Adrenergic Agonists And Antagonists Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three endogenous catecholamines?

-Affect both alpha and beta receptors

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, and Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Epinephrine has a higher affinity for

A

Beta receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The adrenergic receptor activation is dose-dependent for

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the cardiac effects of Epinephrine?

A

Positive inotrope and chronotrope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Causes a slight reduction in SVR which widens the pulse pressure

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A higher dose of epinephrine results in more

A

Alpha effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The number one drug of choice for anaphylaxis (IV)

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Used to treat asthma (Rx bronchospasm) and open angle glaucoma

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Causes palpitations, HTN, tremor, and anxiety

A

Epinephrine toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Epinephrine is contraindicated in patients on non-selective beta blockers and those with

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Also has a dose dependent response, but has essentially no B2 activity

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Has a negligible direct effect on the heart at low dose

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Causes an INCREASE in both arterial and venous tone

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Norepinephrine also results in an increase in

A

Systolic BP (SBP) and Diastolic BP (DBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The number one drug of choice for hypotension in sepsis and also for cardiogenic shock

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Should be regarded as the first line vasopressin in the treatment of septic shock

A

NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Activation of DA1 receptors in the kidney induces

A

Dieresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Activation of Beta-1 receptors ion the heart produces an increase in

A

Contractile force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Clinically, is used for treating hypotension, low cardiac output, and unstable bradycardia

A

Dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Dopamine toxicity causes

A

Arrhythmia, wide QRS, and angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A non-selective alpha agonist

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An alpha-1 selective agonist

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

And alpha-2 selective agonist

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A non-selective Beta agonist

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A beta-1 selective agonist

A

Dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A beta-2 selective agonist

A

Albuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Causes increased arterial/venous tone which results in increased BP

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes decreased venous capacitance and a reflex decrease in HR

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The number 2 drop of choice for hypotension if we can’t use NE

A

Phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Has the central action of decreasing SNS outflow

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Decreases HR and arterial/venous tone

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Used to treat hypertension and ADHD and can be sued as an anxiolytic

A

Clonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Has the beta-1 effects of increasing HR, contractility, and conduction velocity

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Has the beta-2 effects of decreasing peripheral vascular resistance (afterload)

A

Isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Syncope due to slow or absent pulse

A

Stokes-Adams attack

36
Q

Used to treat Stokes-Adams attack

A

Isoproterenol

37
Q

Beta 1 selective adrenergic agonists

-Causes increased contractility

A

Dobutamine

38
Q

It’s increased contractility effect is greater than its chronotropic effect

A

Dobutamine

39
Q

The number one drug of choice for cardiogenic shock with maintained BP

A

Dobutamine

40
Q

Add to NE in septic shock with low CO

-Used for cardiac stress test

A

Dobutamine

41
Q

Used to treat urinary incontinence and hypotension

A

Ephedrine

42
Q

What is the irreversible NON-selective alpha-blocker

A

Phenoxybenzamine

43
Q

What is the reversible NON-SELECTIVE alpha blocker?

A

Phentolamine

44
Q

Lower peripheral vascular resistance (alpha-1 block), decrease BP, and can cause orthostatic hypotension

A

Alpha antagonists

45
Q

The ONLY irreversible non-selective alpha blocker

A

Phenoxybenzamine

46
Q

Blocks NE reuptake at presynaptic terminals

-Alpha-1 effect is greater than alpha-2 effect

A

Phenoxybenzamine

47
Q

Phenoxybenzamine blocks catecholamine-mediated

A

Vasoconstriction

48
Q

Phenoxybenzamine is used to treat

A

Pheochromocytoma

49
Q

Blocks peripheral resistance and it’s alpha-2 effects cause cardiac stimulation

A

Phentolamine

50
Q

Used for the treatment of pheochromoytoma and in NE extravasion

A

Phentolamine

51
Q

Used to treat a patient on MAO inhibitor w/ tyramine ingestion

A

Phentolamine

52
Q

What is the selective alpha-2 blocker?

A

Yohimbine

53
Q

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and tamulosin are the 4

A

Alpha-1 selective alpha blockers

54
Q

Highly selective alpha-1 effects on relaxing arterial and venous smooth muscle

A

Prazosin

55
Q

Used to treat hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Prazosin

56
Q

Is considered “uroselective” as it blockers the alpha receptors in the prostate. Thus it is more selective for BPH

A

Tamulosin

57
Q

Works in CNS to increase SNS outflow to periphery

  • Used for erectile dysfunction
  • Contraindicated in CV disease
A

Yohimbine

58
Q

Limited bioavailability when taken orally

-Large volume of distribution

A

Beta-blockers

59
Q

Are negative chronotropes and negative inotropes

A

Beta-blockers

60
Q

Cause a slowed AV conduction with increased PR interval

A

Beta blockers

61
Q

Used to treat Coronary Artery Disease (CAD)

A

Beta-blockers

62
Q

Used to lower high blood pressure by suppressing renin release

-Only effective if you have high BP

A

Beta-blockers

63
Q

Blockage of beta-2 receptors in the periphery can cause an increase in

A

Peripheral Vascular Resistance

64
Q

Can cause bronchoconstriction, even w/ beta-1 selective drugs

A

Beta blockers

65
Q

Contraindicated w/ severe obstructive disease

A

Beta-blockers

66
Q

Block lipolysis, leading to increased VLDL and decreased HDL

-Causes impaired glucose tolerance

A

Beta-blockers

67
Q

In the eye, beta-blockers reduce

A

Intraocular pressure

68
Q

Used to treat a myocardial infarction

-Given in acute STEMI

A

Propranolol

69
Q

Used in symptomatic heart failure where we see reduced ejection fraction

A

Metoprolol

70
Q

Also used to treat hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, and migraine

A

Beta-blockers

71
Q

Can precipitate acute MI in patients with CAD

-can cause ventricular tachyarrythmia

A

Beta-blockers

72
Q

Can cause CHF exacerbation in patients with acute decompensated HF

A

Beta-blocker

73
Q

The presence of an AV conduction defect can lead to a serious bradyarrhythmia when taking a

A

Beta Blocker

74
Q

Causes bronchoconstriction, a worsens glycemic control in type 2 DM

A

Beta blockers

75
Q

Prototypical beta blocker

-highly lipophilic

A

Propranolol

76
Q

Has partial agonist activity and is an intrinsic sympathomimetic

A

Pindolol

77
Q

Beta blocker with a VERY long duration of action

A

Nadolol

78
Q

A non-selective 3rd generation Beta-blocker that has cocaine-like activity

A

Labetolol

79
Q

alpha-1 receptor blockade leads to

A

Vasodilation

80
Q

Also contributes to a fall in BP, in part by blocking reflex sympathetic stimulation of the heart

A

Beta-1 blockade

81
Q

A non-selective 3rd generation beta-blocker with antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties

A

Carvedilol

82
Q

Beta-1(cardio)-selective antagonists are preferred in patients with asthma, COPD, and DM. Four examples are

A

Metoprolol, atenolol, acebutolol, and esmomlol

83
Q

A ULTRA short-acting parenteral beta-1 blocker

A

Esmolol

84
Q

A beta-1 selective third generation beta blocker

A

Nebivolol

85
Q

Most highly selective beta-1 agent

-LONG activity

A

Nebivolol

86
Q

Has vasodilatory effects via NO release

A

Nebivolol

87
Q

The first line antipode to beta blocker toxicity is

A

Glucagon