9 ⼀RENAL/UROLOGY/ID II Flashcards

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1
Q

239

What is Conn’s syndrome?

________________

dx?

A

Primary Hyperaldosteronism

2/2 excessive adrenal gland secretion ➜ polyuria and polydipsia

________________

[Plasma aldosterone : Plasma Renin ACTIVITY] > 30

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2
Q

What type of acid base disturbance does TB cause? Why?

A

TB is a common cause of Addison’s primary adrenal insufficiency which –> ⬇︎Aldosterone –> Normal Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis

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3
Q

How is Allopurinol used to prevent kidney damage during CA tx?

A

Allopurinol prevents [tumor lysis-associated urate crystal nephropathy] in pts receiving tx for lymphoma/leukemia

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4
Q

Which drugs cause renal tubular obstruction and ➜ [Crystalline nephropathy Acute Tubular Necrosis]? - 5.0

A

“crystal MAPES obstruct kidneys!”

  1. MTX
  2. Acyclovir IV
  3. Protease inhibitors
  4. Ethylene glycol
  5. Sulfonamides
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5
Q

Uremia constitutes a BUN of ⬜

Name the classic s/s (3)

A

> 50
_________________

LAC

Lethargy | Anorexia & vomiting | Confusion

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6
Q

Why are DM pts who take SGLT2 inhibitors at ⇪ risk for DKA?

A

because [SGLT2 inhibitors] prevent Glucose reabsorption ➜ easier/faster for [fasting, exercise, abrupt insulin ∆] to activate ketogenesis = ketogenesis may occur in setting of [euglycemic DKA < 250 BG]

(normally: DKA is observed

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7
Q

Hemodialysis via tunneled catheter is a/w high rates of catheter-related bloodstream infxn

Typical management for catheter-related bloodstream infxn involves leaving tunneled Catheter in place and what else? (2)
_________________

When is immediate removal of [infected tunneled Catheter] indicated ? (5)​

A

{Vancomycin + [cefepime|gentamicin]} ➜ [once afebrile, change catheter over guidewire]
_________________

Severe Sepsis ​​| HDUS ​| pus at site ​| sx > 72h after abx ​| metastatic infxn

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8
Q

Demeclocycline MOA

A

blunts Collecting Duct resposne to ADH during SIADH ➜ water excretion

preferred over lithium which is similar

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9
Q

How do you determine if renal artery stenosis is the underlying cause of HTN in Kidney transplant patients?
_________________

explain​

A

Give [ACEk2 inhibitor]. If Creatinine INC ➜ Renal Artery stenosis was the cause of HTN
_________________

(2/2 improper surgical anastomosis), renal artery stenosis (BL or solitary uL) ​causes DEC GFR and when [ACEk2 inhibitor] is given ➜ even lower DEC GFR. This very low GFR activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system ➜ INC [Angiotensin 1 and 2] HAVDEN ➜ ultimately resistant hypertension, flash pulm edema

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10
Q

How do you workup hypOnatremia?

A
hypOnatremia workup
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11
Q

Patients with Chronic Kidney Disease develop ⬜ anemia that is treated with ⬜

Prior to giving this treatment, why must iron be assessed first?

A

normocytic; Erythropoietin
_________________

[EPO ➜ vigorous hematopoiesis ➜ rapid depletion of iron stores ➜ IDAfn]​

so MD must ensure iron stores are sufficienct prior to giving EPO

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12
Q

Erythrocytosis in patients with hematuria and smoking hx should always make you think of (and rule out) ⬜

A

RCC (HAWF) = GET CT abd!
_________________

RCC ➜ Erythropoietin secretion ➜ Erythrocytosis

HAWF= Hematuria/Abd mass/Wt loss/Flank Pain

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13
Q

⬜ is the most common cause of nephrOtic syndrome in kids and presents with ⬜
_________________

Tx?​

A

Minimal change disease; [CLag]
_________________

CTS​
_________________

[CLag = ⇪ Coagulation/Lipidemia /⬇︎albumin/gammaglobulin]

rapid remission with CTS but has HIGH relapse rate = frequent UA

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14
Q

Both AiN and Pyelonephritis involve intrusion of the tubulointerstitium. What’s the major difference?

A

[AiN = mononuclear cell]

vs

[Pyelonephritis = neutroPhil]

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15
Q

[AiN] MOD

A

[RiPAN –mo–> FAPES]

hypersensitivity to [RiPAN antigen] ➜ moNONUCLEAR CELLS infiltrating tubulointerstitium➜ FAPES
_________________
RiPAN = Rheum/iNfection/PPI/Abx/NSAIDs

FAPES = FEVER / AKI intrarenal / [Pyuria +/- WBC cast] / [Eosinophilia (blood +/- urine)] / Skin rash]

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16
Q

[AiN] sx (5)

A

FAPES = FEVER / AKI intrarenal / [Pyuria_sterile+/- WBC cast] / [Eosinophilia (in blood +/- urine)] / [Skin rash]

_________________

[RiPAN –mo–> FAPES]​
RiPAN = Rheum/iNfection/PPI/Abx/NSAIDs

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17
Q

ATN MOD

A

[⬇︎renal perfusion] ➜ [Acute Tubular Necrosis of tubular epithelium] ➜ sloughing of necrotic medullary cells ➜ [mBGC and/or rTEC/C]
w
[💢flank]+/- hematuria (more common in GN)

💢= pain
🔎mBGC = muddy Brown Granular cast
🔎rTEC/C = renal Tubular Epithelial Cell/cast

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18
Q

clinical presentation of [radioContrast associated AKI]

A

24-48h after contrast ➜ = [contrast induced nephropathy] = nonoliguric intrarenal AKI⼀ATN⼀mBGC

🔎mBGC = muddy Brown Granular Cast

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19
Q

How do you determine cause of an AKI? -4

A
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20
Q

PHEOCHromocytoma

clinical features (6)

A

PHEOCHromocytoma

Palpitations

HA

Episodic SWEATING

Orthostatic hypOtension

([Catecholamine & Metanephrine 24h urine] or [free plasma metanephrine] = dx)

HTNrefractory

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21
Q

a patient with positive labs for PHEOCHromocytoma has negative imaging results

What’s the next diagnostic used?
_________________

When can surgical removal occur?​

A

[MIBG scan]
_________________

Adrenalectomy only after [10 day​ preOp BP control with αB➜ (+ BB)]


_________________

MIBG = MetaIodoBenzylGuanidine (resembles NorEpi ➜ will be taken up by rogue adrenergic tissue = locates tumors not seen by imaging) // [αB = α R Blocker]

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22
Q

PHEOCHromocytoma patients undergoing adrenalectomy may experience hypOtension and HYPERtension intraoperatively

How is [PHEOCHromocytoma-related_hypOtension] treated?

_________________

[PHEOCHromocytoma-related_HTN] treated?

A

PHhypOtension ➜ [NS IV bolus]
_________________

PHHYPERtension ➜ give [phentolamineα1🟥 IV bolus] ​​
_________________

Dopamine/Dobutamine can’t be used in PHEOCHromocytoma hypOtension 2/2 chronic α R Blockade

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23
Q

clinical features of BrIAn (3)​
_________________

Berger IgA nephropathy

A
  1. [URI ➜ Recurrent GROSS hematuriia]
  2. [NORMAL COMPLEMENT (PSGN-PiG = low complement)]
  3. [POOR PROGNOSIS if Cr ⇪ / BP ⇪ / persistent prOteinuria]*
    _________________

*BP>140/90 / [pp> 1 gm per day]

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24
Q

Why is rapidly worsening kidney function (⬇︎GFR or ⇪[urine albumin/Cr ratio]) highly concerning for Diabetic Kidney Disease?

A

Diabetic Kidney Disease is a SLOW PROGRESSIVE KIDNEY DETERIORATION.

Rapid Deterioration suggest ANOTHER ETX➜ WARRANTS RENAL BIOPSY

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25
Q

Dx for Rhabdomyolysis (2)

A

[⊕gross blood on UA](2/2 [hgb lab test’s] cross reactivity with myoglobin)
but
[⊝RBC actually seen on Umicro](indicates ⊕UA likely from presence of myoglobinwhich → rhabdomyolysis dx)

rhabdoM dx= {[⊕blood_UA] but [⊝RBC_UMicro]}

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26
Q

[Mixed Cryoglobulinemia Syndrome] etx
_________________

How is it diagnosed?

A

[(most common: chronic HepC) vasculitis] that involves [polyclonal IgG and (Rheumatoid Factor IgM)] depositing in vascular walls of small & medium vessels ➜ [PAW-CPR-GNC]
_________________

dx = ⇪ serum cryoglobulins

MIXED PCG!

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27
Q

[Mixed Cryoglobulinemia Syndrome] etx
_________________

How do you treat Mixed Cryoglobulinemia Syndrome ? (2)

A

[(most common: chronic HepC) vasculitis] that involves [polyclonal IgG and (Rheumatoid Factor IgM)] depositing in vascular walls of small & medium vessels ➜ [PAW-CPR-GNC]
_________________
MIXED PCG!

Tx = [Immunosuppressants (CTS/rituximab)] ➜ [treat underlying cause (common HepC]

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28
Q

[Mixed Cryoglobulinemia Syndrome] etx

A

Mixed = [Type 2 vs Type 3] = [(chronic HepC > chronic HBV|autoiummune) ] –> [B cell hyperactivation] –> {mixed [polyclonal IgG and (Rheumatoid Factor IgM)] Immune Complex} depositing in small & medium vasc walls ➜ [PAW-CPR-GNC]
_________________
sx: MIXED PCG!

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29
Q

[Mixed Cryoglobulinemia Syndrome]

Name the clinical features (9)?

A

MIXED PCG!

PAW CPR GNC

Palpable purpura **

Arthralgias **

Weakness Fatigue **

Complement is low

Peripheral neuropathy

[Rheumatoid factor IgM elevated]

[Glomerulonephritis (RBC cast, RBC, prOteinuria)]

Nausea

Chronic HCV

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30
Q

⬜ is an important cause of secondary HTN in adults < 30 yo. How is this a/w Glomerulonephritis?

A

[Renal parenchymal disease] ; Glomerulonephritis (nephritic or nephrOtic) can ➜ secondary HTN because of INC renal Na+ reabsorption

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31
Q

telltale clinical sign of Rhabdomyolysis

A

[⊕gross blood on UA]
but also has
[⊝/min actual RBC on UMicro]
= (indicates myoglobinuria instead of hgburia)

rhabdoM dx= {[⊕gross🩸UA] but [⊝RBCUMicro]}

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32
Q

etx of Rhabdomyolysis?

A

MUSCLE INJURY ➜ release of intracell components of muscle cell ([CPK > 10K] & [myoglobin ➜ AKI])

tx = aggressive IVF to prevent intratubular cast formation

rhabdoM dx= {[⊕blood_UA] but [⊝RBC_UMicro]}

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33
Q

What is Orthostatic prOteinuria? (2)

_________________

How is it diagnosed?

A
  • [OAIP- Orthostatic adolescent isolated prOteinuria] = most common cause of teenage prOteinuria
  • exaggerated [angiotensin II] response to upright posture (especially during day when pt stands more) ➜ ⇪ GFR ➜ prOteinuria

_________________

[Split 24H urine collection (12H Day + 12H Night)] ⼀demonstrating elevated prOteinuria during Day but normal at night ]

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34
Q

OAIP treatment?

Orthostatic Adolescent isolated PrOteinuria

A

NOTHING!

self limited with age

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35
Q

Both concentric LVH and Eccentric LVH are common in CKD

Explain why for each

A

▶poor volume regulation ➜ pressure overload ➜ Chronic Systemic HTN ➜ concentric LVH

▶CKD ➜ anemia ➜ myocardial hypoxia/necrosis/fibrosis ➜ compensatory remodeling ➜ Eccentric LVH

LVH Concentric vs Eccentric
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36
Q

Erythropoiesis Stimulating Agents (such as ⬜2) are used to treat ⬜

▶When is it beneficial to give ESA to these patients?

▶▶ Name the benefits (3)

A

Epoetin | darbEpoetin ; [CKD's severe anemia hgb\<10]

▶ hgb\<10

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37
Q

Erythropoiesis Stimulating Agents (such as ⬜2) are used to treat ⬜

▶When is it Risky to give ESA to these patients?

▶▶ Name the potential Risk (3)

A

Epoetin | darbEpoetin ; [CKD's severe anemia hgb\<10]

▶ hgb\>13

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38
Q

Erythropoiesis Stimulating Agents (such as ⬜2) are used to treat ⬜

How do you manage Anemia 2/2 Chronic Kidney Disease?

A

Epoetin | darbEpoetin ; [CKD’s severe anemia hgb<10]

_________________

treating [CKD anemia]
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39
Q

Treatment of [CKD’s severe anemia hgb<10] with [Erythropoiesis Stimulating Agents] improves ⬜ and reduces ⬜

A

QOL

LVH

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40
Q

What are the common precipitants of SIADH? (11)

A
  1. Neuro (stroke, hemorrhage, trauma)
  2. Lung (PNA, SOLC)
  3. Somatic (Pain, Nausea)
  4. Meds (SSRI, Carbamazepine, Valproate, NSAIDs)

_________________

tx = [fluid restriction +/- salt tablets]

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41
Q

What is one of the telltale signs of analgesic induced nephropathy?

A

ACUTE SEVERE PROTEINURIA on AiN_AKI

_________________

NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production (prostaglandins preferentially vasoDilate Afferent arteriole ➜ ⇪ GFR) = [NSAIDs ultimately➜ DEC GFR] and NSAIDs directly cause AiN

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42
Q

⬜ is a telltale sign of analgesic induced nephropathy

How does NSAIDs actually cause Renal damage? (2)

A

ACUTE SEVERE PROTEINURIA on AKI

_________________

▶NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production (prostaglandins preferentially vasoDilate Afferent arteriole ➜ ⇪ GFR) = [NSAIDs DEC GFR]👎🏾

▶▶NSAIDs also directly cause AiN

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43
Q

What are the 4 major complications of any NephrOtic syndrome

A

CLag

  1. ⬆︎Coagulation from loss of AT3 (MOST COMMON WITH MEMBRANOUS NEPHROPATHY)
  2. ⬆︎Lipidemia –>loss of lipoproteins = [Fat oval body Maltese crosses] in urine
  3. ⬇︎albumin
  4. ⬇︎gammaglobins –> infection
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44
Q

Why are pts with nephrotic syndrome at increased risk for accelerated Atherosclerosis?

A

CLag

⬆︎Lipidemia from loss of lipoproteins

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45
Q

5 main serum electrolyte changes due to Chronic Kidney Dz

A
  1. ⬆︎ K+
  2. ⬆︎Mg
  3. ⬆︎H+
  4. ⬆︎ Phosphate

________________

  1. DEC Ca+
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46
Q

What agents induce Renal dysfunction via Afferent Arteriole vasoconstriction-5

A

NARCO

  1. NSAIDs
  2. Amphotericin B
  3. Radiocontrast (also causes oxidant injury)
  4. Cyclosporine
  5. tacrOlimus
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47
Q

Identify the type of cast and associated Disease

A

[muddy Brown Granular Cast] = Acute Tubular Necrosis

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48
Q

Identify the type of cast and associated Disease

A

RBC Cast = [Acute Glomerulonephritis_nephritic]

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49
Q

Identify the type of cast

________________

what 2 Disease is it associated with?

A

WBC Cast =

AiN (Acute allergic interstitial nephritis)

or Pyelonephritis

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50
Q

UA for Acute Tubular Necrosis - 3

A
  1. [mBGCmuddy Brown Granular Cast]
  2. [RTEC/C (Renal Tubular epithelial cells/cast)]
  3. Hematuria
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51
Q

UA for AiN (2)

(Acute allergic interstitial Nephritis)

A

[Sterile WBC Pyuria]
plus
[EosinophilicWBC Cast]

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52
Q

UA for

[Acute Glomerulonephritis nephritic syndrome] -3

A
  1. [Hematuria dysmorphic RBCs]
  2. Proteinuria
  3. [RBC Cast]

_________________

These pts will also have HTN

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53
Q

What type of cast are seen in [Acute Glomerulonephritis nephrOtic syndrome]? (3)

A
  1. [Hematuria dysmorphic RBCs]
  2. Proteinuria
  3. [Fatty OvalBody cast]
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54
Q

What type of cast are seen in Chronic Renal Failure?

A

Waxy broad cast

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55
Q

Why does Chronic Kidney Disease cause anemia? (4)

A
  1. DEC renal EPO
  2. [IDAfn 2/2 ACD] ⼀ [Chronic Disease (CKD)]➜ inflammation ➜ INC hepcidin ➜ prevents macrophages from releasing iron into plasma ➜ iron sequestration = [inadequate iron stores (low ferriTin)] due to ACD
  3. [IDAfn 2/2 ESA mismatch] occurs when, despite nml iron stores, there’s still not enough iron to keep up with the accelerated erythropoiesis from ESA
  4. Uremia ⼀➜ DEC RBC lifespan

_________________

[IDAfunctional (nml ferriTin)] / [IDAABSOLUTE (low ferriTin)] / ESA=Erythropoietin Stimulating Agent

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56
Q

What is the potential long term effect of donating your kidney?

A

Gestational complications

_________________

(preeclampsia, gestational DM, gestational HTN) = women should complete child bearing prior to donating kidney

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57
Q

MOD for [PSGN PiG]

_________________

PostStreptococcal GlomeruloNephritis PostInfectious Glomerulonephritis

A

1-2 weeks after [Strep or Staph infection] immune complex deposit in the [glomerular Basement Membrane subepithelium] ➜ permitting protein and RBC to cross into urine= [AGN nephritic] ➜ prOteinuria→ edema, HTN and hematuria→ RBC cast

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58
Q

Early diabetic Kidney Disease is characterized by ⬜

Explain MOD

A

glomerular hyperfiltration

_________________

DM-related hormonal mediators cause renal afferent vasoDilation and efferent vasoconstriction ➜ [⇪ GFR(glomerular hyperfiltration)] –(over time)–> glomerular sclerosis = Diabetic Kidney Disease

ACEk2 inhibitors and ARBS ⬇︎Angiotensin (which normally vasoconstricts efferent arteriole) ➜ efferent arteriole vasoDilation ➜ ⬇︎ GFR and prevents DKD

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59
Q

How do you manage an obstructive ureteral stone (ureterolithiasis) that’s causing hydronephrosis? -2

A

DECOMPRESS UPPER URINARY TRACT BY DRAINING THE HYDRONEPHROSIS (proximal to the ureteral stone ) via Percutaneous Nephrostomy > retrograde ureteral stent

_________________

any [complicated ureterolithiasis] = a/w infxn, AKI, severe pain, hydronephrosis or failed initial tx] ➜ [Proximal Ureteral Decompression by PQ Nephrostomy]

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60
Q

list the main features of Shock-wave lithotripsy (3)

A
  1. indicated for UNCOMPLICATED proximal ureteral stones
  2. does not immediately relieve obstruction
  3. = complicated ureterolithiasis (unstable/infection/AKI) must first have [Proximal Ureteral Decompression via PQ nephrostomy] before having Shock wave Lithotripsy
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61
Q

⬜ such as Tamsulosin have been shown to facilitate Kidney stone passage with stones size ⬜

A

[ α1🟥 ] ; [small < 10 umm]

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62
Q

Clostridioides Difficile

Recite the 4 *SYMPTOM GRADES* for CDiff
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

What are the 2 treatment regimens?

A

(see image)

Clostridioides Difficile Infection
GRADE 1 = initial presentation = CDITxA
1. [Cdiff ⊕stool test +/- RF]
2. [ Diarrhea WATERY x ≥3 per day]
3. [ Intestinal abdP]

GRADE 2 = severe CDITxA
GRADE 3 = Fulminant CDITxA
GRADE 4 = REFRACTORY CDITxB

_________________

TxA = {[(fidaXomicin PO10d) or (Vancomycin PO10d)] –if fail–> (PO metro)}
TxB: [fecal microbiota transplant | Surgery]

_________________

🔎abdP = abdominal Pain

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63
Q

chronic Giardia cp (2)
_________________

Tx? (2)

A

-watery diarrhea

-[weight loss (2/2 malabsorption)]
_________________

Tinidazole (or nitaZoxanide)

non-inflammatory diarrhea = negative fecal leukocytes

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64
Q

Tx options for Cellulitis -6

A

Cellulitis Can Be Decreased Via PipTazo

  1. Clindamycin **
  2. Cephalexin
  3. Bactrim
  4. Doxy
  5. Vancomycin
  6. [Piperacillin/Tazobactam (PipTazo)]
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65
Q

List the best abx options for aspiration PNA - 3

foul sputum, fever, cough

A
  1. CLINDAMYCIN
  2. [amox/clav]
  3. [amox/metronidazole]
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66
Q

What disease should you suspect in a [DM pt with DKA who’s just developed a fever, nasal congestion, HA and sinus pain]?

A

[ROC mucormycosis]

_________________

ROC: Rhino-Orbital-Cerebral

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67
Q

[ROC Mucormycosis] is mostly seen in patients with ⬜.

Treatment includes ⬜2

_________________

ROC: Rhino-Orbital-Cerebral

A

DKA

_________________

[(Amphotericin BLiposomal IV) + surgical debridement]

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68
Q

uncontrolled HIV+ patient with [widespread papules containing central umbilication and central hemorrhagic necrosis] suggest ⬜

A

cryptococcus neoformans cutaneous

_________________

USUALLY IN CD4 < 100 AND IS MARKER OF DISSEMINATED DISEASE

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69
Q

Immunocompromised patient with ⬜(description) skin lesions has just been diagnosed with [Cryptococcus Neoformans ⼀cutaneous]

_________________

How is this diagnosed?

A

[widespread papules containing central umbilication & central hemorrhagic necrosis]

_________________

[BIOPSY of lesion revealing hyperplasia of dermis overlying granulomas with encapsulated yeast]

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70
Q

⬜ (caused by ⬜) is the leading cause of Dilated Cardiomyopathy in Central/South America

_________________

⬜ is the main Sx, but what are the other 5 sx?

A

[Chagas Heart Disease] ; [Trypanosoma Cruzi protozoa]

_________________

[L Vt apical aneurysm] in the absence of coronary disease

2) [HF (R>L)]
3) Mural thrombosis
4) [Conduction ∆ 2/2 fibrosis (complete heart block/VT)]
5) Dilation of Esophagus
6) Dilation of Colon

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71
Q

What are the guidelines regarding [Active TB infection] and Healthcare Personnel who’ve been exposed? (5)

A
  1. [Active TB infection] can transmit Mycobacterium Tuberculosis to close contacts starting 3 mo before sx onset = Healthcare Personnel are at risk!
  2. exposed HCP should receive [TST or IGA] screening
  3. –(if negative)–> Repeat [TST or IGA] in 8 weeks
  4. –(if positive)–> [CXR and Sx review] to determine ATBI or LTBI.

5.- ATBI = confirm with sputum mycobacterial acid-fast if + ➜ ATBI tx
if *neg ➜ LTBI tx

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72
Q

Diagnostic criteria for [LTBI (Latent TB Infection)] -3

A

[⊕ TST/IGA]

[NO sx(cough>3mo, wt loss, night sweats, fever)]

[NO CXR findings(cavitation/infiltrate)]

________________

determine LTBI tx using susceptibility from the initial TB source

Tuberculosis
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73
Q

Diagnostic criteria for ACTIVE PULMONARY TB -3

A

[⊕ TST/IGA]

PLUS

[⊕TBSx (cough>3 mo, wt loss, night sweats, fever)]

and/or

[⊕ CXR (cavitation/infiltrate)]

Tuberculosis Skin Test/IGA - Induration threshold
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74
Q

What is the treatment regimen for ACTIVE PULMONARY TB -2

________________

+TST/IGA with [+CXR and/or +TBSx]

A

[RIPE]2 ➜ [RI]4

________________

RIPE = Rifampin/Isoniazid/Pyrazinamide/Ethambutol

Tuberculosis
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75
Q

tx for [LTBI (Latent TB Infection)] -4

A

1st line: [( Ri ) qd]3

________________

  • 3 LTBI tx Alternatives: (see image)*
  • determine LTBI tx using susceptibility from the initial TB source*
Tuberculosis
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76
Q

What is the treatment for ACTIVE TB in pregnant patients? (3)

A

( [RIE2 ➜ RI7] + [Pyridoxine B6] )

_________________

3-DRUG THERAPY (RIPE)

  • [2 mo RIE”Ree2”] ➜ [7 mo RI”Ry7”]*
  • pregnant women with ACTIVE TB should be treated*
Tuberculosis
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77
Q

Normally, positive TST = induration ⬜ mm

Which patients only need > 5 mm induration to be considered positive TST? (5)

_________________

TST = Tuberculin Skin Test

A

> >15 mm

_________________

Tuberculosis TST induration

pts below only require > 5 mm induration:
1. HIV⊕
2. Transplant recipient⊕
3. Immunocompro
4. [⊕ Recent TB exposure]
5. [⊕CXR showing fibrotic ∆ c/f TB]

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78
Q

Normally, positive TST = induration ⬜ mm

Which patients only need > 10 mm induration to be considered positive TST? (4)

_________________

TST = Tuberculin Skin Test

A

> >15 mm

_________________

pts below only require > 10mm induration:
1. [kids < 4 yo]
2. [HIGH RISKpersonnel healthcare|jail|homeless shelter]
3. [recent immigrant from TB_country]
4. IVDA

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79
Q

Normally, positive TST = induration ⬜mm after ⬜hours

_________________

What does
[(TST or IGA)]
with
[(CXR or TB sx)] indicate?

A

>15 mm ; 48h
_________________

⊕LTBI

⊕[Latent TB infection] = pt has been exposed to TB sometime in the past and was never treated ➜ (non-infectious) [Latent “dormant” TB infection]

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80
Q

STI screening depends on gender, sex orientation, behavior

Especially in ages 13-75, which STI should you routinely screen for regardless of sexual risk factors?

A

HIV

_________________

[HIV p24 antigen] and [HIV-1 / 2 Ab screen]

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81
Q

tx for Mycobacterium Avium Complex-3

A

REC the MAC

Rifambutin

Ethambutol

Clarithromycin

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82
Q

Which organisms usually cause UTI-associated Sepsis?-4

A

KEEP away, UTI!

Klebsiella

E.Coli

EnteroCoCCus

Proteus

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83
Q

Why are pts Suspected of bacterial meningitis placed on ⬜ precaution?

A

Droplet precaution

_________________

UNTIL NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS IS RULED OUT!

BANGIR needs to drop what he’s doing and don a basic facemask, right now!”

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84
Q

empiric Tx for Meningitis in pts [<1 months] (4)

A

B-E-Lag |a🅇

_________________

[Amp/Gent(any aminoglycoside)] or
[Amp/cefoTA🅇ime]

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85
Q

DDx for Meningitis in pts [<1 months] (3)

A

B-E-L
ag|a🅇

[Amp/Gent(any aminoglycoside)] or
[Amp/cefoTA🅇ime]

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86
Q

empiric Tx for Meningitis in pts [1 mo- 23 mo] (2)

A

B-E-H-N-SVX

_________________

[Vanc + (CefTriaXone | cefoTaXime)]

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87
Q

DDx for Meningitis in pts [1 mo- 23 mo] (5)

A

B-E-Hflu-N-SVX

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88
Q

empiric Tx for Meningitis in pts [2 yo - 50 yo] (2)

A

H-N-SVX

_________________

[Vanc + (CefTriaXone | cefoTaXime)]

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89
Q

DDx for Meningitis in pts [2 yo - 50 yo] (3)

A

HSV-N-SVX

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90
Q

empiric Tx for Meningitis in pts [>50 yo] (4)

A

A-N-S-LVAXS

_________________

Vanc

+ Ampicillin

+ [(CefTriaXone | cefoTaXime))]

+ [Steroids CTS](Dexamethasone) ⬇︎ hearing loss and death a/w Strep Pneumo

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91
Q

DDx for Meningitis in pts [>50 yo] (4)

A

A-N-S-LVAXS

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92
Q

ALL DM pts require [Diabetic Kidney Disease] screening every ⬜ with ⬜.

Normal urine albumin excretion is ⬜.

[⬜ = moderately INC albuminuria] and [⬜ = severely INC albuminuria]

A

[year ([DM1: starts 5y after dx] / [DM2: starts 1y after dx])]

[Urine a/c ratio]

_________________

[<30 mg/day] ;

[30-300 mg/day] ; [>300 mg/day]

a/c: albumin/creatinine

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93
Q

Opioids are dangerous for pts with Kidney dysfunction

Why is giving morphine to pts with Kidney dysfunction even more dangerous than if giving any other opioid? (2)

A

> a. Morphine undergoes 2-step metabolism–1st: catabolism into {m3G and [m6G(MORE POTENT)]}2nd: both kidney excretion

b. Kidney dysfunction→ DEC kidney excretion → accumulated m6G [INC risk OPIOID TOXICITY/OD (especially if postop)]
* * *
* m6G: [morphine-6-glucuronide]*

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94
Q

[exogenous EPO abuse (AKA doping)]

▶ ⬜ hematocrit

▶can be detected via ⬜

▶causes what 2 potential complications?

A

INC; [urine recombinant EPO];

  1. Hyperviscosity (HA, visual ∆ )
  2. Thrombosis (MI, CVA/TIA)
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95
Q

How are staghorn calculus formed? (3)

A

▶[Proteus mirabilis and Klebsiella Pneumoniae] produce Urease which hydrolyzes [urea → Ammonia]

▶▶[Ammonia alkalinizes urine pH>8] → precipitates crystallized [MAPS kidney stones]

▶▶▶ MAPS exposed to lrge amounts urea rapidly expand → [STAGHORN CALCULUS (*also seen with uric acid & cysteine kidney stones)]

_________________

MAPS: Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate Struvite

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96
Q

What is a staghorn calculus?

tx? (2)

A

[MAPSLARGE KIDNEY STONE] that fills entire renal pelvis → unable to pass in ureter = [severe colicky flank pain + fever + dysuria]

COMPLETE REMOVAL + abx

_________________

MAPS: Magnesium Ammonium Phosphate Struvite

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97
Q
  • Describe how Kidney Stone size determines management
  • and list the medical mgmt for Kidney stones (4)
A

[spontaneous 4mm(Rx PASS)10mm Surgical]

Rx = [Pain control, {Alpha R blockers}4w, Strain urine, Solvent(IV Hydration)]

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98
Q

Kidney Stone size determines management

When all should you consult surgical (Urology) mgmt? (5)

A

a. ≥10mm
b. uncontrolled pain
c. ⊕AKI
d. ⊕UTI
e. [no stone passage in 4-6 wks]

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99
Q

Patient presents for Kidney Stone with symptoms

How do you manage this?

A
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100
Q

Pt pmhx BPH, lumbago s/p Baclofen for pain, p/w suprapubic fullness and discomfort

What is the Diagnosis?

Management?

A

▶Acute Urinary Retention 2/2 [bladder outlet obstruction (INC Risk with [Rx: baclofen/anticholinergics], GU trauma, UTI)](dx confirmed via bladder US > 300cc)

▶Bladder decompression [Catheterization (URETHRAL(if no GU trauma) → suprapubic(if urethral unsuccessful))]

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101
Q

pts with ⬜ have INC risk for [ROC mucormycosis], and usually presents with what sx? (5)

ROC : Rhino-Orbital-Cerebral

A

[DKA(likely 2/2 poorly controlled DM)] ;

rapid…

  1. nasal necrosis
  2. facial swelling
  3. fever
  4. HA
  5. sinusitis

rhino-orbital-cerebral

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102
Q

How does Calcium travel in the blood? (3)

and How does this affect lab interpretation in patients with Liver Failure?

A

[ALBUMIN-Ca+]45% > [FREE ionized Ca+]40% > [anion(O&iO)-Ca+]15%

_________________

serum Ca+ concentration DEC by 0.8 for every DEC of 1 by Albumin =

{[Albumin ⬇︎ 1] = [Ca+ ⬇︎0.8]}

  • [O&iO: Organic&inOrganic] | [Albumin]g/dL | [Calcium]mg/dL*
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103
Q

Name the 7 dietary interventions (and their mechanism of action) for preventing CalciumCa +Phosphate | Ca+Oxalate Kidney Stones

A

“⇪Fluids Plus Citrate|⼀Can⼀ | ⬇︎Overall Agonizing Stones*| 💊r Take Pills

🍴(⇪ FPC 🄲 ⬇︎OAS )🆚 💊TP
_________________
_________________
⇪ [Fluids > 2L urine/day](INC urine flow/DEC urine concentration)

⇪ [Potassiumcitrateavailable via🍌and💊!](INC urinary Citrate → binds urinary Ca+ → DEC Ca+ kidney stone formation)

⇪ [Citrate fruits/vegetables](binds urinary Ca+ → DEC Ca+ kidney stone formation)

__ __ __

(maintain)⼀ [dietaryCalcium intake 1200 mg/day]([GI dietary Ca+] binds [GI dietary Oxalate] → DEC reabsorption of [GI dietary Oxalate] → [DEC renal Oxalate] available → {[DECREASED [Ca+♉XALATE (only!)] kidney stone formation} )

__ __ __

⬇︎ [dietary (Spinach)Oxalate]DEC reabsorption of [GI dietary Oxalate] → [DEC renal Oxalate] available → {[DECREASED [Ca+♉XALATE (only!)] kidney stone formation} )</sup>

⬇︎[Animal protein](DEC renalCa+ excretion)

⬇︎[Sodium < 2300 mg/day](→ INC renalCa+ reabsorption → DEC urinaryCa+ available → DEC Ca+ kidney stone formation)
_________________
_________________

Rx: Thiazide|Potassium citrate

♉= DEC [Ca+♉XALATE] *kidney stone formation* only!

All other methods apply to both [Ca+_Phosphate and Ca+_Oxalate stones]

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104
Q

Name the 2 pharmacologic interventions (and their mechanism of action) for preventing Calcium Kidney Stones

A
  1. [ThiazideINC renal Ca+ reabsorption → DEC urinary Ca+ available →DEC Ca+ kidney stone formation]
  2. [Potassiumcitrateavailable via🍌and💊!](INC urinary Citrate → binds urinary Ca+ → DEC Ca+ kidney stone formation)]

_________________

“⇪Fluids Plus Citrate|⼀Can⼀ | ⬇︎Overall Agonizing Stones</sub>| 💊rTake Pills

( ⇪FPC 🄲 ⬇︎OAS)🆚 TP

Rx: Thiazide , Potassium Citrate
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105
Q

[PSGN-PiG] is a complication of (and presents 1-4 weeks after..) ⬜. It presents as a [ nephritic | nephrOtic] syndrome]
_________________
Name the [PSGN-PiG] Laboratory Findings UA-3 vs Serum-5

A

[GASP > Staph infxn]; nephriiiitic
_________________
_________________

UA🟡:
🔬 prOteinuria
🔬[RBC dysmorphic]hematuriiia,
🔬[RBC cast]hematuriiiia
_________________
Serum🔴:
🔬⇪Creatinine
🔬⬇︎C3 complement
🔬[↧C4 complementnormal or low]
🔬⬇︎CH50 complement
🔬[⊕STREPTOZYME4= (∀streptolysinO 🆚 ∀DNAseB 🆚 ∀hyaluronidase 🆚 ∀streptokinase)]

🔎 ∀= [Anti___]

🧠PSGN-PiG etx: 1-4 weeks s/p [GASP>Staph] immune complex(Ig+antigen+[C3, C4, CH50]) deposit in GBMsubEpi] ( with pgn inverse to age)
1. [AGN AKInephritic]→ 🔬⇪ Creatinine, [🔬⬇︎C3, 🔬↧C4, 🔬⬇︎CH50 ], 🔬⊕STREPTOZYME4 = [💊Hemodialysis prn refractory, [💊supportive]
2. [🔬prOteinuria UA]→ edema, volume overload, HTN = [💊diuretics], [💊antiHTN]
3. [hematuriiia cola-urine🔬RBC dysmorphic UA and 🔬RBC Cast UA</sup]

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106
Q

[PSGN-PiG]

Treatment (4)

A

🧠PSGN-PiG etx: 1-4 weeks s/p [GASP>Staph] immune complex(Ig+antigen+[C3, C4, CH50]) deposit in GBMsubEpi] ( with pgn inverse to age)
1. [AGN AKInephritic]→ 🔬⇪ Creatinine, [🔬⬇︎C3, 🔬↧C4, 🔬⬇︎CH50 ], 🔬⊕STREPTOZYME4 = [💊Hemodialysis prn refractory, [💊supportive]
2. [🔬prOteinuria UA]→ edema, volume overload, HTN = [💊diuretics], [💊antiHTN]
3. [hematuriiia cola-urine🔬RBC dysmorphic UA and 🔬RBC Cast UA</sup]

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107
Q

[PSGN-PiG] is a complication of (and presents 1-4 weeks after..) ⬜. It presents as [⬜ syndrome] and is most common in ⬜.

Young Kids recover from [PSGN-Pig] in weeks = Good PGN. Adults do NOT.

What Adult demographics have Poor [PSGN-PiG] Prognosis (develops ESRD) ? (4)

A

initial[GASP infection]; [nephritic (AKI, prOteinuria/edema/volumeOverload/HTN, hematuriiia/RBC/RBC cast/cola urine)]

  1. 40% Adults in general
  2. CKD Adults
  3. [Metabolic Syndrome X] Adults
  4. DM Adults
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108
Q

Pt p/w cola-colored urine after exercise

Despite being ⬜ , [Exercise-Induced Hematuria] is 1 of 3 DDx for [hematuria after exercise]

◭What’s the pathophysiology for [Exercise-Induced Hematuria] ? (2)

◮management?

_________________

Name the other 2 DDx

A

diagnosis of exclusion;

[hematuria after exercise] DDx:
1. [ExerciseContact&NonContact-induced hematuria] =
A. [bladder jarring: repetitive up/down mvmt or trauma to bladder +
B. [
kidney shunting:* exercise shunting of blood away from visceral organs like kidney**]→ hematuria*

  • = **1 week follow up to confirm [self-limited spontaneous hematuria resolution] on repeat UA*
    • *
      2. [myoglobinuria 2/2 rhabdomyolysis]
      3. [March hgburia 2/2 RBC trauma]

_________________

C & NC: Contact & NonContact

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109
Q

(acute HCV) infection frequently presents as ⬜ but may also present with ⬜3.

How is (acute HCV) dx confirmed?

A

**ASYMPTOMATIC**

2. malaise
3. nausea
4. [RUQ pain with transaminitis]
* * *
* acute HCV:* [**⊕HCV<sub>RNA PCR</sub>**→ ⊕antiHCV ab within 12w]

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110
Q

(acute HCV) infection frequently presents as ⬜ but may also present with ⬜3.

How is (Chronic resolved HCV) dx confirmed? (3)

A

**ASYMPTOMATIC**

2. malaise
3. nausea
4. [RUQ pain with transaminitis]
* * *
* CHRONIC RESOLVED HCV:*

[⊕<sub>anti</sub>HCV ab]

[**NEG** HCV<sub>RNA PCR</sub>]

[**NEG** transaminase]

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111
Q

Rabies is a ⬜ primarily acquired via ⬜

[T or F] :[postexposure Rabies Prophylaxis] can prevent development of Rabies infection

A

fatal virus ; [rabid animal’s bite/scratch’s saliva]

_________________

TRUE

[viP(O)RIC] can prevent development of Rabies infection

**[V-i-P-(O)-RIC] [(VARID/ipris) Prophylaxis pOst-exposure Rhabdovirus Immunization Course)]

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112
Q

Rabies is a ⬜ primarily acquired via ⬜

What is the prescription for preexposure Rabies prophylaxis?

A

fatal virus ; [rabid animal’s bite/scratch’s saliva]

[viP(e)RIC] =

[VARID]4X

**[V-i-P-(e)-RIC] [(VARID/ipris) Prophylaxis prE-exposure Rhabdovirus Immunization Course)]

[(VARID) Vaccine ⼀ACTIVE RABIES IMMUNIZATION (Delayed-Ab)] → virus-neutralizing Ab Delayed available within 10d

K4X = 4 doses of

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113
Q

Rabies is a ⬜ primarily acquired via ⬜

What is the prescription for postexposure Rabies prophylaxis? -2

A

fatal virus ; [rabid animal’s bite/scratch’s saliva]

[viP(O)RIC] can prevent development of Rabies infection =

{[VARID4X + ipris1X] <-N- [PREVIOUS RABIES VACCINE?] -Y-> [VARID2X]}

**[v-i-P-(O)-RIC] [(VARID/ipris) Prophylaxis pOst-exposure Rhabdovirus Immunization Course)]

[(VARID) Vaccine ⼀ACTIVE RABIES IMMUNIZATION (Delayed-Ab)] → virus-neutralizing Ab Delayed available within 10d

[(ipris) Ig ⼀passive rabies immunization (STAT-Ab )] → virus-neutralizing Ab STAT IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE

K4X = 4 doses of

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114
Q

In addition to [Rabies Physical Prophylaxis(⬜ wound cleaning)],

the 2 types of [Rabies Chemical Prophylaxis (⬜ and ⬜)] are

used in the [⬜ Regimen for preexposure Rabies Prophylaxis] and [⬜ Regimen for postexposure Rabies Prophylaxis]

A

RPP

[povidone⼀iodine]

RCP

[(VARID)] ; [(ipris)]

regimens:

viP(e)RIC ; viP(O)RIC

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115
Q

Rabies is a ⬜ primarily acquired via ⬜

In addition to [Rabies Physical Prophylaxis(⬜ wound cleaning)],

the 2 types of [Rabies Chemical Prophylaxis]

Describe the 2 types of [Rabies Chemical Prophylaxis]

A

fatal virus ; [rabid animal’s bite/scratch’s saliva]

[povidone⼀iodine]

[(VARID) Vaccine ⼀ACTIVE RABIES IMMUNIZATION (Delayed_Ab)] → virus-neutralizing Ab Delayed available within 10d

[(ipris) Ig ⼀passive rabies immunization (STAT_Ab )] → virus-neutralizing Ab STAT IMMEDIATELY AVAILABLE

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116
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma is a common CA in advanced HIV and strongly related to ⬜ virus

For this CA, what is the major determinant for how well these pts will survive?

A

EBV;

[degree of immunosuppression (CD4 count)]

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117
Q

[T or F]

Live Vaccines (MMR, varicella) should be avoided in patients with CD4<200

A

TRUE

*“Got HIV? get the TIMP APB Vaccine!

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118
Q

Name all Vaccines HIV+ adults should receive? (7)

A

*“Got HIV? get the TIMP APB Vaccine!

  1. TDaP
  2. Influenza
  3. Meningococcus
  4. Pneumococcus
  5. HAV
  6. HPV
  7. HBV

note: any Live Vaccines(MMR,Varicella) are c❌d if CD4<200

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119
Q

Tx for Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis (2)

A

Fluoroquinolone6w vs TMpSMx6w

“CBP=PENIS PAIN! PP: when you Pee! when you Cum! on paper! & just to be!”

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120
Q

Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis

clinical presentation (4)

A

“CBP=PENIS PAIN! PP: when you Pee! when you Cum! on paper! & just to be!”

  1. [> 3 mo UTI]…PP when you Pee!
  2. [> 3 mo pain with ejaculation]…PP when you Cum!
  3. [UApyuria+bacteriuria & Prostate XMnml|hypertrophy|TTP|edema]PP…on Paper!
  4. [> 3 mo GU pain]… & PP just to be!

“CBP=PENIS PAIN! PP: when you Pee! when you Cum! on paper! & just to be!

Tx[Fluoroquinolone6w vs tMpSMX6w]

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121
Q

Schistosomiasis is a ⬜ most commonly seen in ⬜.
What are the sx?-4

A

parasitic fluke worm infxn; [sub-Saharan Africa]

  1. terminal hematuria
  2. dysuria
  3. urinary freq
  4. peripheral eosinophilia
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122
Q

A patient p/w blood in his urine (at the end of his stream), accompanied with dysuria.

This raises s/f ⬜ which is diagnosed by ⬜ and treated with ⬜

A

urinarySchistosomiasis ; [identification of eggs on urine sediment microscopy] ; praziquantel

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123
Q

How do you workup gross hematuria?

A
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124
Q

PSGN-PiG and BrIAN are similar, both presenting as gross hematuria s/p URI

Name 2 major discernible factors

[PSGN-PiG ⼀PostStreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis] and [BrIAN⼀Bergers IgA Nephropathy]

A

Onset & [LabsC3 complement]

P: [O: 1-4WEEKS after infxn] [L: C3DECREASED]

B: [o: 1-4days after infxn] [L: C3normal] ⼀C3 normal due to weak complement fixing by IgA

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125
Q

PSGN-PiG & BrIAN are similar, both presenting gross hematuria s/p URI

Compare their Pathogenesis

[PSGN-PiG ⼀PostStreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis] and [BrIAN⼀Bergers IgA Nephropathy]

A
[PSGN ⼀PostStreptococcal Glomerulonephritis] and [BrIAN⼀Bergers IgA Nephropathy]
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126
Q

PSGN-PiG & BrIAN are similar, both presenting gross hematuria s/p URI

Compare their [LabsUA & Serum]

[PSGN-PiG ⼀PostStreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Postinfectious Glomerulonephritis] and [BrIAN⼀Bergers IgA Nephropathy]

A
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127
Q

Contrast Induced Nephropathy (3)

A

🩻phenomena in which _R_adiocontrast*(NA_R_CO)* (1-2d after exposure) induces vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole → ⬇︎GFR → [AKI7 days ]
🩻preexisting renal dysfxn and/or preexisting renal hypOperfusion = CIN risk factors
🩻give high risk CIN pts [aggressive IVFNaCl or NaHCO3] before and after radiocontrast

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128
Q

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction refers to [sx ⬜7] that develop [⬜ hours] after patient takes treatment for ⬜.

Etiology involves ⬜, and JHR treatment = ⬜

A
  1. fever
  2. HA
  3. myalgia
  4. rigor
  5. diaphoresis
  6. hypOtension
  7. [rash progression (if 2º syphilis)]

▶[6-48h];

▶[infection from ANY spirochete (Treponema Syphilis , Borrelia Lyme, Leptospirosis)]

▶[widespread bacterial lysis → massive release of bacterial degradation lipoproteins → transient inflammatory response]

▶[supportive (JHR is self limited to 48h)]

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129
Q

After UA/UCx, your next step in working up Gross Hematuria is ⬜

How can you do this? -2

A

[evaluate Upper and Lower urinary tract]

Upper: CT urogram > [US(alt for CKD)]

Lower: Cystoscopy > [urine cytology(low risk pts)]

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130
Q

Risk factors for [Urinary Tract Malignancy (renal/bladder/prostate CA)] (5)

A
  1. 40+ yo
  2. male
  3. smoking
  4. pelvic radiation
  5. aniline dyes
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131
Q

Salmonellosis gastroenteritis (2/2 salmonella enteritidis) - is typically treated with ⬜ .

What mitigating factors warrant adding abx(Cipro | Bactrim | Ceftriaxone) ? (2)

A

SOLELY SUPPORTIVE CARE

_________________

  1. immunoCompromised
  2. < 12 yo
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132
Q

80 yom with poor functional status and low quality of life, p/w decompensated CKD, but is NOT candidate for hemodialysis

What do you do for this patient?

A

[Nondialytic Conservative CKD Management]

  • [severe CKD + poor functional status + low QOL] → [Nondialytic Conservative CKD Management (focus on palliative, uremia, mineral-bone disease, electrolyte ∆, bp]
  • HD can actually worsen QOL in these pts
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133
Q

T or F

In Patients with poor functional status and low quality of life, HD is likely to improve symptoms and prolong survival

A

FALSE

Pts with preexisting poor functional status and low QOLS are UNLIKELY to get improved sx and/or improved survival with HD = [Nondialytic Conservative CKD mgmt] instead

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134
Q

clinical presentation for [Disseminated histoPLASmosis] - 4

A

“histoPLASma spreads to PLAS

  1. [Pulmonary*→ Granulomas! *]
  2. [Lymphatic RES involvement(LymphNodes/Spleen/Liver)]
  3. [Aplastic Anemia pancytopenia2/2 histoPLASma bone marrow infiltration]
  4. [Skin (Mucocutaneous papules/nodules)]

Dx =[serum histoPLASma Ag] | [urine histoPLASma Ag] immunoassay

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135
Q

Pt s/p penile circumcision develops postprocedural bleeding

management?

A

apply compressive elastic dressing (direct pressure) to bleeding surgical site, BUT ONLY FOR SHORT TIME (to avoid necrosis)

and then remove [compressive elastic dressing] after hemostasis … and prior to discharge

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136
Q

What new onset comorbidity should you anticipate following renal transplant?

A

DM

________________

INC insulin excretion and gluconeogenesis by healthy transplanted kidney

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137
Q

Diagnosis? Tx?

A

candida Intertrigo

(occurs in inguinal/perineal/genital/intergluteal/inframammary)

________________

Topical Antifungals

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138
Q

⬜ can be confirmed with ⬜

_________________

(⬜3) are major risk factors

A

candida Intertrigo ; KOH exam

________________

obestiy / DM / immunosuppresion

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139
Q

[FENa (Fractional Excretion of Na+)] for Prerenal failure?

________________

explain why

A

Prerenal failure FENa < 1%

________________

Prerenal failure ➜ Na+ conservation

140
Q

FENa for Acute Tubular Necrosis?

________________

explain why

A

ATN Intrinsic renal failure FENa > 2%

________________

ATN impairs Na+ reabsorption ➜ more Na+ in urine

141
Q

Acute Tubular Necrosis (a type of ⬜ renal failure) is caused by what 3 things?

A

intrinsic

________________

ATN comes from SIN

Sepsis

Ischemia

Nephrotoxic meds

142
Q

Between [Prerenal failure] and [Acute Tubular Necrosis -Intrinsic renal failure]

which responds to aggressive IVF?

A

[Prerenal failure]

143
Q

Patient s/p severe hypOtension subsequently develops oliguria

Dx?

________________

Management? -4

A

Acute Tubular Necrosis

  • look for muddy brown cast & FENa>2%*
  • ________________*
    1. Maintain Euvolemia
    2. Maintain Electrolytes
    3. Maintain Nephrotoxin avoidance (ACE inhibitors/ARBS/NSAIDs)
    4. Hemodialysis if AEIOU (ph<7.1/hyperK/intoxication/overload-Fluid/uremia)
144
Q

Congenital Rubella

Sx -3

A
  1. eye❌
  2. hearing❌
  3. heart❌
145
Q

Pts with Giardiasis should refrain from attending ⬜ to minimize disease transmission

________________

Tx for Giardiasis? -4

A

public crowding

[Tinidazole or NiTazoxanide]

➜ [metronidazole (2nd line/kids)]

[paromomycin (1st trimester pregnancy)]

146
Q

Giardiasis is transmitted via ⬜-2

What are the Risk factors for Giardiasis -3

A

Fecal-Oral or ingestion

________________

[Contaminated food/water]

[Fecal incontinence with crowding (day care/nursing home/Norris’ apt)]

Immunodeficiency

⬇︎ with hand sanitizer

147
Q

diagnosis? | tx?-2

A

[Tinea capitis ring worm]

________________

[PO griseofulvin] or [PO terbinafine]

cp = scaly pruritic erythematous patches of hair loss

148
Q

Asymptomatic Bacteriuria is self-limited to 2 weeks, and defined as ⬜ + ⬜

________________

Which 3 populations should actually be treated for Asymptomatic Bacteriuria?

A

[clean catch urine > 100,000 CFU/mL of ≥1 organism]

+

[No UTI sx(SUD)]

________________

Pregnant / [urologic procedures] / [within 3 mo kidney transplant]

_________________

SUD: Suprapubic TTP/Urinary Freq-Urgency/Dysuria

149
Q

Tx for outpatient acute pyelonephritis

A

[PO Cipro]7d

________________

DW SLUFF: dysuria/WBC Pyuria/suprapubic pain/Leukocytosis/Urinary sx/Flank Pain/Fever

150
Q

clinical course for [Dengue Yellow Fever] (5)

A

[4-7d incubation by Aedes mosquito] ➜ SEVERE [break bone MARF] + [hemorrhagic sx (tourniquet petechiae)]

—–(POSSIBLY)—->

[DENGUE SHOCK = LIFE THREATENING CAPILLARY LEAKAGE ➜ CIRCULATORY COLLAPSE, 3RD SPACING, END ORGAN DAMAGE]

________________

[break bone MARF =Myalgia/Arthralgia/Retroorbital Pain/FEVER]

151
Q

organisms most commonly associated with

dental abscess -2

A

Streptococcus

PeptoStreptococcus

152
Q

Erysipelas, most commonly caused by ⬜, presents as (⬜2) .

The 1st line Tx is ⬜

A

GASP;

fever + [acute rapid spreading erythema with raised, well demarcated borders +/- external ear involvement]

________________

PCN

153
Q

Which 2 organisms cause
skin ABSCESS?

A

MsSA

MRSA

154
Q

Which 4 Bite Wounds receive

[left open to heal by secondary intention + ⬜ prophylaxis]?

________________

Why?

A

TECH bites are [left open to heal by secondary intention with _AMOX_CLAV_ px]

  1. [Time of bite > 12 hours old]
  2. [Extremity (hand or foot) bite]
  3. [CAT bites (except if on face**)]
  4. [HUMAN bites (except if on face**)]
    * *1° < [CAT/HUMAN Face bite 24h old] < 2°*

________________

These bite wounds are high risk for subsequent infection

155
Q

What are the renal complications of sickle cell TRAIT - 5

A
  1. Painless Hematuria 2/2 papillary necrosis
  2. Inability to concentrate urine (due to vasa recta damage)
  3. Distal Renal Tubular Acidosis
  4. UTI
  5. Renal Medullary CA

Sickle cell trait is a benign condition with Hgb AS that can cause fleeting papillary necrosis

156
Q

Which two renal pathologies is analgesic nephrophathy associated with?

A

[AiN (Acute Allergic interstitial Nephritis)] which → [chronic renal papilla necrosis]

157
Q

Causes of Papillary Necrosis - 9

A

POSTCARDS

  1. Pyelonephritis
  2. Obstruction of urogenital tract
  3. Sickle Cell
  4. Tuberculosis
  5. Chronic Liver disease
  6. AAAA (Analgesic NSAIDs/ASA/APAP/Alcohol)
  7. Renal transplant rejection/Renal vein thrombosis
  8. DM
  9. Systemic Vasculitis

________________

tx = correct underlying etx

POSTCARDS➜ ischemia_(i.e. BL AiN) ➜ [chronic renal papilla necrosis] ➜ [papilla sloughing] ➜ {[gross hematuria]/ [prOteinuria] / [pyuria with WBC cast] / [neg urine cx] + [renal colic]}

158
Q

Papillary Necrosis - 5

MOD

A

POSTCARDSimpaired renal perfusion → ischemia (i.e. BL AiN) ➜ [chronic renal papilla necrosis] ➜ [papilla sloughing]

➜ gross hematuria/ proteinuria / [pyuria with WBC cast] / [neg urine cx] + renal colic

_________________

tx = correct underlying etx

159
Q

Sydenham chorea is one of the Major features of ⬜

Describe Sydenham chorea clinical presentation -4

________________

tx for Sydenham chorea?

A

Acute Rheumatic Fever

________________

[DANCING: MIND(emotionally labile) / FACE / HANDS / FEET (rapid jerky movements)]

________________

[PCN until adulthood] (to prevent recurrent rheumatic fever)

160
Q

Acute Rheumatic Fever requires (2M) or (1M/2m) for dx

List the

5 MAJOR clinical features

________________

4 minor clinical features

A

late sequelae = Mitral regurgitation/stenosis

161
Q

⬜ is the most late-onset (months/years after exposure) complication of Lyme Disease

How is Lyme Disease diagnosed? -2

A

[Lyme Arthritis (synovial fluid WBC 20-50K)];

[serum ELISA + Western blot]

________________

septic arthritis = synovial fluid WBC > 50K

162
Q

⬜ is the most late-onset (months/years after exposure) complication of Lyme Disease

What is the tx for Lyme disease? (2)

A

[Lyme Arthritis (synovial fluid WBC 20-50K)]

_________________

[DOXY (or Amoxicillin) PO x 28 days]

________________

septic arthritis = synovial fluid WBC > 50K

163
Q

Acute Cervicitis Tx? -3

________________

Acute Cervicitis dx? -2

A

CefTriaxone + Doxy(or Azithromycin if Pregnant)

_________________

  • NAAT
  • Wet Mount
164
Q

Describe the FeNa in

PreRenal AKI
_________________

Intrinsic Renal AKI

A

FeNa

preRenal < 1%
_________________

Intrinsic > 2%

165
Q

The Hepatitis A vaccine is recommended for which groups - 3

A
  1. Travelers going to countries where HepA is present
  2. Gay Men
  3. Chronic Liver Disease

Hepatitis A can cause SIGNIFICANT but benign TRANSAMINITIS so do not be alarmed by this

self limited to 1 month

166
Q

Describe Serology for Hepatitis B -8

A

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

CSAB = RESOLVED HBV

unvaccinated pts acutely exposed to HBV should STILL get vaccinated in addition to the immunoglobulin

167
Q

What 2 laboratory values are the best diagnostic test for [acute Hepatitis B]?

A

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

[SAg and Core_IgM]

168
Q

Patient p/w isolated elevation of [total anti-HBc (Core_TOTAL)] Ab

How should you manage this? -3

A

[repeat HBV serologies]

–> [obtain [Core_Igm] and LFT] to determine acuity of [window acute HBV]
_________________

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

169
Q

Patient p/w isolated elevation of [total anti-HBc (Core Ab)]

What does this indicate? -3

A
  • isolated [⇪ Core_TOTAL] = 2 possibilities:*
    1a. [acute HBV window] = [⇪Core_Igm]

1b. [acute HBV window with subclinical hepatitis] = ([⇪Core_Igm] with [⇪ LFT])

_________or_________

2.[chronic HBV postwane]: = [only Core_IgG present]

= Years after acute HBV, once SAb has waned from CSAb = ([no Core_IgM] [SAb wanes → no SAb) = only [Core_IgGwhich will keep [Core_TOTAL] elevated]

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

170
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

management for [special HCP (pregnant/immunocompro)] who did NOT have VZV immunity prior to working? -2

A

[VZV IG (or antiviral tx if IG not available)]

________________

IG = ImmunoGlobulin

171
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

________________

management for [NONspecial HCP (not preg/immunocompetent)] who did NOT have VZV immunity prior to working?

A

[Varicella Vaccine within 5d of exposure]

172
Q

Health Care Personnel was recently exposed to Varicella Zoster Virus

management for HCP immune to VZV prior to working?

________________

How do you prove their immunity? -2

A

NOTHING

________________

([hx of Varicella infection] or [hx of 2-dose Varicella Vaccine])

173
Q

describe [postherpetic neuralgia]

________________

tx -4

A

persistent allodynia and pain > 4 months after resolution of acute [herpes Zoster shingles] rash

________________

[Gabapentin vs Pregablin vs TCA] –(if fail)–> Opioids

174
Q

How long are pts with acute [herpes Zoster Shingles] rash contagious?

________________

how is VZV transmitted? -2

A

from the onset of lesions UNTIL LESIONS HAVE COMPLETELY CRUSTED OVER

________________

DIRECT CONTACT >> [active lesion aerosolization]

  • In Hospital: Contact and Airborne precautions.*
  • At Home: keep lesions covered until completely crusted over!*
175
Q

how is VZV transmitted? -2

_________________
Name hospital isolation rules for pts with [acute Zoster Shingles] -2

A

DIRECT CONTACT >> [active lesion aerosolization]
_________________
[localized single Dermatome Zoster] = [lesion coverage + standard precautions]

[DISSEMINATED ZOSTER > 1 DERMATOME] = [lesion coverage + CONTACT + AIRBORNE + standard precautions]
_________________
apply this until lesions are completely crusted over

176
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the sx of SEVERE SIADH?-3

Tx for SEVERE SIADH?

A

[SEVERE hypOnatremia → SEIZURES / COMA]

________________

[3% Hypertonic Saline]

177
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the sx of mild SIADH?-3

Tx for mild SIADH? -2

A

mild hypOnatremia → nausea / forgetful

________________
[Fluid restriction +/- salt tablets]

178
Q

SIADH can range from mild, SEVERE or Euvolemia

What are the causes of SIADH -6

A
  1. CNS ❌
  2. Lung ❌
  3. Meds(Carbamazepine|SSRI|NSAIDs)
  4. Ectopic ADH(SOLC)
  5. Pain
  6. Nausea

❌=disturbance

179
Q

What are the 3 Pillars for reducing [Catheter Line Associated Bloodstream Infections]? -3

A

_C_ancel C LABI with CCC
1. Clean site with Chlorhexadine before insertion
2. Cover w MAX BARRIER PRECAUTION (large sterile drape, mask) during insertion
3. Catheter removed as soon as no longer needed after insertion

180
Q

List Reversible causes of Urinary Incontinence in the elderly-7

A

*"**DIAPERS** gave him reversible urinary incontinence"*
1. [**D**elirium|Depression (psych)]
2. [**I**nfection (UTI)]
3. **A**trophic urethritis/vaginitis
4. **P**harm<sup>(α🟥 | diuretics) </sup>
5. **E**xcess urine output<sup>(CHF, DM)</sup>
6. **R**estricted mobility
7. **S**tool impaction

181
Q

List PERMANENT causes of Urinary Incontinence in the elderly-7

A
🛑
182
Q

ADPKD - [Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Dz]

Describe the Disease - 7

A

ADPKD

Aneurysm (Berry)

Doomed [HTN-(treat w ACEk2 inhibitor) and MVP]

[PrOteinuria AND Hematuria]

Kidney Failure (Early vs. Late onset) - Hepatomegaly occurs if cystic involvement

Differentiation problem = Etx

Image: Renal Ultrasound which = Dx

183
Q

Explain how Chronic Kidney Disease is related to the 3 indications for Parathyroidectomy

A

★ CKD [⬇︎1αHydroxylase] →

[⬇conversion of 25-hydroxyvitD to 1-25DihydroxyVitD] ➜ {[⇪ Phosphate retention] ➜ [bind free Ca+]} + (also ⬇︎ renal Ca+ absorption)] ➜ [⬇︎free Ca+] ➜ [( ⇪ PTH secretion) = compensatory 2º hyperparathyroidism]
_________________

★ EVENTUALLY….

[2º HPTH] may progress to [3° HyperParathyroidism AUTONOMOUS PTH SECRETION]➜ [HIGH PTH AND EVENTUALLY HIGH CA+] ➜ [high bone turnover = (⇪ BONE ALP)] ➜

★ [PTH sx = parathyroidectomy]

  • Persistently elevated [Ca+> 10.5] , [(P )because of CKD] and [PTH>800]
  • Tissue calcification /[calciphylaxis (vascular calcification)]
  • Heavy intractable bone pain
184
Q

Which 2 organisms cause Cellulitis?

poorly demarcated confluent erythema and/or induration involving deep dermis, SQ fat +/- fever

A

GASP > MssA
_________________
cellulitis: poorly demarcated confluent erythema and/or induration involving deep dermis, SQ fat +/- fever

185
Q

CDiff treatment = [⬜ or ⬜] x ⬜ days

Which abx are low risk for causing C.Diff infection (4)

A

tx = [(fidaXomicin PO) or (Vancomycin PO)]10d

Microbial Fighters Can Cause Crazy CDiff (and taking macrolides, too)

_________________
7.aminoglycoside
8.tMP-SMX
9.macrolides
10.tetracycline

Reinfections are from persistent spores of the initial strain

🛑: Abx causes of CDiff

Microbial Fighters Can Cause Crazy CDiff (and taking macrolides, too)
1. Monobactams
2. Fluoroquinolones
3. Carbapenems
4. Clindamycin
5. [Cephalosporin3G]
6. [Cephalosporin4G]
_________________
7.aminoglycoside
8.tMP-SMX
9.macrolides
10.tetracycline

186
Q

CDiff treatment = [⬜ or ⬜] x ⬜ days

Which abx are HIGH risk for causing C.Diff infection (6)

A

tx = [(PO fidaXomicin) or (PO Vancomycin)]10d

Microbial Fighters Can Cause Crazy CDiff” (and taking macrolides, too)
1. Monobactams
2. Fluoroquinolones
3. Carbapenems
4. Clindamycin
5. [Cephalosporin3G]
6. [Cephalosporin4G]

Reinfections are from persistent spores of the initial strain

Microbial Fighters Can Cause Crazy CDiff (and taking macrolides, too)
1. Monobactams
2. Fluoroquinolones
3. Carbapenems
4. Clindamycin
5. [Cephalosporin3G]
6. [Cephalosporin4G]
_________________
7.aminoglycoside
8.tMP-SMX
9.macrolides
10.tetracycline

187
Q

Pt presents with signs of Sarcoidosis but rapidly deteriorates after being given steroids

Dx?

A

histoPLASmosis

Mississippi and Ohio River basins

188
Q

⬜ are flagellated motile protozoan that cause ⬜
_________________
How is this a/w HIV?

A

Trichomonas vaginalis ; Trichomoniasis
_________________

Trichomonads ⇪ rates of HIV transmission

189
Q

Describe [Balanitis] -2
_________________
tx?

A

[infection / inflammation of glans penis (common in uncircumcised infants)] ➜ THICK WHITE DISCHARGE

+/- [concurrent Candida Diaper Dermatitis]

_________________
topical antifungal

Balanoposthitis = inflammation of glans penis AND foreskin

190
Q

Clostridioides difficile MOD

A

Ingested spores (transmitted by fecal-oral route) germinate in COLON = become fully functional bacilli ➜ proliferate unchecked when COLON FLORA IS DISRUPTED ➜ [⇪ release of exoToxin A and B] ➜ mucosal inflammation ➜

[PROFUSE WATERY DIARRHEA ≥ 3 LOOSE STOOLS daily]

191
Q

[West Nile Arbovirus] can cause ⬜ following a bite from an infected ⬜
_________________

What time of year does this typically present?

A

MeningoEncephalitis ; mosquito
_________________
Summer

_________________
Fever / AMS / HA / Nuchal rigidity / Vomiting

192
Q

What are the sx of Acute Epididymitis (4)?
_________________

What are the causes? (2)

A
  1. [Elevating testicle alleviates pain = Epididymitis]
  2. Edema of Epididymis
  3. uL POST testicle pain
  4. [(if E.Coli BOO) SUD urinary sx]
    _________________

[STI (Chlamydia/Gonorrhea)] < [Age 35] < [Bladder outlet obstruction (E.Coli)]

193
Q

Explain what the [HIV test window period] is and why it’s important

A

[HIV test window period]= first 4 weeks of infection after initial exposure

_________________

during first 4 weeks of infection after initial exposure, low titers of antigen and antibody may ➜ FALSE NEGATIVE. So if suspicious for HIV infection, retest ≥4 weeks after initial exposure
_________________
HIV test = p24 antigen + HIV1 ab + HIV2 Ab

194
Q

Prior to initiating HAART for HIV infection, coinfection with ⬜ is determined first.

Why is this?

A

Hepatitis B
_________________
Some antiretrovirals have DUAL activity against HIV and HBV

195
Q

[EBV infectious mononucleosis] ⇪ risk of splenic rupture, intraabd hemorrhage and hypOvolemic shock

What is the 1st step in managing splenic rupture 2/2 EBV?

A

VOLUME RESUSCITATION
_________________
[once stable (SBP>90) obtain CT abd to assess severity] or [XLAP if pt remains HDUS despite volume resuscitation]

196
Q

Pylephlebitis is described as ⬜, and a rare yet devastating complication of ⬜

A

[infective suppurative portal vein thrombosis] ; intraabdominal infections

197
Q

describe Postexposure Px (PEP) management (5)

A
  1. Chlamydia = doxy
  2. Gonorrhea = Ceftriaxone
  3. Trichomoniasis = Metronidazole
  4. [HIV (if within 3 days of exposure)] = triple drug regimen(PTSD)
  5. [HBV (HBV vaccine if not immune [and IG if assailant HBV+])
198
Q

What are the complications of Cryptorchidism? -4

________________

How does Orchiopexy affect the incidence of all these?

A
  1. TESTICULAR CANCER (orchiopexy enables increased detection and ⬇︎ testicular CA but it will still remain higher than gen pop)

________________

  1. Testicular Torsion (orchiopexy ⬇︎)
  2. Inguinal hernia (orchiopexy ⬇︎)
  3. Subfertility (orchiopexy ⬇︎)
199
Q

Name the 6 systems associated with causing Erectile dysfunction ?

A

VINCOSddx

🛑
200
Q

⬜ (caused by hyperactive cremasteric reflex) may present very similarly to Cryptorchidism. How are they differentiated? (2)
_________________

How is this condition managed?

A

Retractile Testes;

  1. RT (caused by hyperactive cremasteric reflex) ReTains ability to manually manipulate testicle into the scrotal base
    (In cryptorchidism, testicles can not be manipulated back down)
  2. RT ReTains scrotal rugae

_________________
Monitor annually

201
Q

Active TB is transmitted up to ___ months before sx even start

what’s the Mgmt for for ppl exposed to Active TB?- 3

A

3
* * *
1.1 of 2[tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma assay] screening
if …
* * *

2A.[#1 is NEGATIVE] = 2 of 2[tuberculin skin test or interferon gamma assay] screening 8-10 wks later

_________________

2B. [#1 or #2A is POSITIVE] = CXR + [acid fast sputum testing]–>

if BOTH negative –> [latent TB tx],

othwise → [ACTIVE TB tx]

202
Q

Triad for Disseminated Gonococcal infection

A

STD

  1. Several migratory arthralgias
  2. Tenosynovitis pain along tendon sheaths
  3. Dermatitis pustular rash

pts may NOT have urinary or pelvic sx with Disseminated Gonococcal infection!

203
Q

Tx for Neurosyphilis

A

[aPG 4MU q4H] x 14d

👀
204
Q

PCN is the first line tx for Syphilis

The alternative tx to Syphilis is ____. When is it indicated to desensitize and still give PCN?-3

A
  1. Pregnancy (No DOXY for POXY)
  2. 3° CNS syphilis
  3. refractory to initial tx
205
Q

Why is RPR not reliable when a person first acquires syphilis?

A

There is a possible [false negative RPR result] early in infection - follow with FTA

206
Q

How do you know when a pt is fully cured from Syphilis?

A

Must be [4-fold FTA titer DEC] by 12 month mark

207
Q

what are the indications for giving Abx to pts with Anal Abscess? - 3

A
  1. Cellulitis extensively
  2. Immunosuppression (DM, HIV, CA)
  3. Valvular Heart Disease

50% of Anal Abscesses –> Fistula!! Tx = I & D that mofo!

208
Q

Sx of Rabies - 5

A

[HAPPY RABIES Sx]

HYDROPHOBIA (fear of water triggering Pharyngeal spasms) = PATHOGNOMONIC FOR RABIES!

Aerophobia

Pharyngeal spasms

[Paralysis (Spastic –> Ascending flaccid)] -> respiratory failure within wks

Yankin’ Agitation

209
Q

Prognosis for Rabies

A

VERY POOR

ONCE [HAPPY RABIES Sx] START! = Die within weeks

Remember! Post-Exposure Px IgG and Vaccine CANONLY HELP TO PREVENT ONSET OF SX. Once [HAPPY RABIES Sx] starts….it’s Over

210
Q

Lichen Planus is associated with what infectious disease?

A

Hep C_Advance Liver Disease

211
Q

Dengue Fever Sx- 3

A
  1. {Break Bone MARF[Myalgia/Arthralgia/Retroorbital Pain/FEVER]*}
  2. [Thrombocytopenia w POSITIVE TOURNIQUET TEST⊕petechiae with 5 min BP cuff inflation]
  3. [“white on red”Rash]
212
Q

Name the conditions associated with Granulomas - 6

A
  1. TB
  2. [Tertiary syphilis gummas]
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. histoPLASma
  5. Sarcoidosis
  6. [CEGP -Churg Strauss Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis]
213
Q

Mgmt for Hepatits B- 2

A

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

  1. OUTPATIENT FOLLOW UP! (most HepB resolves spontaneously! . Only < 5% → Chronic HBV infxn)
  2. Admit IF SERIOUS DECOMPENSATION ONLY
214
Q

acute HBV can develop into [Chronic HBV]

What % acute HBV actually develop into Chronic HBV infection?

A

< 5%

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

215
Q

Which infectious disease is associated with cervical and vaginal punctate hemorrhages?

A

Trichomoniasis

tx = [metronidazole 2 gm PO x 1] and treat partner

216
Q

Trichomoniasis Tx -2

A

[Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1]
+
treat sexual partner

217
Q

Tx

for

Jarisch Herxheimer Rxn?

A

NO TX!

(Supportive[self limited to 48h])

218
Q

how long does Jarisch Herxheimer Rxn last?

A

48H

219
Q

At what CD4 are HIV pts at risk for Candida Esophagitis?

________________

tx?-2

A

CD4<100

________________

  1. Fluconazole PO
  2. Esophagoscopy with bx/cx if refractory to rx
220
Q

Dx for EBV infectious mono - 2

A
  1. [HAMS (Heterophile Ab MonoSpot)] test (only accurate first 2 weeks from Sx onset**
  2. Anti-EBV test

No sports for ≥3weeks because of splenomegaly!

221
Q

Describe oral involvement for [Coxsackie A⼀Hand Foot Mouth disease]

A

grayish vesicles on the tonsillar pillars and posterior oropharynx that –> fibrin-coated ulcerations

👀 Mouth of [Coxsackie A⼀Hand Foot Mouth disease]

doesn’t have to have hand or foot involvement

222
Q

From a lab perspective, how do you differentiate CMV from EBV?

A

CMV will have a [⊝HAMS (Heterophile Ab MonoSpot)]

223
Q

Identify

A

Erysipelas from GASP

_________________

[acute rapid spreading erythema with raised, well demarcated borders +/- external ear involvement]

224
Q

[T or F]

after a positive [Group A Strep Pyogenes] [Rapid Antigen Detection Test], confirmation with Culture is needed before abx?

A

FALSE

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

*+ Strep RADT ➜ Abx*

225
Q

Pt presents with 2 month productive cough

dx?

A

Reactivation TB

(cavitary UPPER lung lesion)

This is different from Aspiration PNA since Aspiration PNA occurs in LOWER lobes

226
Q

“patient presenting with TB rule out has abnormal CXR lesion”

Prior to giving abx, how should you confirm [Active TB Infection] diagnosis? (3)

A

“before giving ATBI abx …confirm ATBI dx with a good sCAN

3 SPUTUM SAMPLES

sent for
s**putum mycobacterial:
1. [
CX (GOLD STANDARD)** ⼀CONFIRMATORY]
2. [Acid Fast Bacillus Smear(_A_ids ATBI dx confirmation)]
3. [Nucleic Acid Amplification Test ⼀CONFIRMATORY]

227
Q

What is the Cremasteric Reflex?

________________

Why is it important?

A

stroking upper inner thigh ➜ testicle elevation

________________

ABSENT CREMASTERIC REFLEX = TESTICULAR TORSION

(6 HOURS UNTIL IRREVERSIBLE DAMAGE)

228
Q

[ADPKD (Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease)] cp -4

A
  1. Multiple Bilateral US Renal Cyst
  2. bilateral flank “fullness” and pain
  3. HTN ➜ hematuria, proteinuria, CKD, ESRD
  4. +/- asx
    * Aggressively control HTN with ACEk2 inhibitors*
229
Q

ADPKD mgmt

________________

(Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease)

A

[ACEk2 inhibitors (⬇︎GFR → prevents CKD)]

230
Q

Describe the Mantoux test?

A

*[Mantoux TST( **_T_**uberculin**_S_**kin**_T_**est)]*

0.1 cc intradermal forearm injection of TB [**_P_**urified **_P_**rotein **_D_**erivative (PPD)] ➜ diameter of [swollen indurated area] measured perpendicularly 48-72H later

231
Q

clinical features of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever -4

A

RMSF
▶[Rickettsia Rickettsiioverlaps🔗🇪hrlichiosis] /
▶[Mental AMS❌(a/b HA)]/
▶[Spotted(🆚 macular) RASH@Wrist & Ankles(2/2 thrombocytopenia petechiae) in Summer after Tick Bite]/
File❌(fever, [thrombocytopenia w petechiae])

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

🇪hrlichiosis = Ehrlichiosis = Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever… without the “SpottedRash = RMF

232
Q

Best immediate tx for Septic pt is _____

A

[10-20 cc/kg Fluid Resuscitation (NS vs LR) over 30 min]

233
Q

recite the order of Initial mngmt for Meningitis-4

A

FBLA

👀

1st: Fluid Resuscitation
2nd: Blood Cx
3rd: Lumbar puncture BEFORE ABX (unless pt requires Head CT 1st or is critically ill and can’t receive lumbar puncture)

**4th**: Abx Empirically

234
Q

Fever, Weight loss and Night sweats should always make you think about ⬜ or ⬜

A

[lymphoma B symptoms]

or

[TB]

FML “fuck my life”: Fever/Mnight sweats/Loss wt

235
Q

Organisms requiring Droplet precaution -6

A

BANGIR needs to drop what he’s doing and don a basic facemask, right now!”

  1. Bordatella
  2. Adenovirus
  3. Neisseria Meningiditis
  4. GASP
  5. Influenzae
  6. Rhinovirus
236
Q

Organisms requiring AIRBORNE (and not just droplet) precaution -5

A

Cage(N95 + Negative pressure room)These Very Small Microbes”

  1. [Coronavirus (SARS/MERS/COVID19)]
  2. TB
  3. [VZV Varicella Zoster]
  4. Smallpox
  5. [Measles RubeOla]

Airborne= Negative Pressure Room + N95 mask

237
Q

Physiology of Chills-2

A

Infection–>Cytokines–>influences hypothalamus to ⬆︎ body temp set point–>

  1. Muscles repetively contract (shivering)
  2. Peripheral vasoconstriction–> “cold” sensation
238
Q

Which vaccines are given to a s/p PNA pt?-2

________________

What are their Risk/Benefit?

A
  1. Flu: Risk= less effective in elderly / Benefit= ⬇︎mortality & occurrence
  2. Pneumococcal: Risk=does NOT ⬇︎ occurrence / Benefit= does ⬇︎ invasive dz from S.Pneumo
239
Q

A Single ring-enhancing Brain Abscess in immunoCOMPETENT pt results from what organisms?-2

________________

How would you diganose this?

A

[Staph Aureus] vs [Strep Viridans]

________________

CT-guided aspiration for cx

Toxo and Nocardia would occur in immunocomp pts

240
Q

You find this MRI in an immunocompromised pt

Identify Disease

A

PML (Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy) 2/2 [John Cunningham Polyoma Virus]

241
Q

Which Dz’s cause EITHER OR Mitral vs. Tricuspid Regurgitation (2)

A

Rheumatic Fever and [Infective Endocarditis]

242
Q

Hydatid Cyst with eggshell calcification are caused by _______.

________________

What is the definite host for this?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

________________

DOGS

243
Q

Pyogenic liver abscess follows after what 2 events?

A

[Appendicitis (GI infection)]

Surgery

244
Q

What is the triad for Congenital Rubella Syndrome?

________________

How do you prevent this?

A
  1. [Sensorineural Hearing loss]
  2. [BL Cataracts]
  3. PDA

________________

Live Rubella vaccine prior to conception

________________

Dx = Rubella IgM vs PCR (Transmission occurs 1st trimester)

245
Q

Describe the cutaneous manifestation of blastomycosis

A

[well circumscribed raised violaceous (wart like) nodules –> microabscess]

Blastomycosis causes Skin, Pulmonary and Bone findings

246
Q

Profuse watery diarrhea after traveling

Most common causes of Travelers’ Diarrhea - 4

A
  1. Giardia
  2. CryptoSPOridium(parasite) - can still occur in immunocompetent pts!
  3. Cyclospora
  4. ETEC

Profuse watery diarrhea after traveling

247
Q

What are the most common causes of viral aseptic meningitis in kids - 2

A
  1. Echovirus
  2. Coxsackie
248
Q

clinical presentation for Walking Atypical PNA - 3

A
  1. INCESSANT DRY COUGH in teen/young adult/military
  2. nonexudative pharyngitis
  3. [Fever w/malaise]

CXR = ⬆︎interstitial infiltrates +/- pleural effusion

249
Q

When can pts with pyelonephritis be transitioned to PO abx?

A

If sx are improved at the 48 hour mark pts can be transitioned to PO (i.e. TMP-SMX or Levofloxacin) abx

250
Q

Pt presents with splenic abscess

What are the risk factors for splenic abscess? - 5

A
  1. INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
  2. IVDA
  3. Immunosuppression
  4. Trauma
  5. Hemoglobinopathy
251
Q

fam member has new dx Bordatella Pertussis⼀now on ⬜ Precautions

Which class of abx are given?

________________

Should the other family members receive anything?

A

droplet;
Macrolides

________________

YES. ALL CLOSE CONTACTS should receive Macrolide px

BANGIR needs to drop what he’s doing and don a basic facemask, right now!”

252
Q

Diagnosis?

A

[NeuroCystiCercosis from Taenia Cestode Helminths]

Swiss Cheese Head CT
253
Q

How does transmission of Hydatid cyst to Humans occur?

A

Echinococcus Granulosus Hydatid Cyst

[EH] reside in sheep(intermediate host)

Dogs eat Sheep ➜ Dog poop now contains [Ee]. → Dog poop contaminates [Human water/food] with [Ee].

Humans consume water/food contaminated with Dog poop⼀[Ee].

[Ee] hatch in human small intestine,

[Ee] penetrate [human small intestinal wall] and travel to Liver where [EH] form

________________

Dx = US / Tx = [Cyst<5cm=Albendazole]

🔎EH = Echinococcus Granulosus Hydatid Cyst
🔎Ee = Echinococcus Granulosus eggs

254
Q

Most esophagitis in HIV pts is caused by _____.

When is this NOT the case?

A

Candida;

pts with sole odynophagia who have no thrush nor difficulty swallowing = viral (HSV, CMV) esophagitis

255
Q

When is the [PneumoCoccal Vaccine-13] recommended?-2

A

PCV-13

▶{[Adults ≥65 yo] = [(PCV13 x 1) → (PCV23 x 1 6 mo later)]}

_________________

▶{[Adults <65 yowith PCV13_RF]= [PCV13 x 1]}

  • [PCV13_RF-]: (SickleCell/CochlearImplant/ESRD/HIV)*
256
Q

For Adults< 65 yo, what are the [PneumoCoccal Vaccine-13]_Risk Factors? (4)

A
  • (SickleCell/*
  • CochlearImplant/*
  • ESRD/*
  • HIV)*
257
Q

For Adults< 65 yo, what are the [PneumoCoccal Vaccine-23]_Risk Factors? (5)

A
  • (Heart/*
  • Lung/*
  • Liver/*
  • DM/*
  • Smoker)*
258
Q

When is the [PPSV23 (PneumoCoccal Vaccine-23)] recommended? -2

A

PPSV23

▶{[age ≥65 yo] = [(P13 x 1) → (P23 x 1 6 mo later)]}

_________________

▶{[age <65 yowith P23_RF]= [P23 x 1]}

P23RF = heart/lung/liver/DM/smoker/[peds with sickle|heart|ear]

259
Q

Where are the most common sites for Kaposi Sarcoma?- 4

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Face
  3. Genitals
  4. Legs

papules –> violaceous plaques or nodules

260
Q

name the organisms sickle cell disease pts are at most risk of acquiring?-3 ;

Which is most common and why?

A

SHiN = encapsulated organisms

  1. Strep Pneumo = MOST COMMON even despite immunization because of non-vaccine serotypes!
  2. HFlu B
  3. Neisseria Meningitidis

these happen to asplenic pts because they have ⬇︎antibody mediated phagocytosis and complement activation

261
Q

Pts who’ve undergone solid organ transplantation are at risk of acquiring what 2 infections?

A
  1. CMV(ganciclovir/ValGanciclovir px)
  2. PCP(Bactrim px)
262
Q

A HealthCare Worker, unvaccinated to Hepatitis B, has just been acutely exposed to Hepatitis B, and now presents with [positive S and E antigen (SEC)] serology

What do you give them? - 2

A

In the absence of a Source patient, assume Source patient is ⊕ =

[Source patient ⊕] + [unvaccinated HealthCareWorker] =

  1. Hep B Immunoglobulin
  2. Hep B VACCINE still
HBV post exposure management

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

263
Q

A HealthCare Worker, unvaccinated to Hepatitis B, has just been acutely exposed to blood from a [HBV⊝ source patient].

What should you give the Healthcare Worker?

A

[Source patient ⊝] + [unvaccinated HealthCareWorker]

Hep B VACCINE

HBV post exposure management

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

264
Q

A HealthCare Worker, [immune to Hepatitis B by vaccination], has just been acutely exposed to blood from a [HBV⊕ source patient]

What should you give the Healthcare Worker?

A

[Source patient HBV ⊝/⊕] + [any vaccinated HealthCareWorker] =

NOTHING!

HBV post exposure management

[S - SEC - SCEb - corem - CEbSAb - CSAb - coreG - SAb]

265
Q

Which viral illness is associated with pancytopenia?

A

EBV(⊕HAMS)

Platelet thrombocytopenia

Anemia from autoimmune hemolytic anemia

Neutrophil/WBC ⬇︎ with atypical lymphocyte on blood smear due to viral suppression

266
Q

What is the triad for Trichinellosis?

Name 2 other telltale sx

A

1. Eye❌<sup>PeriPOrbital edema + [Retinal/conjunctival hemorrhaging]</sup>
2. Myositis (⬆︎CK)
3. Eosinophilia

4. GI❌<sup>onsets early on</sup>
5. [nailbed subungual splinter hemorrhages]

267
Q

What is the management for a patient bitten by a Cat? -3

A

⭐(irrigation
⭐➜ [amox_clav])
TECH bites are[left open to heal by secondary intention with amox_clav px]

Cat bites are DEEP PUNCTURE WOUNDS AT RISK for Pasteurella and oral anaerobes

268
Q

Dx? - 2

A
  1. [EBV(⊕HAMS, ⊕PANcytopenia)]
  2. CMV
269
Q

Which organism should you suspect if a pt with PNA also c/o Diarrhea?

A

Legionella

270
Q

What are the risk factors for TB - 4

A
  1. Homelessness
  2. Alcoholism
  3. Immunosuppression
  4. Healthcare worker

Disseminated TB affects peritoneum, cervical lymph nodes, eyes, bones and skin

271
Q

When is the Rabies Vaccine and Immunoglobulin indicated?-2

________________

What do you do if this is NOT the case? -2

A
  1. Animal is unavailable
  2. Animal is symptomatic

________________

Pet Observation x 10 days or Test Wild Animals to determine need for Rabies px

272
Q

Ventilator associated PNA occurs how long after intubation?

________________

What’s the first 2 steps in mngmt for these pts

A

≥48 hrs

________________

1st: lower respiratory tract Gram stain and culture
2nd: Empiric abx

273
Q

What are the generalized signs of ANY [congenital TORChHH] infection - 3

A
  1. Hepatosplenomegaly
  2. Blueberry muffin spot rash
  3. Jaundice
🛑
274
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly, [Blueberry muffin spot rash] and Jaundice are sx present in ANY congenital TORChHH infection

Name the 9 [congenital TORChHH] members

A

Toxoplasmosis

Others(VZV|Parvovirus|Syphilis)

Rubella

CMV

hepatitis

HIV

HSV

👀
275
Q

LEProsy is a [chronic mycobacterial granulomatous disease]

How does LEProsy present?-3

________________

Dx?

A

LEProsy
1. [LAD painful]
2. [EM-LIKE ANESTHETIC mascular rash📖]
3. [Poorly functional nerves w ⬇︎s/m]

________________

[Dx = FULL THICKNESS Skin bx of lesion]

[Tx = Rifampin WITH Dapsone] || [hypOfunctional n with ⬇︎sensory/motor]

📖Anesthetic EM-LIKE mascular RashhypOpigmented with raised borders - similar to Erythema Multiforme but more irregular

276
Q

LEProsy is a [chronic mycobacterial granulomatous disease]

Tx? - 2

A
  1. Rifampin WITH
  2. Dapsone

{[LAD] [EM-like rash] [Poor nerves] ⼀rosy}

277
Q

Tx for HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS [Pinworm Enterobius Vermicularis] - 2

A
  1. Albendazole
  2. Pyrantel Pamoate
278
Q

Which bacteria is described as Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever without the spots?

________________

What other major lab findings are associated with this bacteria? -3

A

🇪Ehrlichiosis = Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever… without the “SpottedRash = RMF

🇪RMF
▶ehRlichiosisoverlaps🔗Rickettsia Rickettsii but has NO RASH /
Mental AMS❌(a/b MALAISE)/

File❌(Low platelet, Leukopenia, LFTitis)

🔎LFTitis = transaminitis

279
Q

Which bacteria causes Pnuemonia in Pediatric cystic fibrosis pts?

A

Staph Aureus

280
Q

Which organism should you suspect in a pt with severe rapidly developing cellulitis after sustaining a cut in a marine envrionment?

A

Vibrio Vulnificus

also causes food borne illness

281
Q

Dx?

________________

Mode of Transmission?

A

{[HOOKWORM Ancylostoma Duodenale] [Cutaneous larvae migrans]}

________________

walking barefoot in contaminated sand or soil

Tx = Ivermectin

“ROUND, HOOK, WHIP … intestinal Helminths”
- [ROUNDWORM ascaris Lumbricoides]
- [HOOKWORM ancylostoma Duodenale]
- [WHIPWORM trichuris Trichiura]

282
Q

Dx?

________________

Tx?

A

{[HOOKWORM Ancylostoma Duodenale] [Cutaneous larvae migrans]}

________________

Ivermectin

acquired by walking barefoot in contaminated soil|sand

“ROUND, HOOK, WHIP … intestinal Helminths”
- [ROUNDWORM ascaris Lumbricoides]
- [HOOKWORM ancylostoma Duodenale]
- [WHIPWORM trichuris Trichiura]

283
Q

Sporothrix Schenckii is a ____ fungus found in ____

How does it clinically present?

A

dimorphic ; decaying plant and soil

papule at inoculation site ulcerates and drains odorless nonpurulent fluid. This then spread proximally along lines of lymphatic drainage

Tx = PO itraconazole

284
Q

Describe the type of rash you’ll see with secondary syphilis

A

Diffuse Maculopapular rash starting at trunk and spreading to extremities TO INCLUDE PALMS AND SOLES

285
Q

Beta D glucan is useful diagnostics for what organisms?

A

FUNGUS (it’s apart of their cell wall) - and this is nonspecific

286
Q

Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalpathy etx

A

[JC polyoma virus] reactivation in HIV pts –> ASYMMETRIC focal nonenhancing white matter brain lesions WITH NO EDEMA

HIV neurocognitive disorder will have DIFFUSE enhancement

287
Q

What organism is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in IV Drug Users?

A

Staph Aureus

288
Q

What organism is the most common cause of Infective Endocarditis in pts with dental disease and/or procedures?

A

the Strep Viridan MOMS

Mutans/Oralis/Mitis/Sanguinis

tx = CefTriaxone or [aq PCN G IV]

289
Q

What organism causes Acute Epididymitis? - 3

A

EColi if >35yo (secondary to bladder outlet obstruction)

________________

[Chlamydia or Gonorrhea if under 35 yo (secondary to STI)]

290
Q

Ludwig angina is a rapidly progressive cellulitis of the ⬜ and ⬜ space

________________

What is the source of infection?

A

sublingual and submandibular

________________

infected mandibular MOLAR

291
Q

For Malaraia px, in areas with high resistance to Chloroquine, what are the alternatives?-3

________________

How is Malaria px prescribed? -3

A

{[DEET] + Chloroquine|Doxy|malaronE|meFloquine]}
1. Mefloquine
2. Doxycycline
3. Malarone

and of course DEET

________________

px [≥2wks prior to travel], [during stay] and [stopped 4 weeks after returning]

{[DEET] + Chloroquine|Doxy|malaronE|meFloquine]}

292
Q

Prophylactic Erythromycin Ophthalmic ointment at birth is used to prevent what organism(s)?

A

Gonorrhea only

293
Q

What are the major organisms that cause [contact lens keratitis]?-2

_________________

cp? -3

A
  1. Pseudomonas
  2. Serratia

_________________

painful red eye and corneal opacification with corneal ulceration

[contact lens keratitis]
294
Q

etx for hordeolum

________________

tx?

A

[external hordeolum stye]

an external hordeolum = a stye = inflammation of eyelash follicle or tear gland –> tender nodule at lid margin

________________

tx = warm compresses

🛑
295
Q

etx for Miliary TB
_________________
describe the radiograph

A

Hematogenous spread of TB (possibly from primary infection or reactivation) that –> subacute sx +/- extrapulmonary(CNS, Liver) involvement ;

Millet seed diffuse reticulonodular pattern

Miliary TB: Millet seed diffuse reticulonodular pattern
296
Q

cp for Toxic Shock Syndrome-3

________________

What are the causes of Toxic Shock Syndrome?-3

A
  1. Diffuse erythematous macular rash
  2. hypOtension
  3. fever

__________________

tampons, nasal packing, post surgery

297
Q

T or F

Lactose intolerance is associated with weight loss

A

FALSE

298
Q

Dx Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth- 2

SIBO

A
  1. b12 deficiency(w subsequent Macrocytic Anemia)
  2. breath LactuLOSE test]

(SIbbbO“SIBO”)
_________________
Stinky flatulence / [Intestinal lack of TTP OR Fever] / [bloating | b12 deficiency | ⊕breath LactuLOSE test] / [Oasis WATERY Diarrhea]

299
Q

histologic findings of Celiac Disease- 3

A
  1. intraepithelial lymphocytic infiltrates
  2. loss of villous architecture -> villous atrophy
  3. Crypt hyperplasia
    bx from distal duodenum
300
Q

Any RPR Titer greater than ___ is high syphilis titer (positive result)

A

1:16

anything where they had to dilute it MORE than 16 times is HIGH RPR Syphilis titer

301
Q

Patients diagnosed with Molluscum contagiosum should be co-tested for ⬜

MC transmission via skin-to-skin contact

A

HIV (especially if facial MC)

302
Q

What are the 3 major risk factors for developing [Clostridioides Difficile diarrhea]?

A

[Abx (Microbial Fighters Can Cause Crazy CDiff (and taking macrolides, too) )]

gastric acid suppression

≥65 yo
_________________

CDI ➜ Severe CDI ➜ FULMINANT CDI

303
Q

Bronchiolitis is known for causing ⬜ in infants < 2 yo (especially during winter)

What’s the most common cause of Bronchiolitis?

A

periods of [LIFE THREATENING APNEA] ; RSV
_________________

Palivizumab px for <29WG / Chronic lung disease of prematurity / HDUS CHD

304
Q

List the causes of [BIDD (bloody inflammatory diarrhea dysentery)] ? (6)

A

SeCCSY

Shigella | [eHEC STEC] ​| Colon disesase (IBD/AMBIC) | Campylobacter ​| Salmonella ​| [Yersenia enterocolitica]

305
Q

Which patient demographics should receive the Hepatitis B vaccine? (5)

A
  1. multiple sex partners
  2. IVDA
  3. Pregnant
  4. Healthcare worker
  5. Inmate
306
Q

Acute retroviral syndrome occurs ⬜ weeks after ⬜
_________________

Main s/s (3)​

A

3 ; HIV infection
_________________

  1. [painful lesion]
  2. [palm/sole⊕rash]
  3. constitutional
307
Q

pts with Staph Aureus bacteremia often develop metastatic infections to [bone (vertebral osteomyelitis)] and what other 2 structures?
_________________

How is Vertebral Osteomyelitis diagnosed? (2)​

A

heart valves, lungs
_________________

spine MRI ➜ spine biopsy​

308
Q

The HPV vaccine series should be given to which patients?
_________________

What are the benefits? ​(4)

A

11-26 yo GIRLS AND BOYS
_________________

⬇︎ risk for

  1. GENITAL WARTS
  2. cervical CA
  3. anogenital CA
  4. oropharyngeal CA
309
Q

Intestinal Helminths consist of what 3 worms? ​
_________________

what are 4 sx of Intestinal Helminth infection?

A

<sub>*"ROUND, HOOK, WHIP ... intestinal Helminths"*</sub>
- [ROUNDWORM ascaris Lumbricoides]
- [HOOKWORM ancylostoma Duodenale]
- [WHIPWORM trichuris Trichiura]

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

1. **PERIPHERAL EOSINOPHILIA**​
2. [acute pulmonary sx ➜ chronic GI sx]
3. ⊕FOBT
4. microcytic anemia

310
Q

how is an infection from Intestinal helminths diagnosed?
_________________

tx? ​

A

⊕[helminth eggs] in stool Ova & Parasite
_________________

albendazole​

sx: [acute pulm ➜ chronic GI] + peripheral eosinophilia + FOBT

“ROUND, HOOK, WHIP … intestinal Helminths”
- [ROUNDWORM ascaris Lumbricoides]
- [HOOKWORM ancylostoma Duodenale]
- [WHIPWORM trichuris Trichiura]

311
Q

How does HIV affect platelets?

A

[HIV-associated thrombocytopenia] can occur at any stage of HIV and tx = treat the HIV

________________

these pts rarely have INC bleeding

312
Q

After starting HIV treatment, labs are drawn every ⬜

what is Virologic failure?

________________

What does it indicate? -2

A

3-6 months

________________

failure to achieve [viral load < 200 copies] within 6 months of starting triple-ARV

________________

may indicate drug resistance or noncompliance

  • (triple-ARV = 3 drug regimen Antiretroviral)*
313
Q

⬜ is a gram ⬜ organism most commonly a/w human bite wounds
_________________

Tx for this bacteria? ​ (3)

A

Eikenella corrodens ; gram negative anAerobe ​

_________________

  1. TETANUS PX
  2. [PO amox/Clav(or IV amp/Sulfa)]
  3. {TECH woundsleft open to heal by 2º intention*unless [(human|cat) to face]⚠️*}
    ___________________________x____________________________________
    ⚠️[(human|cat) face wounds]: [1º healing < 24h old < 2º healing ]
314
Q

tx for human bite wound? (3)

A
  1. TETANUS PX
  2. [PO amox/Clav(or IV amp/Sulfa)]
  3. {TECH woundsleft open to heal by 2º intention*unless [(human|cat) to face]⚠️*}

covers polymicrobial + Eikenella Corrodens

⚠️[(human|cat) face wounds]: [1º healing < 24h old < 2º healing ]

315
Q

wet mount shows: Pear shaped motile organisms

What would you expect vaginal pH to be for this dx?

A

pH >4.5

dx = Trichomonas vaginalis

_________________

Trichomonas vaginalis in prepubescent child = sex abuse and must be reported

316
Q

Parvovirus B19 cp (3)

A

Flu sx ➜

[slapped cheek malar erythema infectiosum rash (kids)] or [symmetrical joint stiffness/pain (teens/adults)] ➜

self limited to 3 weeks with no sequelae
_________________

tx = supportive/NSAID

317
Q

[HOOKWORM Ancylostoma Duodenale] is 1 of the 3 main helminth infections and is diagnosed by ⬜
_________________

Describe the life cycle ​(4)

A

[HOOKWORM Ancylostoma Duodenale] **eggs** in Stool O&P
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

*sx: peripheral eosinophilia/[Pulm ➜ GI sx]/+FOBT/microcytic anemia*​

318
Q

Vibrio vulnificus is a free-living, gram ⬜ bacteria found ⬜. Infection occurs via (⬜2)
_________________

Patients with ⬜ have ⇪ risk for developing what 3 serious sequelae of VV?

A

negative; marine; [ingestion or wound contamination]
_________________

chronic illness =

  1. [rapidly progressive {within hrs} cellulitis] -image
  2. hemorrhagic bullae
  3. septic shock
    * dx = blood/wound cx | tx = IVAbx STAT*
319
Q

Diphtheria is ca​used by ⬜
_________________

How does it present?​ (3)

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae​ ​
_________________

  1. [Pharyngitis with grey exudates that coalesce into a {pseudomembrane (bleeds with scraping)}]
  2. Cervical LAD
  3. TOXIN-MEDIATED SEQUELAE ⼀ MYOCARDITIS / NEURITIS / NEPHRITIS
320
Q

cp of TB meningitis (4)

A

▶[2 weeks low-fever prodrome] ➜

▶[Choroidal tubercles (yellow/white nodules near optic disc)]

▶[basilar meningeal enhancement]

▶{TB CSF: [ADA ⇪ + ( G<45 ​​| P 100-500 ​| WLymphocyte 100-500⇪)]}

ADA = Adenosine DeAminase

Dx = {⊕CSFAFB smear/culture via [serial LP CSF]}

321
Q

How do you diagnose TB meningitis ?

A

{⊕CSFAFB smear/culture via [serial LP CSF]}

[serial LP CSF exams] looking for acid-fast bacilli using smear/culture​

322
Q

What is the treatment for TB meningitis? (2)

A

[CRiP (A|F)]2 ➜ [Ri]9
_________________
[CTS (prednisone|dexamethasone) / Rifampin / iNH / Pyrazinamide (Aminoglycoside IV or Fluoroquinolone)]2

[Rifampin / iNH]9

323
Q

Out of the SeCCSY organisms that cause BIDD what makes [eHEC STEC 0157 EColi] specifically unique?

🔎BIDD = Bloody Inflammatory Diarrhea Dysentery

A

[eHEC STEC 0157 EColi]causes NO HIGH FEVER in patients

(likely because mechanism involves only STEC toxins causing local damage)

324
Q

Patients with NonGonococcal urethritis frequently have persistent sx after initial ⬜ abx

How should you manage this? (2)

possibly from infection with organism not susceptible to azithromycin (Mycoplasma genitalium)

A

azithromycin;

  1. repeat urethral Gram stain
  2. repeat urine NAAT
325
Q

HIV PostExposure Prophylaxis can be initiated up to ⬜ hours after exposure , taken for duration of ⬜ and consist of what [4-step protocol]?

A

[72h (preferably within 3h if occupational)]; 28days

_________________

PEP PTSD

  1. Primary labs [HIV testexposed (+ HIV testSOURCE)]
  2. [Triple ARV ([2 NRTI + (1 [II or PI or nNRTI])within 72h]28d
  3. Secondary labs (HIV testexposed) at 6w
  4. Delayed labs (HIV testexposed) at 16w
326
Q

Tick paralysis is a rare disorder caused by ⬜ ​

How is it diagnosed?

How is it treated?

A

[tick saliva neurotoxin]
_________________

[SKIN EXAM TO FIND AND REMOVE TICK]

SPONTANEOUS RECOVERY AFTER TICK IS REMOVED

327
Q

Tick paralysis is a rare disorder caused by ⬜

How does it present? ​​

A

[tick saliva neurotoxin]
_________________

tick attachment​ –(4-7days)–> [afebrile rapid ascending paralysis + gait ataxia] = [absent DTR and normal sensation] ​

328
Q

Herpangina

clinical features (3)

A
  1. Coxsackie A
  2. POSTERIOR oropharyngeal vesicles
  3. [self limited to 1 week (so tx = hydration/analgesics)]
329
Q

What is Ecthyma gangrenosum? (2)

A
  • Pseudomonas skin lesion [≥1 erythematous macule ➜ blueish/green pustule/bullae ➜ nonpainful gangrenous ulcer]
  • immunocompromised pts
330
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

Mgmt (3)

A
  • STAT blood and wound cx ➜
  • ([Pip/tazo βL] + [gentamicin aminoglycoside])


_________________

βL=βeta Lactam

331
Q

Which contacts should receive prophylaxis after Neisseria Meningitidis exposure (4)

A
  1. [Livingmate(Roommate/Housemate)]
  2. Day care workers
  3. [direct exposure to oropulmonary secretions (i.e. MD that intubates/CPR/Spouse)]
  4. [seated next to affected person ≥8h]

332
Q

patient presents after being bit by Ixodes tick

What 2 factors determine if they’re at risk for Lyme disease transmission?

A
  1. Tick attached > 36h
  2. Tick is ENGORGED upon removal ​

_________________

Erythema migrans takes > 3 DAYS to develop. do NOT confuse with cutaneous irritation from Tick Saliva presenting shortly after tick removal

333
Q

Name clinical features of this diagnosis (5)

A
  • Scabies*
    1. [HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS (via contact) Mite infestation] ➜
    2. SEVERE pruritic excoriations with small red crusted papules and linear burrows on the
    3. flexor wrist, lateral fingers, finger webs
    4. dx by [skin scrapings demonstrating mites/ova/feces under light microscopy]
    5. tx = [Permethrin 5% topical cream] (apply everywhere except head)
  • oral Ivermectin is alternative*
334
Q

How does [oral candidiasis (thrush)] present? (2)
_________________

What are the usual causes of this? (4)​

A

[white lesions on the oral mucosa that are easily scraped off]

(+/- cervical LAD)​

_________________

HIV** | abx | inhaled CTS | chemo

335
Q

Describe the 4th generation HIV test? (3)

A

p24 antigen

+

HIV1Ab

+

HIV2Ab

336
Q

[T or F] in foodborne Botulism, Fever and Mental status change are apart of initial sx presentation

A

FALSE
_________________

Fever and AMS are usually NOT PRESENT in [clostridium Botulism]

337
Q

Clostridium Botulinum

MOD

A

[(spores = babies) | (NEUROTOXIN = ADULT)] ➜

inhibits PREsynaptic ACh release at neuromuscular junctions ➜ [descending flaccid paralysis]

_____________

dx = + serum toxin

338
Q

[Fulminant Clostridioides Difficile Infection] requires different therapy such as (⬜2) .
_________________

What is the diagnostic criteria for [Fulminant CDI]?

A

[Vanc PO and Metronidazole IV] –(if refractory)–> [fecal transplant 🆚 surgery]
_________________

339
Q

Neisseria Meningitidis

What prophyalaxis is given? (3)​

A

Rifampin PO > [cipro PO = Ceftriaxone IM]

_________________

[cipro PO or Ceftriaxone IM] for any Rifampin ctd (ie on OCP)

340
Q

HIGH risk contact with HIV warrants HIV prophylaxis

What constitutes exposure to HIV as HIGH risk contact? (9)

A

1. BLOOD

2. (any bodily fluid with visible BLOOD in it)

3. RECTUM

4. SEMEN

5. Vagina

6. Breast Milk

7. Mucous membrane

8. Non-intact skin/Percutaneous exposure

9. eYE

_________________

HIVhRC indicates [HIV PEP PTSD]

341
Q

low risk contact with HIV does NOT warrant HIV prophylaxis

What constitutes exposure to HIV as low risk contact? (5)

A
342
Q

HIV PostExposure Prophylaxis can be initiated up to ⬜ hours after exposure and is taken for duration of ⬜

For [HIV PEPPTSD] name the 3 drugs typically used for the Triple ARV

ARV = AntiRetroViral

A

[72h (preferably within 3h if occupational)]; 28days

_________________

[(Tenofovir + Emtricitabine) + Raltegravir]

_________________

PEP PTSD

[Triple ARV ([2 NRTI + (1 [II or PI or nNRTI])within 72h]28d

343
Q

Clostridium Botulinum

Tx

A

[Equine serum 7valent boTulinum antiToxin]

dx = + serum toxin

344
Q

recite the [Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone] pathway -4

A
[Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone] pathway
345
Q

[Angiotensin 1] is converted to [Angiotensin 2] by ⬜

Name all 6 functions of [Angiotensin 2]

A

[ACE from Lungs]

_________________

Angiotensin 2 HAVDEN way for more!”

  1. Hypothalamus: stimulates Thirst at hypOthalamus
  2. [ADH Vasopressin] secretion from POST Pit → INC principal cell H20 channels
  3. Vasoconstriction(via smooth m AT1 R)
  4. alDosterone secretion from adrenal gland
  5. Efferent arteriole constriction( ⇪ GFR to preserve renal function during low volume states
  6. [Na+/H+ PCT pump] activity INC → INC PCT Na+ reAbsorption

[AT1R] = Angiotensin 1 Receptor

[Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone] pathway