a Local Standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.

100
Q

What is a Weather Standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe, e.g. strong crosswind, poor visibility, ice or snow on the runway.

101
Q

What is the RFFS frequency?

A

121.6 MHz

102
Q

Who is responsible for the removal of crashed aircraft?

A

The Aerodrome operator/Aircraft owner. However, if it was a reportable accident, AAIB permission must be sought.

103
Q

Can a crash wreckage be removed without AAIB approval?

A

Yes. If crashed aircraft could further endanger life, even if it is a reportable accident, inform Aerodrome Authority to seek its emergency removal.

104
Q

If an aircraft is disabled in the clear and graded area, can an emergency aircraft land?

A

Yes. They must be informed about the disabled aircraft, essential aerodrome information and the RFFS reduction.

105
Q

What are the Bomb Warning Categories?

A

RED
AMBER
GREEN

106
Q

Describe a category Red Bomb Warning

A

A credible threat relating to a specific target, or where the caller has positively identified themselves or the organisation involved. Involves danger to people, property or commercial activities and therefore requires immediate protective measures.

107
Q

Describe a category Amber Bomb Warning

A

A threat of doubtful credibility but where it is prudent to consider taking additional protective measures, especially if there are doubts about the effectiveness of existing countermeasures. Merits increased vigilance.

108
Q

Describe a category Green Bomb Warning

A

A non-credible threat requiring no further action

109
Q

Which bomb warnings are to be treated as an emergency?

A

Red or Amber

110
Q

What are the general procedures for a bomb warning?

A

Avoid densely populated areas and landing at main hub airports unless essential ie Heathrow
Coordinate with ACC supervisor
Do not provide advice or suggestions on how to handle the explosive device
Local procedures carried out by AO
Report via ECCAIRS MOR

111
Q

What is the ARCC and where is it located?

A

Aeronautical Rescue Coordination Centre, located in Fareham

112
Q

What is the lost squawk?

A

0030

113
Q

What is the police helicopter squawk?

A

0032

114
Q

What is the SAR squawk?

A

0023

115
Q

What is the phraseology for an inspection flyby?

A

(Callsign) Runway 26, cleared low pass

116
Q

What is the Helimed Squawk?

A

0020

MATS Part 1 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions