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Abdomen 2 > abdomen 2 final male pelvis and prostate review > Flashcards

abdomen 2 final male pelvis and prostate review Flashcards

1
Q

The length of each seminal vescile measures approximately:

A

5cm

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2
Q

With age, the prostate sometimes

A

enlarges

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3
Q

Of the glandular prostate, the transition zone accounts for about:

A

5%

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4
Q

Seminal vesicles in the long axis are seen using which scanning plane?

A

transverse

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5
Q

The prostate glad is sonographically;

A

heterogeneous

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6
Q

True or false

the prostate gland and seminal vesicles contribute to sperm viability by secreting alkaline fluids.

A

true

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7
Q

True or false

The fluid secreted by the seminal vesicles constitutes about 33% of semen volume

A

false

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8
Q

True or false

The seminal vesicles empty into the distal ductus deferens to form the ejaculatory ducts

A

true

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9
Q

True or false

The transabdominal approach is superior for scanning the seminal vesicles and prostate

A

false

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10
Q

true or false

The prostate gland consists of a small anterior veramontanum and a much larger posterior glandular region

A

false

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11
Q

What is the normal intratesticular arterial flow?

A

low resistance

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12
Q

What regulates the temperature of the testes?

A

pampiniform plexus

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13
Q

The penis is composed of:

A

two corpora cavernosa dorsolaterally and one corpus spongiosum midventrally

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14
Q

What does the scrotum consist of?

A

Testicles, epididymis, and distal vas deferens

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15
Q

Spermatazoa exit the testis through the

A

efferent ducts

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16
Q

The median raphe divides the

A

scrotum into two testicles

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17
Q

The testicles are classified as

A

exocrine and endocine glands

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18
Q

most common location for undescended testis

A

inguinal canal

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19
Q

What does the normal veins of the pampiniform measure?

A

Less than 2 mm in diameter

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20
Q

Testicular microlithiasis is diagnosed sonographically when

A

more than five echogenic, nonshadowing foci are seen per transducer field

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21
Q

What tumor accounts for 80% of childhood testicular tumors?

A

yolk sac

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22
Q

Most cases of yolk sac tumors occur before the age of

A

2

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23
Q

Most common extratesticular neoplasm is the benign

A

adenomatoid tumor

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24
Q

semen is composed of

A

60% alkaline fructose, 13% to 33% alkaline ffluid and sperm

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25
Q

Denonvillier’s fascia lies between:

A

the prostate and the rectum

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26
Q

Prostate cancer occurs most often in which zone:

A

peripheral zone

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27
Q

Most common type of prostate cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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28
Q

The prostate is supported by:

A

The obturator internus and levator ani muscles

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29
Q

The seminal vesicles join with the ductus deferens to form the:

A

ejaculatory ducts

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30
Q

what are the most common cyst of the male pelvic?

A

Mullerian duct and utricle

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31
Q

Most common symptomatic tumor like condition in the male pelvic?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

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32
Q

Which blood test is used to identify men at increased risk of prostate cancer?

A

PSA

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33
Q

Which cyst contains spermatozoa?

A

seminal vesicle cyet

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34
Q

where are the seminal vesicles located?

A

posterior to the urinary bladder and inferior to the prostate

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35
Q

which zone of the prostate is most affected by BPH?

A

transition zone

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36
Q

What produces the Eiffel tower appearance?

A

Periuretheral calculi

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37
Q

What term describes the involuntary emptying of the bladder

A

incontinence

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38
Q

What term describes the inability to empty the bladder even when it is full?

A

retention

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39
Q

The ureterovesical junction describes what anatomic location?

A

Where the ureter joins the urinary bladder

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40
Q

Anatomical division of the epididymis

A

head, body, and tail

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41
Q

what undergoes ectasia caused by dilation of the semneferous tubules and is associated with epididymal cyst and spermatoceles?

A

rete testis

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42
Q

Most common cause of acute scrotal pain

A

epididymitis and epididmy- orchitis

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43
Q

Testicular torsion is most common at what age

A

12 to 18 years of age

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44
Q

Most common cause of epidiymitis in young men

A

sexually transmitted disease

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45
Q

collection of serous fluid located between the layers of the tunica vaginalis

A

hydrocele

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46
Q

most common correctable cause of male infertility

A

varicocele

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47
Q

most common sonographic appearance of a malignant testicular mass

A

hypoechoic mass

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48
Q

what lab values may be elevated with testicular malignancy

A

AFP

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49
Q

most common malignancy of the testicles

A

seminoma

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50
Q

dilated group of veins within the scrotum

A

varicocele

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51
Q

most common location of a varicocele

A

left side of the scrotum

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52
Q

most common cancer found in men

A

prostate cancer

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53
Q

technique that is useful for providing sonographic evidence of a varicocele

A

valsalva maneuver

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54
Q

the blue dot sign is indicative of

A

testicular torsion

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55
Q

most common malignancy of the penis

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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56
Q

what is the exocrine function of the testicles

A

to produce sperm

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57
Q

dilated veins are considered a varicocele when they measure

A

greater than 2 mm

58
Q

most likely sonographic appearance of a seminoma

A

hypoechoic

59
Q

enlargement of the prostate in older men is most often caused by

A

BPH

60
Q

Zinner syndrome consist of

A

unilateral renal agenesis
ejaculatury duct obstruction
seminal vesicle cyst

61
Q

the appearance of a torsed testicular appendage that can be observed as a blue dot just under the skin surface

A

blue dot sign

62
Q

small benign mass within the testicle that contains keratin

A

epidermoid cyst

63
Q

paired erectile tissues of the penis

A

coropora cavernosa

64
Q

a sexually transmitted disease that can lead to infection of the genitals

A

chlamydia

65
Q

the muscle that raises the testis

A

cremaster muscle

66
Q

the tube that connects the epididymis to the seminal vesicles

A

ductus (vas) deferens

67
Q

a cyst located anywhere along the length of the epididymis

A

epididymal cyst

68
Q

the condition of having an undescended testis or testicles

A

cryptorchidism

69
Q

a coiled structure that is attached to the testicle and the posterior scrotal wall that is responsible for storing sperm

A

epididymis

70
Q

inflammation of all or part of the epididymis

A

epididymitis

71
Q

a collection of blood within the scrotum

A

hematocele

72
Q

a condition that results from the arterial blood supply to the testicle being cut off secondary to the twisting of the testicular axis

A

testicular torsion

73
Q

structure that is formed by the tunica albuginea and contains the rete testis

A

mediastinum testis

74
Q

inflammation of the testis

A

orchitis

75
Q

the largest zone of the prostate

A

peripheral zone

76
Q

having more than two testicle

A

polyorchidim

77
Q

a network of tubes that carry sperm from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis

A

rete testis

78
Q

a fluid that contains secretions from the testicles, seminal vesicles and prostate gland

A

semen

79
Q

small glands located superior to the prostate gland and posterior to the base of the bladder, which secrete an alkaline based fluid

A

seminal vesicle

80
Q

the structure that travels through the inguinal canal and contains blood vessels, nerves, lymph nodes and the cremaster muscle

A

spermatic cord

81
Q

location of spermatogenesis within the testicles

A

seminiferous tubules

82
Q

a common cyst found most often in the head of the epididymis that is composed of nonviable sperm, fat, cellular debris, and lymphocytes

A

spermatocele

83
Q

the production of sperm

A

spermatogenesis

84
Q

dense connective tissue that is closely applied to each testicle; it is also located within the penis

A

tunica albuginea

85
Q

structure that separates the scrotum into two separate compartments internally

A

tunica dartos

86
Q

paired serous coatings of the testis

A

tunica vaginalis

87
Q

a form of male contraception in which the vas deferens is surgically interrupted to prohibit the flow of sperm from the testis

A

vasectomy

88
Q

gland that secretes pre ejactulatory fluid that lubricated the penile urethra before ejaculation

A

bulbourethral gland

89
Q

component of the erectile tissue of the penis that contains the urethra

A

corpus spongiosum

90
Q

a type of neoplasm derived from germ cells of the gonads; may be found outside the reproductive tract

A

germ cell tumor

91
Q

the presence of blood in the semen

A

hematospermai

92
Q

normal passageway in the lower anterior abdomen wall that allows for the passage of the spermatic cord into the scrotum

A

inguinal canal

93
Q

a condition in which a male has an extra x chromosome

A

Klinefelter syndrom

94
Q

characteristic features of Klinefelter syndrome

A

small testicles
infertility
gynecomastia
long legs
abnormally low intelligence

95
Q

an anomaly where left renal vein entrapment occurs between the superior mesenteric artery and the abdominal aorta

A

Nutcracker syndrome

96
Q

group of veins in the spermatic cord

A

pampiniform plexus

97
Q

the buildup of fibrous plaque (scar tissue) and calcifications within the penis that results in a painful curvature

A

Peyronie disease

98
Q

a protein produced by the prostate gland

A

PSA

99
Q

a pus collection within the scrotum

A

pyocele

100
Q

extratesticular calculus

A

scrotal pearl

101
Q

the cystic dilation and formation of cyst within the rete testis

A

tubular ectasia of the rete testis

102
Q

the testicular appendage located between the head of the epididymis and the superior pole of the testis

A

appendix testis

103
Q

the testicular appendage located at the head of the epididymis

A

appendix epididymis

104
Q

the benign enlargement of the prostate gland

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

105
Q

the condition in which the patient lacks the normal posterior fixation of the testis and epididymis to the scrotal wall

A

“Bell-Clapper” deformity

106
Q

Deep layer of fascia that covers the corpora cavernosa and the corpus spongiosum of the penis

A

buck fascia

107
Q

hormone typically only produced by the trophoblastic cells of the early placenta; may also be used as a tumor marker in nongravid patients and males

A

human chorionic gonadotropic (hcG)

108
Q

The protrusion of bowel or abdominal contents through the inguinal canal

A

inguinal hernia

109
Q

performed by attempting to forcibly exhale while keeping the mouth and nose closed

A

valsalva maneuver

110
Q

elevated area within the prostatic urethra at which the ejaculatory ducts meet the urethra

A

verumontanum

111
Q

reproductive duct that extends from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct

A

vas deferens

112
Q

superior portion of the prostate gland, which is located below the inferior margin of the urinary bladder

A

base

113
Q

calculi found within the urethra

A

exogenous calculi

114
Q

calcifications commonly seen in the inner gland of the prostate

A

corpora amylacea

115
Q

inferior portion of the prostate gland, which is located superior to the urogenital diaphragm

A

apex

116
Q

a longitudinal ridge within the prostatic urethral wall where the orifices of the ejaculatory ducts are located on either side

A

verumontanum

117
Q

calculi formation within the substance of the prostate

A

endogenous calculi

118
Q

shadowing created by calcification in the area of the urethra and verumontanum

A

Eiffel tower sign

119
Q

a pair of tubular glands which extend from outpouching of the vas deferens

A

seminal vesicles

120
Q

demarcation between the inner gland and the outer gland, which normally appears hypoechoic

A

surgical capsule

121
Q

duct that passes through the central zone and empties into the urethra; originates from the combination of the vas deferens and the seminal vesicle

A

ejaculatory ducts

122
Q

Which structure travels within the central zone of the prostate gland and joins the urethra?

A

ejaculatory duct

123
Q

Which of the following is NOT a zone within the glandular tissue of the prostate gland?
a. peripheral zone
b. epithelial zone
c. central zone
d. periuretheral zone

A

b

124
Q

Which of the glandular zones of the prostate is the largest?

A

peripheral zone

125
Q

In which zone does prostate cancer and prostatitis most often occur?

A

peripheral zone

126
Q

Your patient presents for a sonography examination to evaluate for benign prostatic hypertrophy. Which zone is most affected by BPH?

A

transition zone

127
Q

Which blood test is used to identify men at an increased risk of prostate cancer?

A

PSA

128
Q

The apex of the prostate is located inferior to the verumontanum and is made up predominantly of which zone?

A

peripheral zone

129
Q

The base of the prostate is located superior to the verumontanum and is made up predominantly of which zone?

A

central zone

130
Q

Which of the following cysts is associated with genital anomalies such as hypospadias?
a. Mullerian duct cyst
b. utricle cyst
c. seminal vesicle cyst
d. prostatic cyst

A

b

131
Q

Which of the following cysts will contain spermatozoa?
a. Mullerian duct cyst
b. utricle cyst
c. seminal vesicle cyst
d. prostatic cyst

A

c

132
Q

A diabetic patient presents with fever, urinary frequency, low back pain, and hematuria. While scanning the prostate gland, you notice a focal complex area that has increased blood flow. What is the most likely diagnosis given the patient’s history?

A

prostatic abscess

133
Q

What is the most common symptomatic condition to affect the prostate gland>

A

BPH

134
Q

You patient states that he has had a transurethral resection or TURP procedure. What condition does this procedure treat?

A

BPH

135
Q

Which of the following statements regarding BPH is FALSE?
a. BPH is commonly seen in men over the age of 40 with a peak incidence around 60
b. BPH causes the prostate to appear more rounded than normal
c. BPH affects the central zone of the prostate
d. BPH causes urinary symptoms of frequency, nocturia, and difficulty starting a steam

A

c

136
Q

What is the sonographic appearance of the prostate gland in patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

hypo-hyperechoic
heterogeneous

137
Q

Where does the corpora amylacea occur most often?

A

posterior segment of the prostate

138
Q

Patients with prostate cancer may present with which of the following symptoms?
a. an abnormal PSA level
b. an abnormal DRE
c. bladder outlet obstruction
d. patients may present with all of the above symptoms

A

d

139
Q

A definitive diagnosis of prostate cancer can be made by which of the following procedures?
a. DRE
b. TRUS
c. ultrasound-guided biopsy
d. PSA level

A

c

140
Q

What is the predictive value of TRUS alone for diagnosing prostate cancer?

A

less than 10 percent

141
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the sound-guided prostate biopsy is TRUE?
a. Prostate biopsy is only performed if a discrete lesion can be identified with ultrasound
b. the method of choice is the transperineal approach
c. Prostate biopsy is commonly done at known sites of anatomic weakness
d. Prostate biopsy is routinely done from a transabdominal approach with a full urinary bladder

A

c

Abdomen 2 (9 decks)

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