Acute Fractures Flashcards

1
Q

supracondylar elbow fractures risk injury to what nerve and artery?

A

median nerve and brachial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the most common comorbid nerve injury in a humeral shaft fracture?

A

radial nerve injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what type / location of humerus fracture is most associated with nerve injury?

A

transverse mid-diaphyseal fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

if intramedullary nailing is used to treat humerus fracture, what is the most common complication to warn the athlete about?

A

shoulder pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in most cases, what is the typical appropriate management for humerus shaft fracture?

A

non operative management / functional bracing/ROM and isometric exercises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

most distal humerus fractures require what type of treatment?

A

surgical stabilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the two step initial management for a patient with non displaced radial head fracture?

A

sling and early elbow ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

for non surgical management of distal radius fracture, for how long should immobilization in cast last?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

after 4-6 weeks casting for minimally displaced distal radius fracture, what is the next step?

A

removable splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

most scaphoid fractures are treated in what way?

A

surgical - ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what imaging modality can be helpful for assessing healing of scaphoid fractures and return to play decisions?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

an acute olecranon fracture that is < 2mm displaced and with intact extensor mechanism can be treated with what?

A

cast or splint immobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in the case of a middle third clavicle fracture, the medial portion is pulled in what direction? by what muscle?

A

superiorly by the SCM muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

dislocations of the PIP should be treated with what type of splint?

A

extension block splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how are minimally displaced phalanx fractures of the hand treated?

A

buddy taping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how are metacarpal neck or shaft fractures treated?

A

cast or splint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what degree of overlap of a clavicle fracture indicates the need for surgery?

A

> 2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

t/f operative management of displaced midshaft clavicle fracture improves return to sport compared with non operative management

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

t/f conservative care for midshaft clavicle fracture can increase risk of nonunion compared to operative management

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a monteggia fracture?

A

fracture of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

fracture of the radial shaft with injury to the distal radioulnar joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the recommended treatment for skeletally mature athletes with displaced radial or ulnar shaft fractures?

A

surgical treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the typical time for return to sport after forearm fracture?

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how do you manage a non displaced ulnar fracture?

A

bracing or casting until clinical and radiographic evidence of fracture union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

in a concominant fracture of the ulna and radius diaphysis , after ORIF, for how long do you need to immobilize in a long arm cast post-surgery?

26
Q

in the most common type of Monteggia fracture, in what relative direction will the humeral head dislocate?

27
Q

in a fracture of the radius distal to the insertion of the pronator teres, the distal fragment of the radius will be pullsed into pronation by what muscle?

A

pronator quadratus

28
Q

what complication of radial and/or ulnar fracture can cause difficulty pronating the forearm due to elimination of natural radial lateral bowing?

29
Q

compartment syndrome of the forearm is most likely to occur in what compartment?

30
Q

what two criteria must be met to treat a tibial plafond fracture with long leg cast?

A
  1. minimal displacement
  2. no damage to the articular joint surface
31
Q

what type of surgery is indicated for Jones fracture?

A

intramedullary screw fixation

32
Q

fractures of the foot that are minimally displaced can be treated with what?

A

short leg cast

33
Q

the duration for which a hip dislocation is ongoing is directly correlated to what complication of the femoral head?

A

osteonecrosis

34
Q

MRI performed after hip dislocation/reduction can assess for what two complications?

A
  1. AVN
  2. injury to labrum / capsule
35
Q

before reduction of a hip dislocation is attempted, what two things must you do?

A
  1. radiographs
  2. Neurovascular assessment
36
Q

what is an important complication from displaced femoral neck fracture?

A

AVN of the femoral head

37
Q

weakness in what muscle group is a common complication from anterograde intramedullary nailing for treatment of a femoral neck fracture?

A

abductor muscle weakness

38
Q

what is the typical mechanism of a knee dislocation?

A

hyperextension with foot fixed

39
Q

what is a normal ABI?

A

0.9 or greater

40
Q

which nerve function is especially important to assess after suspected knee dislocation?

A

peroneal nerve function

41
Q

what is the most common comorbid fracture in the case of knee dislocation?

A

tibial plateau fracture

42
Q

if you assess a knee dislocation and find that the pulses are different side to side, what is the next step?

A

eval for vascular injuries with CT or MR angiography

43
Q

what type of splint should be used for on field stabilization of tibial shaft fracture?

A

air or vacuum splint

44
Q

t/f in the case of tibial shaft fracture, you should splint the fracture as it lies

45
Q

which artery is most at risk in a knee dislocation?

A

popliteal artery

46
Q

anterior and posterior dislocation of the knee refer to what segment?

A

direction that the tibia moves in relationship to the femur

47
Q

what is a Maisonneuve fracture?

A

complete disruption of the tibiofibular syndesmosis, fracture of the proximal fibula and medial ankle injury (such as deltoid ligament tear)

48
Q

what is the typical movement of the talus that serves as the MOI for Maisonneuve fracture?

A

external rotation

49
Q

what is a type A rotational fracture of the ankle?

A

avulsion fracture of the lateral malleolus and shear fracture of the medial malleolus caused by medial rotation of the talus

50
Q

what is a type B rotational fracture of the ankle?

A

shear fracture of the lateral malleolus and avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus from lateral rotation of the talus

51
Q

what is a type C rotational ankle fracture?

A

disruption of the tibiofibular ligaments and syndesmosis by external rotation of the talus also resulting in more proximal fracture of the fibula

52
Q

how can closed, stable fractures of the tibial shaft be managed?

A

cast and functional bracing

53
Q

when performing external rotation stress testing of the ankle, if stability is found and there is no pain with this maneuver, what etiology can be mostly ruled out?

A

unstable ankle fracture

54
Q

the Weber system of ankle fracture classification classifies fractures in relationship to what structure?

A

tibial plafond

55
Q

when evaluating ankle fracture on XR, what are the cutoffs for increased widening at the medial clear space and at the distal tibiofibular space?

A

> 4mm medial clear space
6mm tibiofibular space

56
Q

in general, what is the treatment for bimalleolar or trimalleolar fractures of the ankle?

57
Q

what is the particular surgical treatment of choice for repair of the syndesmosis when diastasis is present?

A

suture fixation device such as Tight Rope

58
Q

what are the earliest and most reliable indicators of acute compartment syndrome?

A

pain out of proportion and pain with passive stretch

59
Q

what are the 5 p’s of compartment syndrome?

A

pain
pallor
pulselessness
paresthesia
poikilothermia

60
Q

t/f firm compartments and severe pain, especially with passive stretch are adequate to make the diagnosis of compartment syndrome even in the absence of compartment testing

61
Q

how long should screws be left in place for a fifth metatarsal base fracture?

A

until the athlete has finished competitive sports