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Surgery and other stuff > ACLS Cards > Flashcards

ACLS Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What is the biphasic energy amount for defibrillation?

A

120-200 J or factory recommended

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2
Q

What is the amount of energy for monophasic defibrillation?

A

360 J

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3
Q

How many breaths per minute should you start with for post cardiac arrest care?

A

10 / minute

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4
Q

What is the dose for epi infusion post cardiac arrest?

A

0.1- 0.5 mcg/kg per minute (7-35 mcg per min)

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5
Q

What is the dose for Norepi infusion post cardiac arrest?

A

0.1-0.5 mcg/kg per minute (7-35 mcg per min)

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6
Q

What is the dose of dopamine for IV infusion post cardiac arrest?

A

5-10 mcg/kg per min

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7
Q

What is the indication for TTI?

A

If patient remains comatoma after ROSC

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8
Q

What are the general steps for monitoring a bradycardic patient? (4)

A

IV
O2
Monitor
EKG

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9
Q

What is the treatment for a bradycardic patient without s/sx?

A

Observation

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10
Q

What is the treatment for a bradycardic patient with s/sx?

A

Transcutaneous pacing or atropine

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11
Q

What is the dopamine infusion rate for bradycardia?

A

2-20 mcg/kg per minute

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12
Q

What is the dose of epi for a symptomatic bradycardia patient?

A

2-10 mcg/ minute

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13
Q

What is the dose of electricity for synchronized cardioversion for a narrow, regular rhythm?

A

50-100

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14
Q

What is the dose of electricity for synchronized cardioversion for a narrow, Irregular rhythm?

A

120-200 J biphasic or 200 monophasic

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15
Q

What is the dose of electricity for synchronized cardioversion for a wide, regular rhythm?

A

100 J

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16
Q

What is the dose of electricity for synchronized cardioversion for a wide, Irregular rhythm?

A

Defibrillation

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17
Q

What is the dose of procainamide for antiarrhythmic?

A

20-50 mcg/min until arrhyhtmia suppressed

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18
Q

What are the side effects of procainamide?

A

Hypotension

QRS duration increases 50%

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19
Q

What is the maintenance infusion dose of procainamide?

A

1-4 mg/min

20
Q

What are the two major contraindications to procainamide use?

A

CHF or QT prolongation

21
Q

What is the infusion maintenance dose for amiodarone?

A

1 mg/min for first 6 hours

22
Q

What is the IV dose for sotalol?

A

100 mg over 5 minutes

23
Q

What is the major contraindication to procainamide?

A

Prolonged QT interval

24
Q

What is the treatment for tachycardia if it is causing s/sx?

A

Cardioversion

25
Q

What is the treatment for a stable, wide complex tachycardia?

A
  • Consider adenosine if regular and monomorphic

- Antiarrthmics

26
Q

When is adenosine indicated for the treatment of a wide complex tachycardia?

A

If monomorphic VT

27
Q

What is the treatment for a polymorphic VT?

A

Shock

28
Q

What is the treatment for a narrow complex tachycardia that is stable?

A

Vagal maneuvers
Adenosine
Beta blocker or CCB

29
Q

What are the steps that an ACS patient should have within the first ten minutes of arriving in the ED?

A
  • Vitals
  • IV, O2 monitor
  • Brief history
  • Review fibrinolytic checklist
30
Q

Within what timeframe is a CXR needed in the ED?

A

30 minutes

31
Q

What EKG findings define a “high risk” patient for ACS?

A

T wave inversion or ST segment depression

32
Q

What is the door to balloon time?

A

90 minutes

33
Q

What is the door to needle time for fibrinolysis?

A

30 minutes

34
Q

What are the drugs to avoid in patient with irregular, wide complex tachycardias, and why?

A

AV nodal blocking agents (e.g. CCBs, beta blockers, adenosine, dig)

Will send down accessory pathway.

35
Q

True or false: adenosine is safe in pregnancy?

A

True

36
Q

What two drugs alter the metabolism of adenosine, and require a halfdose?

A

Dipyridamole

Carbamazepine

37
Q

patients with what disease should avoid adenosine?

A

Asthma (causes bronchospasm)

38
Q

Why should you avoid using CCBs and beta blockers together?

A

Overlapping actions may cause profound bradycardia

39
Q

What position should patients be placed in after ROSC? Why?

A
  • 30 degrees elevated

- Reduce the risk of aspiration

40
Q

Why should you avoid hyperventilation in ROSC pts?

A

Increased pressures in the lungs causes decreased CO

41
Q

What is the goal PetCO2 for ROSC pts?

A

35-40

42
Q

True or false: oral, but not axillary temperature are appropriate for monitoring cooled patients?

A

False–both wrong. Need cath

43
Q

What are the two most common causes of PEA?

A
  • Hypoxia

- Hypovolemia

44
Q

What happens to SBP and DBP with hypovolemia?

A

Increased DBP

Decreased SBP

45
Q

True or false: it is appropriate to administer fibrinolytics to cardiac arrest patients if PE is strongy suspected

A

true

46
Q

What is the role of fluids in pericardial tamponade?

A

Helps while definitive therapy is arranged

Surgery and other stuff (25 decks)

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