513 AAMC exam wrong answers

Question 1

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data?

A.Boiling points
B.UV–visible absorption spectra
C.Mass spectroscopic fragmentation patterns
D.Heats of combustion

Answer 1

D- because the relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability

• this is more accurate than BP

Question 2

Radioactive tritium (3H) labelled guanine has been used to measure the rate of biochemical processes that involve its binding or incorporation.

Guanine

Given that water is the solvent for this type of experiment, what is the best site for tritium labelling?

A.I
B.II
C.III
D.IV

Answer 2

The answer to this question is A because the best site for tritium labelling would not exchange the tritium ions for protons in water. All of the N−H sites (II−IV) would readily exchange tritium protons due to their lone pair-facilitating protonation and subsequent tritium exchange with water, but the C−H site (I), lacking a lone pair, would retain its tritium label.

Question 3

iodine vs iodide

Answer 3

iodine –> 2 together - naturally occurring state

iodide–> in the ion form (I-)

Question 4

I-

Answer 4

iodide

Question 5

I2

Answer 5

iodine

Question 6

The pH of a 1 L phosphate buffer solution was measured as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH? (Note: The pKa values for phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3.)

A.Add enough 1 M Na2HPO3 to increase the phosphate anion concentration ten-fold.

B.Add 1 M NaOH to neutralize a portion of the hydronium ions found in the solution.

C.Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species.

D.Add 100 mL distilled, deionized water to dilute the basicity of the buffer.

Answer 6

The answer to this question is C because, in order to lower the pH of a buffer, the proportion of acidic buffer component must be increased. Adding strong base, diluting with water, or adding a different basic salt will not lower the pH. It is a Reasoning about the Design and Execution of Research question because you reason about the appropriateness of a specific experimental change in order to conduct research in the natural sciences.

Question 7

Which experimental condition is NOT necessary to achieve reliable data for Michaelis–Menten enzyme kinetics?

A.Initial velocity is measured under steady state conditions.

B.Solution pH remains constant at all substrate concentrations.

C.The concentration of enzyme is lower than that of substrate.

D.The reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium before measurements are taken.

Answer 7

D, because once the reaction reaches equilibrium, measurement of Vo will be impossible and the kinetic data will look the same regardless of substrate concentration. Hence, response D is not necessary (nor desirable) to achieve reliable data for Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics. In contrast, Distractors A−C are essential to obtain reliable Vo versus substrate concentration data to calculate KM and Vmax using Michaelis−Menten enzyme kinetics

“what should you do to achieve undesirable results”

Question 8

heme structure

Answer 8

heme is a porphyrin

• the basic unit of a porphyrin is a pyyrole ring (5 sided ring with one N

Question 9

hydroxylation

Answer 9

hydroxylation is (organic chemistry) the introduction of a hydroxyl group into a molecule, especially by the replacement of a hydrogen atom

• oxidation

Question 10

hydrolase

Answer 10

break apart with water

Question 11

ligase

Answer 11

a ligase is an enzyme that can catalyze the joining of two large molecules by forming a new chemical bond, usually with accompanying hydrolysis of a small pendant chemical group on one of the larger molecules or the enzyme catalyzing the linking together of two compounds

Question 12

volume flow rate

Answer 12

Q= A x Velocity

Question 13

list periodic groups from left to right

Answer 13

alkaloid metals, alkaline earth metals, transition metals, halogens, noble gases

Question 14

fluid pressure formula (NEED TO KNOW THIS)

Answer 14

pgh

density - g - h

Question 15

if specific gravity is given and i need its desity what do I do?

Answer 15

specific gravity means it is that many times larger then the density of water

so if sg= 13.6

then density of that fluid is 13.6 x density of water (1000kg/m^3)

Question 16

density of water

Answer 16

1g/cm^3

1g/ml

1000g/L

1000 kg/m^3

Question 17

rote memorization

Answer 17

Rote memory generally entails memory for material without much reference to the meaning, emotions, or to the context to which it is associated. The major practice in rote memorization is learning by repetition or routine, without full comprehension or attention to what is being memorized.

Question 18

rote memorization

Answer 18

Rote memory generally entails memory for material without much reference to the meaning, emotions, or to the context to which it is associated. The major practice in rote memorization is learning by repetition or routine, without full comprehension or attention to what is being memorized.

Question 19

imprinted gene

Answer 19

Imprinted genes are genes whose expression is determined by the parent that contributed them.

Imprinted genes violate the usual rule of inheritance that both alleles in a heterozygote are equally expressed.

Examples of the usual rule:
If a child inherits the gene for blood group A from either parent and the gene for group B from the other parent, the child’s blood group will be AB.
If a child inherits the gene encoding hemoglobin A from either parent and the gene encoding hemoglobin S from the other parent, the child’s red blood cells will contain roughly equal amounts of the two types of hemoglobin.

But there are a few exceptions to this rule. A small number of genes in mammals (~100 of them at a recent count) and in angiosperms have been found to be imprinted. Because most imprinted genes are repressed, either

the maternal (inherited from the mother) allele is expressed exclusively because the paternal (inherited from the father) allele is imprinted or
vice versa.

Question 20

example of an imprinted gene

Answer 20

1. IGF2

— the gene encoding the insulin-like growth factor-2
In humans (and other mammals like mice and pigs) the IGF2 allele inherited from the father (paternal) is expressed; the allele inherited from the mother is not.

If both alleles should begin to be expressed in a cell, that cell may develop into a cancer.

Question 21

Barr body

Answer 21

Human females inherit two copies of every gene on the X chromosome, whereas males inherit only one (with some exceptions: the 9 pseudoautosomal genes and the small number of “housekeeping” genes found on the Y). But for the hundreds of other genes on the X, are males at a disadvantage in the amount of gene product their cells produce? With some exceptions (see below), the answer is no. This is because females have only a single active X chromosome in each cell.

During interphase, chromosomes are too tenuous to be stained and seen by light microscopy. However, a dense, stainable structure, called a Barr body (after its discoverer) is seen in the interphase nuclei of female mammals. The Barr body is one of the X chromosomes. Its compact appearance reflects its inactivity. So, the cells of females have only one functioning copy of most (see below) of the X-linked gene — the same as males.

X-chromosome inactivation occurs early in embryonic development. In a given cell, which of a female’s X chromosomes becomes inactivated and converted into a Barr body is a matter of chance (except in marsupials like the kangaroo, where it is always the father’s X chromosome that is inactivated). After inactivation has occurred, all the descendants of that cell will have the same chromosome inactivated. Thus X-chromosome inactivation creates clones with differing effective gene content. An organism whose cells vary in effective gene content and hence in the expression of a trait, is called a genetic mosaic.

Question 22

What is meant by maternal imprinting or paternal imprinting

Answer 22

Maternal imprinting means that the allele of a particular gene inherited from the mother is transcriptionally silent and the paternally- inherited allele is active. Paternal imprinting is the opposite; the paternally-inherited allele is silenced and the maternally-inherited allele is active.

imprinted gene = silenced

Question 23

flashbulb memory

Answer 23

subjectively vivid, compelling memories of details associated with reception of news about emotionally arousing events were referred to as flashbulb memories

highly detailed, exceptionally vivid ‘snapshot’ of the moment and circumstances in which a piece of surprising and consequential (or emotionally arousing) news was learned about.

Question 24

what causes flashbulb memory

Answer 24

highly emotional state or arousal

Question 25

reproductive memory

Answer 25

• recall that is hypothesized to work by storing the original stimulus input and reproducing it during recall
• accurate
• stores encoded information to be retrieved at a later time.

However, this type of memory is subject to errors of constructive memory or reconstructive memory.

reconstructive memory- is a theory of memory recall, in which the act of remembering is influenced by various other cognitive processes including perception, imagination, semantic memory and beliefs, amongst others.
recall is influenced by that persons beleifs, culture, cognition and during recall person may fill in the gaps using their knowledge, goals, logic

Question 26

prospective memory

Answer 26

is a form of memory that involves remembering to perform a planned action or recall a planned intention at some future point in time. Prospective memory tasks are common in daily life and range from the relatively simple to extreme life-or-death situation

Question 27

reconstructive memory

Answer 27

refers to the idea that remembering the past reflects our attempts to reconstruct the events experienced previously.

refers to a class of memory theories that claim that the experience of remembering an event involves processes that make use of partial fragmentary information as well as a set of rules for combining that information into a coherent view of the past event.

Question 28

remember to tell dad to take his pain meds tmrw is an example of what type of memory

Answer 28

prospective memory

Question 29

episodic memory

Answer 29

is a category of long-term memory that involves the recollection of specific events, situations, and experiences. Your memories of your first day of school, your first kiss, attending a friend’s birthday party, and your brother’s graduation are all examples of episodic memories.

Question 30

semantic memory

Answer 30

recall of general facts

Semantic memory is recall of general facts, while episodic memory is recall of personal facts. Remembering the capital of France and the rules for playing football uses semantic memory. Remembering what happened in the last game of the World Series uses episodic memory.

Question 31

procedural memory

Answer 31

long-term memory that is responsible for knowing how to do things, also known as motor skills. As the name implies, procedural memory stores information on how to perform certain procedures, such as walking, talking and riding a bike.

Question 32

iconic memory

Answer 32

is part of the visual memory system which also includes long-term memory and visual short-term memory. Iconic memory is a type of sensory memory that lasts just milliseconds before fading. The word iconic refers to an icon, which is a pictorial representation or image.

shorter than echoic memory

Question 33

iconic vs echoic memory? which last longer?

Answer 33

Echoic memory deals with auditory information, holding that information for 1 to 2 seconds. Iconic memory deals with visual information, holding that information for 1 second (SHORTER) All information that is kept from these two types of sensory memory must be stored as short-term memory before being stored as long-term memory.

Question 34

memory of a highly emotional event

Answer 34

emotional arousal seems to focus a person’s attention on the central features of an event. The hypothesis (Easterbrook, 1959) that a person will notice information that elicits arousal, but fail to process other information, has been supported by studies in which memory for an (emotional) event’s “central” aspects (directly tied to the emotion elicitor) is compared to memory for “peripheral” aspects (removed from the source of the emotional arousal). Thus, memory for the fundamental gist of the emotional event is retained, whereas memory for details (if they are encoded at all) either fades or undergoes changes.

Question 35

what encompases SES?

Answer 35

the three main components of SES (occupation, income, and education)

social capital has nothing to do with this

Question 36

hippocampus function? if damaged what is likely to occur?

Answer 36

learning and memory

• 50 first dates

The hippocampus is responsible for processing of long-term memory and emotional responses. We would not even be able to remember where our house is without the work of the hippocampus. The hippocampus also encodes emotional context from the amygdala. When you think of the amygdala, you should think of one word, fear.
the person can experience a loss of memory and a loss of the ability to make new, long-term memories

Question 37

medulla oblongata

Answer 37

The medulla oblongata or simply medulla is a long stem-like structure which makes up part of the brainstem. It is anterior and partially inferior to the cerebellum. It is a cone-shaped neuronal mass responsible for autonomic (involuntary) functions ranging from vomiting to sneezing.

Question 38

pons

Answer 38

Besides the medulla oblongata, your brainstem also has a structure called the pons. The pons is a major structure in the upper part of your brainstem. It is involved in the control of breathing, communication between different parts of the brain, and sensations such as hearing, taste, and balance.

Question 39

limbic system

Answer 39

-HAT hippo
hypothalmus, amydala, thalmus (rlay center) , hippo

The limbic system is a set of structures in the brain that deal with emotions and memory. It regulates autonomic or endocrine function in response to emotional stimuli and also is involved in reinforcing behavior .
-motivation, emotion, learning, and memory

Question 40

The standard version of a dichotic listening task involves:

A.presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear.
B.presenting two different auditory stimuli to the same ear.
C.requiring participants to identify two subthreshold sounds.
D.requiring participants to dichotomize sounds into distinct categorie

Answer 40

dichotic listening - the dichotic listening tasks involves simultaneously sending one message (a 3-digit number) to a person’s right ear and a different message (a different 3-digit number) to their left ear. Participants were asked to listen to both messages at the same time and repeat what they heard.

A- bc you present 2 dif sounds to each ear it is used to test binaural separation is the ability to perceive an acoustic message in one ear while ignoring a different acoustic message in the other ear.

Question 41

The predictive models described in the final paragraph of the passage are most likely based on which assumption?

A.Some psychosocial stressors will be perceived as out-group socialization.
B.Exposure to some psychosocial stressors will be attributed to social identity.
C.The health consequences of some behaviors will affect identity formation.
D.The socioeconomic gradient in health will affect some minority groups.

Answer 41

The answer to this question is B because the passage describes the predictions of minority stress theoretical models, which suggest that the stressors of prejudice and discrimination will contribute to elevated levels of alcohol consumption among racial/ethnic minority group members. The question asks for an assumption that underlies this prediction. The link between prejudice, discrimination, and health rests, at least partly, on the assumption that individuals will attribute stressful experiences to their status as members of a racial/ethnic group (in other words, stressors will be linked to their social identity).

Question 42

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)?

A.PET
B.EEG
C.MRI
D.CT

Answer 42

A - because for studies focusing on activation (and thus brain function), a PET scan is the best imaging tool among those listed. The other choices are other techniques that are not specifically designed for measuring brain activation in particular regions.

Question 43

brain scans fro structure? for function? for both?

Answer 43

For Brain Structures: CT (uses XR) and MRI (uses radio waves)

For Brain Function: EEG (measures electrical activity) and MEG (measures magnetic fields produced from electrical currents)

For both Brain Structure and Function: fMRI (detects changes in blood flow) and PET Scan (uses radioactive glucose uptake)

Question 44

CT

Answer 44

for structure- low detail - x-ray exposure

good for quick, cheap image of broken bones, organ damage ect

for more detailed image of smaller things (like teared tendon) use MRI

Question 45

PET

Answer 45

just a specific type of CT scan but involves activity as well as structure ( where CT is just structure)

measures activity by measuring uptake/activity of radioactive molecules. PET scans are good at looking at metabolism, such as where energy is being expended in the brain. This is because we can radiolabel glucose and see where this metabolism is occurring.

used to detect cancers
( PET scan to inspect your blood flow, your oxygen intake, or the metabolism of your organs and tissues. PET scans show problems at the cellular level, giving your doctor the best view of complex systemic diseases.)

Question 46

MRI

Answer 46

for structure of things that need a more clear image bc looking at smaller detail things (ligament tare) high def and safe - no xray

Question 47

fMRI

Answer 47

structure and activity
safe and high def
this is to measure relative activity in REAL time –> unlike PET which is not good for changes in activity during the scan

fMRI is udes for example when subject is shown a fearful situation picture and we want to see what area lights up!

Question 48

EEG

Answer 48

for electrical activity - brain waves during sleep, epilepsy
patient can be moving

Question 49

which uses radioactive glucose

Answer 49

PET scan to measure activity and structure

Question 50

dif between fMRI and PET

Answer 50

fMRI for real time assessing - pic of fear

PET - for metabolism with radioactive glucose–> metabolism , detect cancer

Question 51

The Functionalist Perspective on Religion

Answer 51

Emile Durkheim argued that religion provides social cohesion and social control to maintain society in social solidarity.

The structural-functional approach to religion has its roots in Emile Durkheim’s work on religion. Durkheim argued that religion is, in a sense, the celebration and even (self-) worship of human society. Given this approach, Durkheim proposed that religion has three major functions in society: it provides social cohesion to help maintain social solidarity through shared rituals and beliefs, social control to enforce religious-based morals and norms to help maintain conformity and control in society, and it offers meaning and purpose to answer any existential questions.

Religion is very real; it is an expression of society itself, and indeed, there is no society that does not have religion.

Question 52

social solidarity

Answer 52

emphasizes the interdependence between individuals in a society, which allows individuals to feel that they can enhance the lives of others. It is a core principle of collective action and is founded on shared values and beliefs among different groups in society.

Durkheim was primarily interested in what holds society together when it is made up of people with specialized roles and responsibilities. Durkheim argues that societies move from mechanical to organic solidarity through the division of labor.

religion promotes social solidarity

Solidarity may be based on notions of interdependence which involves mutual and physical responsibility to others and the sharing of a common set of principles, which is often linked to devotion to one’s family or community.

Question 53

A transient shortage of oxygen (global ischemia) releases excess glutamate into the extracellular fluid of the brain. This causes neuronal death by hyperexcitation to a greater extent in the hippocampus than in the cortex. Which reason best explains why the hippocampus is selectively vulnerable during global ischemia?

A.The magnitude of action potentials is greater in hippocampal than cortical neurons.

B.The expression of NMDA receptors is more abundant in hippocampal than cortical neurons.

C.Hippocampal neurons generate a more negative postsynaptic potential than cortical neurons.

D.Hippocampal synapses have faster neurotransmitter diffusion rates compared to cortical synapses.

Answer 53

B because NMDA receptors are a subtype of glutamate receptor. Higher expression of NDMA receptors in the hippocampus than the cortex would render the hippocampus more vulnerable to the excess release of extracellular glutamate.

Question 54

self-verification

Answer 54

self-verification refers to the tendency to seek out (and agree with) information that is consistent with one’s self-concept

Question 55

is the common habit of a person taking credit for positive events or outcomes, but blaming outside factors for negative events

• got an A cause I’m smart
• failed bc teacher hates me

Answer 55

self-serving bias

Question 56

five-factor model, what are the five personality factors

Answer 56

The five factor model (FFM) is based on five personality factors, often referred to by the acronym OCEAN for Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness and Neutroticism. It enables the analysis of human personality based on observations carried out from clinical practices.

Question 57

The psychodynamic approach

Answer 57

The psychodynamic approach includes all the theories in psychology that see human functioning based upon the interaction of drives and forces within the person, particularly unconscious, and between the different structures of the personality. … Freud’s psychoanalysis is both a theory and therapy.

Freudian

Question 58

The biopsychosocial model

Answer 58

The biopsychosocial model is an interdisciplinary model that looks at the interconnection between biology, psychology, and socio-environmental factors. The model specifically examines how these aspects play a role in topics ranging from health and disease models to human development.

Question 59

The Myers–Briggs inventory

Answer 59

EFHJ

Personality Type Indicator is a self-report inventory designed to identify a person’s personality type, strengths, and preferences. The questionnaire was developed by Isabel Myers and her mother Katherine Briggs based on their work with Carl Jung’s theory of personality types.

Question 60

key features of the psychodynamic approach

Answer 60

Freudian:

Our behaviour and feelings as adults are rooted in our childhood experiences.
Our behaviour and feelings are powerfully affected by the meaning of events to the unconscious mind.

Question 61

OCEAN in the 5-factor model

Answer 61

openness, conscientiousness (carefully and done well) , extraversion, agreeableness and neuroticism

Question 62

conscientious people

Answer 62

careful, or diligent. Conscientiousness implies a desire to do a task well, and to take obligations to others seriously. Conscientious people tend to be efficient and organized as opposed to easy-going and disorderly.

Question 63

The regulation of which neurotransmitter is implicated in the specific finding reported with Study 1?

A.Acetylcholine
B.GABA
C.Endorphins
D.Serotonin

Answer 63

D- because the specific finding from Study 1 states that aggression and oppositional behaviors had the strongest association with the risk of hunger. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements). The distractors are other neurotransmitters that are not specifically involved in the hunger drive, mood, or aggressive behavior.

Question 64

expenctancy-value system

Answer 64

Expectancy Value Theory (Vroom, 1964) postulates that motivation for a given behavior or action is determined by two factors:

(i) expectancy, ie, how probable it is that a wanted (instrumental) outcome is achieved through the behavior or action;
(ii) value, ie, how much the individual values the desired outcome.

Question 65

self-determination theory

Answer 65

Self-Determination Theory is a macro theory of human motivation and personality that concerns people’s inherent growth tendencies and innate psychological needs. It is concerned with the motivation behind choices people make without external influence and interference.

Question 66

self-determining theory

Answer 66

Self-Determination is a theory of human motivation developed by psychologists Edward Deci and Richard Ryan. Motivation, in this context, is what moves us to act. [1] The theory looks at the inherent, positive human tendency to move towards growth, and outlines three core needs which facilitate that growth. Those needs are Autonomy, Competence and Relatedness.

kinda the opposite of incentive thoert

Question 67

At the end of Study 2, the researchers’ recommendation suggests that parents in food-insecure households are subject to which role dynamic?

A.Role engulfment
B.Role confusion
C.Role conflict
D.Role strain

Answer 67

D –> because the relevant statement in the passage refers to how researchers recommended interventions focusing on parents who experience stress from trying to satisfy both their children’s needs and their own needs. By identifying tension stemming from the parental role, the recommendation suggests role strain (which refers to stress from different expectations associated with a single role). For parents with depression, the parental role can cause competing obligations of satisfying their children’s needs when they are coping with psychological distress (and thus are unable to meet their own needs)

Question 68

vestibular sense

Answer 68

Our vestibular sense, also known as the labyrinthine sense, is an elaborate sense that is involved in body position, balance and movement of the head. It comes from the vestibular system in our inner ear and is activated when there is a change in gravity or when our head moves.

Question 69

muscle memory is correlated with which sense

Answer 69

kinesthetic sense –> sensing position and movment of individual body parts

whereas vstibuar sense is balance, movment and body position

Question 70

proprioceptive sense

Answer 70

Proprioception, or kinesthesia, is the sense that lets us perceive the location, movement, and action of parts of the body. It encompasses a complex of sensations, including perception of joint position and movement, muscle force, and effort.

Question 71

where is kinesthetic sense located? compared to vestibular sense?

Answer 71

Kinesthetic receptors are primarily stretch receptors located in the muscles, joints and tendons.

vestibular- inner ear

Question 72

reticular activating system

Answer 72

controls arousal and consiousness

Question 73

semantic encoding

Answer 73

memory encoding which involves specific relevance to the person- relating new info to a person, event, picture (chuncking, mnemomics)

Question 74

savant syndrome

Answer 74

extreme talent in one area

Question 75

gestalt simularity principle

Answer 75

stimuli that resemble each other are considered as part of a group

Question 76

gestalt continuation principle

Answer 76

tendency to see a continuos line

Question 77

gesltalt proximity principle

Answer 77

see things close together as part of a group

Question 78

Broca area

Answer 78

speech production

if your words are “broken” this area is damaged

Question 79

Wernicke’s area

Answer 79

if youre always asking “what” the “wernickes” area is damaged

• to do with language comprehension and understanding

Question 80

broca vs wernicke brain location

Answer 80

wernicke (what? language comprehesion) is in the left temporial lobe

broca (broken words) is in a region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, usually the left, of the brain with functions linked to speech production.

both only on one side - usually left, wernicke always left

Question 81

James-Lange vs cannon-bard

Answer 81

The Cannon-Bard theory proposes that emotions and arousal occur at the same time. The James-Lange theory proposes the emotion is the result of arousal.