Aerodrome 1 Aerodrome Control Flashcards

1
Q

What services shall Aerodrome Control provide?

A

Aerodrome Control Service
Basic Service
Alerting Service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who does Aerodrome Control provide services to?

A

Aircraft flying in the vicinity of the ATZ
Aircraft flying in the ATZ
Aircraft operating on the manoeuvring area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the responsibility of Aerodrome Control?

A

To issue information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of:

(1) Preventing collisions between:
(a) aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ;
(b) aircraft taking-off and landing;
(c) aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area.

(2) Assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are ATCOs solely responsible for the prevention of collisions?

A

No. Pilots and vehicle drivers must also fulfil their own responsibilities in accordance with RoA Regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who does Aerodrome Control have authority over?

A

Aircraft, vehicles and personnel on the manoeuvring area and aircraft moving on the apron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How shall Aerodrome Controllers maintain a continuous watch?

A

By visual observation of all flight operations, vehicles and personnel on and in the vicinity of the aerodrome/manoeuvring area. Achieved through the use of windows or an approved Surveillance System.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are responsibilities divided if Aerodrome is split into AIR and GMC?

A

AIR shall provide services for preventing collisions between:
1) aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ;
2) aircraft taking-off and landing;
AND has absolute authority over all movements on active runways and their access points.

GMC shall provide services for:
1) Preventing collisions between aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area.
2) Assisting in preventing collisions between aircraft on the apron.
EXCEPT on active runways and their access points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the other specific responsibilities of Aerodrome Control?

A

NIPI PAIN - Notifying, Informing aircraft, Providing, Informing approach, Pertinent, Appropriate, Informing AO, No Approach

1) Notifying emergency services when required
2) Informing aircraft of any depletion of the aerodrome emergency services
3) Providing an Approach Control Service when delegated to do so
4) Informing Approach of
• Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR and VFR (ie. departures, G/A and overdue a/c)
• Appropriate essential aerodrome information.
5) Informing the Aerodrome Operator when aerodrome/facilities deteriorate
6) If No Approach is established, initiating overdue action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Can Approach instruct approaching IFR flights to contact Aerodrome Control before transfer of control has become effective?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach?

A

1) Departing IFR flights
2) Arriving aircraft which make their first call on the tower frequency (Unless they are transferred to Approach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What shall Approach co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?

A

1) Aircraft approaching to land; if necessary request landing clearance
2) Arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points
3) Aircraft routing through the traffic circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What shall Aerodromes co-ordinate with other Aerodromes?

A

Aerodrome Control shall co-ordinate with adjacent aerodromes to ensure that the traffic circuits do not conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When shall control of a departing aircraft be transferred from Aerodrome Control to Approach?

A

a) in VMC: before a/c leaves vicinity, or before a/c enters IMC
b) in IMC: immediately after a/c airborne
Unless MATS2 specifies otherwise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With respect to Airspace Classification what minimum services are Aerodrome ATCOs to provide?

A

ATCOs are to provide minimum services according to the class of Airspace that ATZ is located in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the met conditions at which ATC will advise aircraft intending to operate under VFR with clearance, and request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required?

A

When met conditions at aerodromes in Class D airspace are either
Ground visibility less than 5km
Cloud ceiling less than 1500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the met conditions that prohibit ATCOS from issuing new VFR Clearances to aircraft?

A

When met conditions at aerodromes in Class D airspace are either
Ground visibility less than 5km
Cloud ceiling less than 1500ft

Except for:
Police; Helimed; Rescue; Electricity; Grid; Powerline, or Pipeline Helicopters
SAR training flights
Rail track inspection flights
As detailed in ORS4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When shall ATCOs advise pilots about LVPs?

A

Controllers shall advise pilots on implementation and cancellation of LVPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are non-radio equipped aircraft/vehicles allowed to operate on the manoeuvring area in conditions of low visibility?

A

No. In conditions of low visibility non-radio equipped aircraft/vehicles are prohibited from moving on the manoeuvring area, except emergency vehicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should Traffic Information and instructions be passed?

A

When the ATCO considers it necessary, or when requested by a pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What Traffic Information and instructions should Aerodrome Control provide?

A

GST - Generic, Specific and Timely. TI gives the gist.

Aerodrome Control shall provide:
1) Generic traffic information, e.g for VFR pilots to safely integrate
2) Specific traffic information, appropriate to the stage of flight and risk of collision
3) Timely instructions to prevent collisions and enable safe, orderly and expeditious flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aircraft under Aerodrome Control shall be kept informed of what information?

A

Aircraft under Aerodrome Control and in receipt of information shall be kept informed of:
1) Significant changes in met and runway conditions
2) Changes in essential aerodrome information
3) Changes in the status of approach and landing aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the definition of Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Essential aerodrome information concerns the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What should Essential Aerodrome Information include?

A

CRAP LAWBA - Construction, Rough, Approach Aids, Parked, Lights, Anti-Icing/De-icing, Water, Birds, Arrester Gear

1) Construction/Maintenance on the manoeuvring area
2) Rough/Broken portions of the manoeuvring area
3) Failure or irregular functioning of approach aids
4) Aircraft parked close to runways/taxiways and aircraft engine runs
5) Failure or irregular functioning of lights. (Defects passed as they have been reported, promptly and accurately)
7) In snow/ice conditions: Anti-icing/De-icing information or other contamination/sweeping/sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons
6) Water, snow, slush, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or an apron
8) Information on birds and any bird dispersal action
9) Information on arrester gear location and status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What movements on the airfield are subject to permission from Aerodrome Control?

A

Aircraft/person/vehicle movements on the manoeuvring area and aircraft movements on the apron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does Aerodrome Control provide to aircraft on the apron?

A

On the apron Aerodrome Control provides advice and instructions to assist the prevention of collisions between moving aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If the apron is out of sight, what procedures may be used to control moving aircraft?

A

1) An aircraft is cleared to taxi. A second aircraft may be given taxi clearance plus clear instruction to “follow” or “give way”.
2) An aircraft is cleared to taxi and all further movements are suspended until ATCO is visual with first aircraft.
3) An aircraft is cleared to taxi and asked to report when clear of the apron or an easily identifiable point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who should vehicles give way to?

A

Vehicles shall give way at all times to aircraft taking-off, landing, taxiing or being towed. EXCEPT repsonding emergency services vehicles shall be afforded priority over all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can give way be used with regards to vehicles?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When should clearance to cross a runway-in-use be withheld until?

A

Until no confliction exists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the conditions for a conditional runway crossing clearance?

A

The conditional clearance shall relate to one movement only and contain sufficient information to enable the pilot/vehicle to identify the runway traffic. In the case of landing aircraft, it must reference the first one on approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Can a crossing clearance be given on a different frequency to that used by traffic arrving/departing?

A

No. ATCOs shall ensure the crossing instruction is on the same frequency as utilised for take-off/landing clearances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Should the phrase “report vacated” be included when issuing a crossing clearance?

A

Yes. However, it may be omitted when Aerodrome Control has continuous sight of the aircraft/vehicle crossing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When aircraft/persons/vehicles are cleared to cross/occupy a runway in use, what shall the ATCO do with the FPS strip display?

A

The ATCO shall display the appropriate strip/marker in the FPS Runway Bay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define a Runway Incursion

A

A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How can ATCOs help to prevent runway incursions?

A

ATCOs shall issue unambiguous instructions to pilots/vehicles in order to eliminate or mitigate any potential hazards arising from the aircraft or vehicle being in the wrong position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Can ATCOs ignore jet blast and slipstream effects?

A

No. ATCOs must take into account the hazards of jet blast and propeller slipstream. Especially with multiple line-up clearances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How may the SMR be used?

A

MADAME L - Monitoring, Assisting, Determining, Ascertaining, Making Sure, Emergency, Lighting

SMR may be used when traffic cannot be adequately seen during low visibility or during darkness as follows:

1) To monitor the movements of aircraft/vehicles on the manoeuvring area
2) To provide advice and assistance for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area, including;
b) Determining that a runway is clear
a) Ascertaining departing a/c are lined up correctly
c) Making sure that a/c have commenced take-off run
e) Emergency services assistance and monitoring
d) Monitoring positions of traffic to facilitate taxiway light switching

38
Q

What are the methods of establishing SMR identification?

A

VICRI - Visually, Identified, Compliance, Radio Report, Identifiable Position

1) Correlating an aircraft/vehicle position visually to that displayed on the SMR
2) Correlating an identified SMR position from another ATS source
3) Correlating an SMR position complying with an ATC instruction
4) Correlating an SMR position to an aircraft/vehicle position reported by radio
5) Correlating a displayed SMR position to an identifiable aircraft/vehicle position (e.g. holding point)

39
Q

Unless known to have been received, what information shall be given to a pilot requesting start-up/taxi clearance?

A

1) Runway in use
2) Surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations
3) Aerodrome QNH
4) Outside air temperature (turbine-engine aircraft only)
5) Significant meteorological conditions, e.g. RVR or marked temperature inversion

Essential aerodrome information is to be passed if appropriate.

40
Q

Can a Heavy aircraft at the holding point be cleared for an immediate takeoff?

A

No. Heavy aircraft, when at the holding position, cannot be cleared for an immediate takeoff.

However, heavy aircraft can be cleared for an immediate takeoff if they are lined up.

41
Q

Can the runway-in-use be used for taxiing as much as the ATCO likes?

A

No. Using the active runway for taxiing is to be kept to a minimum.

42
Q

ATCOs are not to instruct aircraft/vehicles to cross red stop-bars. However, if the stop-bar cannot be readily suppressed (ie. broken), when can clearance to cross the red stop-bar be given?

A

When
1) The affected stop-bar and the aircraft/vehicle are visible to the controller visually or by SMR
AND
2) The phraseology must leave aircraft/vehicle in no doubt that crossing instruction applies to that particular stop-bar only. Conditional clearances shall not be used.

43
Q

Should all taxi clearances contain a clearance limit?

A

Yes. All taxi clearances are to contain a specific clearance limit.

44
Q

If a taxi clearance limit is beyond a runway, what must it include?

A

If a clearance limit is beyond a runway, the taxi clearance must contain an explicit clearance to cross that runway. If it cannot, the clearance limit must be short of the runway and the ATCO should use the phrase “hold short” if appropriate.

45
Q

What must a route clearance message include to prevent confusion with a takeoff clearance?

A

It shall be prefixed with an appropriate holding instruction and if necessary “after departure”, is to be added.

46
Q

What are the rules for conditional runway entry clearances?

A

Conditional runway entry clearances are to relate to one movement only, which must be seen by both the controller and pilot/driver. If the condition relates to landing traffic, it must be the first aircraft on approach. However, when a number of aircraft are at runway holding points, a conditional clearance may be given to an aircraft regarding the aircraft ahead of them in the sequence.

47
Q

What are the requirements for issuing multiple line-up clearances?

A

SPAVF - Sunny, Physical characteristics, Ahead, Visible, Frequency

1) Daylight
2) All aircraft are continuously visible to the ATCO
3) All aircraft are on the same RTF frequency
4) Pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart
5) The physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway

48
Q

If an aircraft is lining up from an intermediate position, should the designator be included?

A

Yes. Intermediate holding position designators shall be included in the line-up instruction.

49
Q

If a pilot requests the instant wind, what word must be included when passing the message?

A

The word “instant” must be used.

50
Q

Should a take-off clearance include the runway designator?

A

Yes.

51
Q

At what point on its taxi may a takeoff clearance be issued to an aircraft?

A

When the aircraft is at or approaching the holding point, or entering the runway or lined up.

52
Q

Should a takeoff clearance be issued separately from any other clearance message?

A

Yes. If a re-clearance is required near the runway, the instruction “hold position” must be used.

53
Q

When may an aircraft be permitted to take off?

A

When the preceding departing aircraft is airborne or all preceding landing aircraft have vacated.

54
Q

Can a departing aircraft be given instructions which necessitate a turn below 500ft?

A

No, unless light, a departing aircraft shall not be given instructions which necessitate a turn before 500ft.

55
Q

If an ATC clearance could be confused with a instruction, what should precede the clearance message?

A

“hold position” and “after departure” should precede the message.

56
Q

What must an ATCO ensure before an IFR departure is given takeoff clearance?

A

IFR flights are not to be given take-off clearance until:
1) The ATC clearance has been passed and acknowledged
2) Approach Control have authorised its departure and any specific instructions have been passed to the aircraft

57
Q

What will the pilot do when given the instruction “cleared for immediate takeoff”?

A

1) If at the holding position, taxi immediately on to the runway and commence take-off without stopping the aircraft. (Not to be given to HEAVY or SUPER aircraft)
2) If already lined up on the runway, take-off without delay
3) If an immediate take-off is not possible, the pilot will advise the controller

58
Q

After co-ordination with Approach, how can an Aerodrome controller expedite departing aircraft?

A

1) Suggesting a take-off direction which is not into wind
2) Reduce the overall delay by altering the order in which aircraft are cleared for take-off
3) When ATS surveillance systems are not available, clear departing IFR flights to climb VMC and maintain their own separation until a specified time, location or level, if reports indicate that this is possible.

59
Q

Can a pilot request a delay in takeoff because of the danger of wake turbulence from the preceding aircraft?

A

Yes

60
Q

How is a takeoff clearance cancelled before the takeoff run has commenced?

A

The pilot shall be instructed to hold position and acknowledge
”[Callsign], hold position, cancel takeoff, I say again, cancel takeoff, acknowledge”

61
Q

How is a takeoff clearance cancelled after the takeoff run has commenced?

A

The pilot shall be instructed to stop immediately and acknowledge.
”[Callsign], stop immediately, I say again, [Callsign] stop immediately, acknowledge”

62
Q

What should be considered when instructing an aircraft to stop immediately during its takeoff run?

A

Cancellation of take-off clearance after the takeoff run has commenced should only occur if there is serious and imminent danger. The risks associated with abandoning the take-off increase as the aircraft accelerates. The commander of the aircraft may consider it safer to continue than attempt to stop.

63
Q

What are the mandatory reporting points in a circuit?

A

Downwind
Final

64
Q

What are the legs in a traffic circuit?

A

Crosswind
Downwind
Base Leg
Long Final (>4miles)
Final (<4 miles)

65
Q

Describe a standard overhead join

A

Aircraft reports “overhead” at 2,000ft aal. When cleared to descend, will route to the dead side of the circuit and descend to circuit height. The aircraft will then cross the upwind end of the runway in use at circuit height and then position into the traffic pattern to report “downwind”.

66
Q

What information is issued alongside a clearance to enter a traffic circuit?

A

Clearance to enter a traffic circuit is issued alongside information concerning landing direction/runway in use and any other necessary instructions so that the pilot may position into the traffic pattern.

67
Q

What should be considered if an aircraft enters a traffic circuit without proper authorisation?

A

If an aircraft enters a traffic circuit without proper authorisation, the possibility of an emergency must be recognised. The aircraft should be permitted to land if its actions indicate that it wishes to do so and, if necessary, other aircraft are to be instructed to give way.

68
Q

Should landing/low approach/touch and go clearances include the runway designator?

A

Yes. Unless MATS2 states otherwise.

69
Q

Can landing aircraft cross the beginning of the runway if a preceding departing aircraft is rolling but still on the ground?

A

No. Landing aircraft are not permitted to cross the beginning of the runway until a preceding departing aircraft, is airborne. Unless approved by the CAA.

70
Q

In which situation is a land after issued?

A

When aircraft are using the same runway and the ATCO wishes to permit a landing aircraft to touch down before a preceding landing aircraft has vacated.

71
Q

What are the requirements for issuing a land after?

A

SLABS - Sunny, Long enough, ATCO satisifed, Backtrack, Separation

1) The runway is long enough and braking is not adversely affected
2) Daylight
3) The preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack
4) The ATCO is satisfied the landing aircraft will see the preceding aircraft clearly and continuously until it has vacated
5) The pilot of the following aircraft is warned and responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with them

72
Q

What should the ATCO do if they consider a landing aircraft to be dangerously positioned on final approach?

A

The ATCO shall instruct the aircraft to carry out a missed approach.

73
Q

Can instructions be issued to aircraft on final approach?

A

Due to the high workload of a final approach, instructions shall not be issued to aircraft on final approach unless exceptional and overriding safety considerations apply. Except a “go-around” instruction.

74
Q

Between which aircraft in the circuit are ATCOs not required to provide separation?

A

1) Aircraft in the same formation
2) Aircraft operating in different areas/lanes on aerodromes with multiple simultaneous runways
3) Aircraft operating under military necessity

75
Q

What are the basic uses of the ATM?

A

LLDC - Landing, Longitudinal, Departure, Circuit

1) Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
2) Assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
3) Enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued
4) Provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach

76
Q

What are the advanced uses of the ATM and its proviso’s?

A

VAMPS - Validate, Assist, Monitor, Pass, Separate

1) After identification, validate SSR of departing aircraft and verify Mode C read-outs
2) Monitor overflying aircraft identified by Approach to ensure that they do not conflict with arriving or departing aircraft
3) Establish separation between departing aircraft
4) Pass traffic information
5) Establish separation in the event of a missed approach
6) Assist in taking corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the minima

It must be approved by the CAA and
a) The ATCO must have undertaken specified training
b) The ATCO is only providing an Air Control Service and a separate GMC is being provided by another ATCO on a separate frequency
c) The procedures are detailed in MATS 2.

The CAA may approve Advanced uses when bandboxed.

77
Q

What are the restrictions associated with a low approach when then runway-in-use is occupied?

A

If the runway in use is occupied, an approaching low approach or touch and go aircraft, may be cleared to carry out a low approach not below 400ft above the threshold elevation. When:
1) The pilot is informed of the aircraft/vehicles on the runway
2) The aircraft/vehicle on the runway is informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach

For aircraft on QNH, the altitude restriction is 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded to the nearest 50ft

The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400ft above the threshold elevation.

78
Q

What is the definition of runway-in-use?

A

The term runway-in-use is the particular runway or landing direction selected by Aerodrome Control as the most suitable at any particular time.

79
Q

How is the runway-in-use normally selected?

A

Normally, the runway-in-use selected is the most closely aligned to the surface wind. However, if the surface wind is light and variable, the 2,000 ft wind should be considered.

80
Q

What are the non-wind factors that ATCOs should take into account when selecting the runway-in-use?

A

1) Traffic pattern
2) Length of runways or landing runs
3) Approach aids available
4) Meteorological consitions which may be significant to the choice of Runway

Some reasons to use an out of wind runway
a) Operations
b) Efficiency
c) Noise Abatement

81
Q

When shall a runway NOT be selected for noise abatement purposes?

A

1) When the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 15 kt, or the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 5 kt.
2) For landing operations if visual or instrument glide path guidance is not available to that runway.
3) And at any other time as written in the MATS Part 2, taking consideration of
a) The degree and type of runway surface contamination
b) Minimum visibility and cloud ceiling
c) Other weather conditions such as wind shear or thunderstorms
d) Pilot refusal due to safety concerns

82
Q

If a runway change is necessary, after consulting Approach, who should Aerodrome inform?

A

1) Aircraft under their control
2) Aerodrome Fire Service
3) Contractors working who will be affected
4) Other agencies according to local instructions

83
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Aerodrome Operator?

A

The AO is responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome regarding:
1) Routine operational limitations e.g. runway maintenance
2) Unforeseen hazards to aircraft operations

Specifically, The Aerodrome Operator will make decisions regarding
a) The closure or re-opening of the aerodrome
b) The withdrawal or return to use of runways, taxiways, and associated lighting aids
c) The revision of declared distances
d) Any marking required in connection with the above
e) Initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability

84
Q

What responsibilities does ATC have to the Aerodrome Operator?

A

Inform the AO immediately when reports or observations indicate that there is a hazard to the movement of aircraft on the apron or manoeuvring area.

85
Q

Whilst the Airport Operator is assessing hazards on the apron or manouevring area, what is the ATCO to do?

A

The ATCO is to decide the action to take:
1) Where an occurrence results in an obstruction in the vicinity of the runway-in-use
a) Withhold take-off and landing clearance when the obstruction is within the cleared and graded area of the runway
b) Withhold take-off and landing clearance if there is any doubt as to the position of the obstruction.
c) Advise pilots of the reason for withholding clearance.
2) When the obstruction is obviously outside the cleared and graded area but on or in the vicinity of the apron or manoeuvring area the pilot will be advised and they shall decide whether or not to continue operations.

86
Q

If an aircraft departs close to the Aerodrome published closing time, what should happen?

A

To cover the possibility of an aircraft which departs within 15 minutes of closing time needing to return, the Aerodrome Operator will normally retain sufficient services and equipment for 15 minutes after ATD.

87
Q

When should a non-routine runway inspection be completed?

A

Following any incident, or suspected incident, on a runway involving tyre failure, aircraft structural failure or, in the case of turbine-engined aircraft, engine malfunction, the runway is to be inspected before any other aircraft are allowed to use it.

88
Q

What should ATCOs do upon receipt of information about an unplanned reduction in RFFS category?

A

ATC units shall ensure that unplanned reductions in the RFFS category are notified to flight crew either via ATIS or directly by RT. The flight crew will then decide whether to continue or divert.

89
Q

Should ATC assist AFS in providing practice emergencies?

A

Yes. They are to be held frequently and made as realistic as possible.

90
Q

Should AFS obtain clearance before conducting exercises on the manoeuvring area?

A

Yes. AFS will obtain clearance and any special instructions from ATCOs before testing vehicles or carrying out exercises on the manoeuvring area.

91
Q

What must working party representatives be briefed about before working on the manoeuvring area?

A

Working party representatives must be briefed by ATC or the Aerodrome Operator about
1) Methods of access to working area
2) The area in which vehicles may operate
3) The runway-in-use and the effects of any changes
4) Methods of obtaining permission to cross the runway-in-use
5) Signals or methods of indicating that vehicles and personnel must vacate the manoeuvring area