4⼀PULMONARY/ALLERGY/ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What would you expect PFT for a patient with Asthma to be?

A

NORMAL PFT

but

[FEV1⬇︎ ≥20% (on methacholine challenge)]

“Either [BD → ⇪EVC] or [MC → ⬇︎EV]”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the recommendations regarding Influenza vaccine and [patients with “egg” allergy] ? (3)

A

pt s/p…

  • [urticarial (egg rxn)]? → give [IM dead influenza vaccine]
  • [SEVERE (egg rxn)]? → give [IM dead influenza vaccine] in healthcare setting under supervision
  • [SEVERE (VACCINE rxn)]? → [INFLUENZA VACCINE❌CONTRAINDICATED]
[Urticaria Hives]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Management for Asthma Exacerbation (3)

A

PIR

1st: [PAWSS respiratory failure?]
2nd: [Initial tx(SMC vs Mechanical Ventilation)
3rd: [Reassess q2-4h]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Whats the best medication for Awake Intubation induction? ​
_________________

why? (6)

A

Ketamine ​
_________________

has a BAD RUP

provides [BronchoDilation | Analgesia | Dissociative amnesia]

+

maintains [Respiratory drive | Upper airway tone | Protective reflex]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is smoking/secondhand smoking a/w Chronic Sinusitis?
_________________

Name 3 other major causes of Chronic Sinusitis​

A

cigarette smoke damage cilia ➜ ⬇︎mucus flow throughout the sinus ➜ chronic sinusitis ​
_________________

poorly treated acute sinusitis / [structural abnormality (nasal septum/palate)] / rhinitis

SMHHsx = [Snotty purulent nasal discharge/Maxillary facial pain/HA/Hot>39C]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Most epistaxis originate from the ⬜ in the ⬜

How do you manage this? -4

A

[Kisselbach Plexus] ; [ANTERIOR Nasal Septum]

________________

  • try each tx until epistaxis resolved*
    1st: Nostril pinching
    2nd: [Topical Vasoconstrictor]
    3rd: [Cautery (silver nitrate vs electrical)]
    4th: [ANT nasal packing with bacitracin-sponge]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tx for [Bacterial Aspiration PNA] -3

look for infiltrate in dependent portion of the lung

A

βMα

_________________

[CefTriaxone + Azithromycin](community acquired PNA)

+

[anaerobic abx if empyema or lung abscess present]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

treatment regimen for GASP? -2

________________

What are the alternatives if a patient is allergic? -3

________________

Why is it important to treat GASP?

GASP = [Group A Strep Pyogenes]

A

[PO PCN VK]10d or [PO amoxicillin]10d

________________

allergy mild = Cephalosporin
allergy anaphylaxis = Azithromycin | Clindamycin

________________

prevention of Rheumatic Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the most common cause of hemoptysis?

A

[Bronchial infxns (Bronchitis / Bronchiectasis)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the most common organisms to cause Sinus infection (Rhinosinusitis)? - 3

________________

Tx?

A

Strep Pneumo > HFlu nontypeable > moraxella

________________

Tx = Amoxicillin/clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

[Haemophilus Influenzae] Tx (5)

A

HaEMOPhilus

[FAT MC]

[Fluroquinolone vs. Ampicillin vs. Tetracycline vs. Macrolide(NOT ERYTHRO) vs. Ceftriaxone]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

🄰. [Daily Cough with mucopurulent sputum and [Recurrent multiLobar PNA] likely indicates what dx?

________________

🄱 . How does this disease cause hemoptysis?
_________________

🄲. Explain why [Recurrent single lobe PNA] has a different workup

A

🄰 . Bronchiectasis

________________
🄱.
💥[multilobar poor ciliary clearance(2/2 Kartagener | CF | ABPA, etc) ] → *multilobar *bronchial wall infection ➜

💥[inflammatory bronchial wall thickening and permanent airway dilation]+ inflammation predisposes to repeat infections

💥➜ more bronchial wall thickening and dilation= [cycle of bronchial airway dilation + bronchial wall thickening+ bronchial wall inflammation]

💥➜chronic [bronchial wall inflammation] ➜ rupture of [bronchial wall superficial blood vessels] ➜ hemoptysis

c.
Focal bronchiectasis (involvement of single lobe/segment only) indicates airway blockage (malignancy/foreign body) ⼀ = Dx/Tx = FLEX bronchoscopy (since HRCT may not reveal/remove the obstructing lesion)
so…
🧠pts with [persistent Recurrent PNA] in:
[single lobe → 🔬FLEX BRONCHOSCOPY]
vs
[Multi lobe → 🔬HRCT]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the Causes of ARDS (10)

A

ARDS

A= Aspiration vs. [Acute Pancreatitis] vs. [Air Fluid Embolus (amniotic)]

R= Radiation

D= Drugs vs. DIC vs. Drowning

S= Sepsis vs. Smoking vs. Shock

ARDS is a restrictive pattern that –> [⬇︎Lung Compliance], [Group 3Pulm HTN] and impaired gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 criteria for COPD Exacerbation

A

Co-P-D

[Cough ⇪ with SPUTUM ∆]

[Pulmonic WHEEZING BL]

[Dyspnea ( ➜respiratory acidosis)]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Out of the Tx for COPD Exacerbation

Which improves survival?

________________

Which ⬇︎future events?

A

“I’m having COPD Exacerbation! Give me DOPA! (but not really)”

[O2 PRN via BiPAP (goal: 90-94% O2 Sat)]

________________

Abx (Azithro-⬇︎future events or Levoflox or Doxy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tx for COPD Exacerbation-4

A

“I’m having COPD Exacerbation! Give me DOPA! (but not really)”

  1. Duoneb (albuterol + ipratropium)
  2. O2 PRN via BiPAP (goal: 90-94% O2 Sat)
  3. [Prednisone 40 mg qd x 5]
  4. Abx (Azithro-⬇︎future events or Levoflox or Doxy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how is [PPSV 23 (Pneumococcal PolySaccharide Vaccine)] used in peds? (3)

A

PPSV23 in kids is used for peds at high risk for pneumococcal disease

  1. [Sickle Cell Anemia\Asplenia]
  2. Cardiac ❌
  3. cochlear implants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diagnostic criteria for Acute Otitis Media -2

________________

Which organisms cause AOM? -3

A

BULGING TM + [Middle Ear effusion with TM inflammation (fever/otalgia/erythema)]

________________

STREP PNEUMO = [HFLU NONTYPEABLE**] >> moraxella

________________

** also causes otitis conjunctivitis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Prophylactic abx tx and tympanostomy tube ⬇︎ [recurrent AOM],

and are recommended for which 4 patient groups?

A

[≥ 3 AOM in 6 mo] or

[≥4 AOM in 12 mo] or

[craniofacial DO] or

[neurodevelopmental DO = speech/hearing ❌]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does it take Malignant [Solitary Pulmonary Coin Nodules] to double in size?

________________

How does this affect diagnostics?

A

1 month - 1 year

________________

Pt with stable Pulm Nodule > 1 year = NO CA!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pt with hemoptysis comes in with [Solitary Pulmonary Coin Nodule] on CXR

What are the 3 [preDiagnostic Mgmt] steps for SPN?

A

A: LOCATE PREVIOUS CXR ≥ 1y old!

_________________

b: If SPN unchanged = NO CA

C: If [(SPN ∆) OR (NO PRIOR CXR)] ➜ [Diagnostic Mgmt] (image)

Coin lesions = 80% chance malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List 5 characteristics of [solitary pulmonary coin nodules] that help to determine their Malignancy & workup

A

Smoking hx | Location | Age | Border || size
-Smoking Hx
-Location: Endobronchial proximal extension/Local invasion/Satellite Nodules
-Age
-Border: : Spiculated / Retracted from surrounding tissue / irregular
-size: {≥8mm}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

After the [SPN 3-step prediagnostic mgmt]

How do you workup [Solitary Pulmonary Coin Nodule]?

Round, < 3mm, no LAD

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[Solitary Pulmonary Coin Nodule] DDx -5

A
  1. CA(hamartoma/metastasis/primary)
  2. Infectious [granulomatous/fungal (blasto,histo)]
  3. Pneumoconiosis
  4. Vasculitis
  5. Scar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do you treat ANAPHYLAXIS ? -8

A

EPIC ➜ chag

[EPINEPHRINE {[IM ≤ 3x] ➜ [IVgtt if severe]}]

[Proair Albuterol + O2]

[INTUBATION ⼀early** for upper airway obstruction]

[Crystalloid IV/Trendelenburg for hypOtension]

________________

CTS / [Histamine1/2 R blockers] / [Admission to Hospital if severe|persistent]/ [Glucagon if on BBlocker]

peds epi = [0.01 mg/kg]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

epinephrine MOA-2

A

alpha1🟢 → vasoconstriction

beta2🟢 → bronchoDilation

🟢 = receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute Otitis Media

initial tx?

A

[AmoxicillinHD]10d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Recurrent AOM should raise concern for ⬜, and warrants treatment with ⬜

A

beta-Lactamase producing [Strep Pneumo or HFlu NT] ➜ resistance ; amoxicillin/clavulanic acid

normal AOM tx = [AmoxicillinHD]10d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you treat [Acute Otitis Media with PCN allergy]? -2

A

Azithromycin or Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you treat [Acute Otitis Media refractory persistent]?

A

[Tympanostomy with tympanocentesis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Out of the 3 organisms that cause Acute Otitis Media, which is unique? why?

A

HFLUnontypeable

________________

can also cause [otitis conjunctivits syndrome] in which purulent conjunctivitis occurs at same time as AOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Acute Mastoiditis is a complication of ⬜ and is caused by [ ⬜ microbe]

________________

clinical presentation? -2

A

Acute Otitis Media ; [middle ear infection(with Strep Pneumo) ] spreads to [mastoid air cells]

________________

  1. AURICLE DISPLACEMENT
  2. mastoid TTP

tx = [amoxHD]10d

other sx: otalgia, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Paradoxical Emboli are a more common cause of ⬜ in young than elderly

_________________
explain etiology of Paradoxical Emboli

A

stroke

______________

emboli from venous system (DVT) travels thru intracardiac shunt into arterial system ➜ stroke

dx = TTE and bubble study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

[Eczema Atopic Dermatitis] cp -4

________________

Where do you find this cp in infants? -3

________________

where in Adults/Kids?

A

“Eczema making you [PPPP]sx? needs LEGITtx
________________

{acute [Pink(Erythematous) Patch & Papules] →CHRONIC[ Plaqueswith LICHENIFICATION]}

[infant = face, trunk, extensor surfaces]

________________

[Adults/Kids = flexor surfaces]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

[Eczema Atopic Dermatitis] MOD (4)

A

1) [skin barrier dysfunction]
2) + [Th2 skewed immune response]
3) + INC production of IgE
4) = chronic inflammatory skin disorder

________________

This [Th2 skewed immune response] can be balanced by a [Th1 cytokine profile] built only from EARLY MICROORGANISM EXPOSURE

“Eczema making you [PPPP]sx? needs LEGITtx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

(fill-in-Blank)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

[Eczema Atopic Dermatitis] Tx -5

A

“Eczema making you [PPPP]sx? needs LEGITtx

  1. [Lifestyle ∆ (avoid hot/dry climate, harsh soaps, harsh detergents)]
  2. [EmollientsTOP(skin hydration) + antihistaminesPO]

  1. [GlucocorticoidsTOP (low potent = hydrocortisone / medium = triamcinolone / HIGH = Betamethasone) – contraindicated on face and flexural surfaces]use only in acute exacerbations
  2. [Inhibitors of CalcineurinTOP {i.e. Tacrolimus} = for face and flexural surfaces]
  3. [Therapy ⼀phototherapy vs immunosuppressants = SEVERE]

“Eczema making you [PPPP]sx? needs LEGITtx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Classic Sx of Sarcoidosis-8

A

CCuBBeDD

Cardiomyopathy Restrictive

HYPERCalcemia: elevated ACE and 1-25VitD production –> HYPERCalcemia and HYPERCalciuria

uveitis –> Vision loss

Bilateral Hilar LAD! = COMMON = CXR is 1st screening test!

Bell’s Palsy

erythema Nodosum (SubQ Fat lesions)

[Dry cough & Dyspnea]

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis

  • Image showing b/l Hilar LAD. Hepatosplenomegaly and generalized LAD also occur*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the 1st screening test for Sarcoidosis? Why?

_________________

What is the confirmatory test for Sarcoidosis? (2)

A

CXR ; [>90% of patients have Bilateral Hilar LAD]

_________________

[Lymph Node Biopsy revealing noncaseating granulomas] –(if no lymph node accessible)–> [Lung biopsy via bronchoscopy]

_________________

CCuBBeDD

Image showing b/l Hilar LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sarcoidosis Etx-2 (Etiology)

A

[CD4 Helper T] inappropriately respond to environmental triggers + Suppressed TRegs –> Non-Caseating Granulomas in Lung = [Asx vs pulmonary sarcoidosis(give 1 year CTS)] ➜

75% sarcoidosis is self-limited and non-reocurring

Image showing b/l Hilar LAD

[Sarcoidosis: sxCCuBBeDD | txSCAM ]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sarcoidosis Tx-4

A

“Sarcoidosis is a SCAM

[Steroids1y]

Cyclosporine

Azathioprine

MTX

Image showing b/l Hilar LAD

[Sarcoidosis: sxCCuBBeDD | txSCAM ]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Chronic Cough is defined as ⬜

Initial evaluation for Chronic Cough is with ⬜ – and this helps to rule out/in [Obstructive Airway Disease (asthma)]

A

idiopathic cough > 4 weeks

________________

Pulmonary Function Test Spirometry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Exposure to ⬜ is an important risk factor for Acute Otitis Media
________________
How do you reduce frequency of recurrent Acute Otitis Media -4

A

smoking
_________________

NO ❌SMOKING

NO ❌DAY CARE

NO ❌ PACIFIER

✅give breastfeeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

[Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria]

MOD

________________

tx -2

A

[(Spontaneous idiopathic)urticaria episodes] > 6 wks

________________

2nd gen[H1 R blocker]

+

[avoid NSAIDs]

[non-sedating 2nd gen H1 R Blocker] = loratadine / cetirizine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

ABPA occurs in patients with ⬜ or ⬜

_________________

clinical features of ABPA? (4)

[ABPA (Allergic BronchoPulmonary Aspergillosis)]

A

[preexisting asthma] or

[preexisting cystic fibrosis]

with

BACH

  • -[Brown sputum cough with fever]*
  • [Asthma exacerbations recurrently]
  • -[CXR fleeting infiltrates* (transient & different parts of lung)**]
  • -[HRCT central bronchiectasis]*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ABPA occurs in patients with ⬜ or ⬜

_________________

MOA?

[ABPA = (Allergic BronchoPulmonary Aspergillosis)]

A

pts with [preexisting asthma or preexisting cystic fibrosis] may develop

noninvasive colonization of of airways by Aspergillus -→ [EXAGGERATED IgG and IgE mediated response -→ BACH sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dx for [ABPA (Allergic BronchoPulmonary Aspergillosis)] -4

A
  1. initial = [skin testing for Aspergillus]
  2. [elevated total IgE]
  3. [elevated Aspergillus IgE]
  4. [elevated Aspergillus IgG]

________________

BACH = [Brown sputum cough with fever] [Asthma exacerbation recurrently] [CXR fleeting infiltrates (transient & different parts of lung)] [HRCT central bronchiectasis]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tx for [ABPA (allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis)] -2

A

[Systemic CTS + itraconazole]

________________

tx = directed at acutely stopping underlying inflammation and reducing Aspergillus burden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Patients s/p smoke inhalation have ⇪ risk for ⬜, and thus warrant low threshold for ⬜ if +signs of airway injury
_________________

For pts s/p smoke inhalation, but [stable with NO signs of airway injury] what’s the alternative initial mgmt?

airway injury = oropharyngeal blistering/hypoxia

A

progressive airway edema and obstruction ; intubation

_________________

[bedside fiberoptic laryngoscopy] to evaluate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Guidelines for Lung CA screening - 3

A

low dose annual CT if fits all 3 criteria:

  1. [55-80 yo]
  2. smoked for ≥20 pack years
  3. still smoking or quit within last 15 years
    _________________

Pack Year = [# of packs/day x # of years smoking]
ex: [4 packs/ day x 30 years smoking = 120 pack years]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what’s the cause of hypoxemia in COPD patients?

A

poor elastic recoil + bronchitis/bronchospasm/mucus plugs ➜ ⬇︎ventilation = [low V/Q ratio] = poor oxygen delivery to well perfused areas

supplemental O2 ⇪ delivery of O2 to (and ergo) ⇪ oxygen exchange in lung regions with low V/Q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

SOLC is associated with LEMS and ⬜ syndrome?
_________________

When this occurs, how is it treated?

A

SIADH

( ➜ euvolemic hypOnatremia) ​
_________________

Water Restriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Pts p/w anaphylaxis can be discharged or admitted

What determines if a pt with anaphylaxis should be admitted for observation? (2)

A

1.SEVERE (hypOtension ​| upper airway edema ​| respiratory distress)

or

2.PERSISTENT (REQD MULTIPLE EPI DOSES)

EPIC ➜ chag

these pts have ⇪ risk for potentially fatal biphasic anaphylaxis (recurrence of sx after initial resolution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

PE classification is based on the clinical presence of ⬜ and ⬜

When is a pulmonary embolism considered submassive? -2
_________________

treatment?​ (2)

A

(R& H)
[RV dysfunction = hypOkinesis vs Dilation]

[HypOtension SBP less than 90]

“MASSIVE PE diagnosis Require Haste!”

[⊕R : ⊝h = subMassive] → [(UFH anticoag) vs (catheter-thrombolysis)]tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

PE classification is based on the clinical presence of ⬜ and ⬜

When is a pulmonary embolism considered MASSIVE? -2
_________________

treatment?​ (2)

A

(R& H)
[RV dysfunction = hypOkinesis vs Dilation]

[HypOtension SBP less than 90]

“MASSIVE PE diagnosis Require Haste!”

[⊕R : ⊕H = MASSIVE] → [(Embolectomy) vs (systemic thrombolysis)]tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PE classification is based on the clinical presence of ⬜ and ⬜

When is a pulmonary embolism considered low risk? -2
_________________

treatment?

A

(R& H)
[RV dysfunction = hypOkinesis vs Dilation]

[HypOtension SBP less than 90]

“MASSIVE PE diagnosis Require Haste!”

[⊝r : ⊝h = low risk] → [(UFH anticoag)unless CTX]tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Explain why Obstructive sleep apnea is important in assessing if patient can have surgery or not?

A

OSA ⇪ risk for periOperative RESPIRATORY FAILURE if pharmacologic hypOventilation [sedation/neuromuscular blocker/opioids/anesthesia] occurs

will p/w HYPERCapnia and hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Criteria for Pulmonary HTN

A

Pulm Arterial presure ≥25(normal = 20)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pulm HTN = [≥25 Pulm Arterial Pressure ] (nl=20)

What are the causes of Pulmonary HTN?-4

What’s most common cause?

A

①{pulmARTERY (intrinsic)(Idiopathic, [Limited CREST Scleroderma], HIV, Schistosomiasis, SLE)</sup>
② ⭐{LHEART= MOST COMMON CAUSE}⭐
LUNG(Chronic Lung Dz/Hypoxemia/OSA)
pulmVEIN(CTEPE)

[(pulmonary HTN ≥25 PAP) females] should AVOID PREGNANCY!

🔎CTEPH = Chronic ThromboEmbolic Pulm HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Acute Bronchitis sx (4)

A

the bronchitis CAWS
1. [COUGH (+/- productive) 5D-3W ⼀self-limited]
_________________

  1. ALS
  2. [Wall (chest wall tenderness)]
  3. [SYSTEMIC SX ABSENT (FEVER = C/F bPNA)]

aLS = Adventious Lung Sounds (wheezing/rhonchi) / bPNA = bacterial PNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Acute Bronchitis MOD
_________________

How is Acute Bronchitis treated? (3)

A

[precedingviral URI] bronchial epithelial sloughing ➜ bronchial inflammation

➜{[COUGH (+/- productive) 5D-3W ⼀self-limited] (CAWS sx)} 2/2 lung’s attempt to clear slough debris
_________________

  1. bronchoDilators
  2. NSAIDs
  3. NO ABX
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Acute Bronchitis MOD
_________________

How is Acute Bronchitis diagnosed?​ (2)

A

[precedingviral URI] bronchial epithelial sloughing ➜ bronchial inflammation ➜ {[COUGH (+/- productive) 5D-3W ⼀self-limited] (CAWS sx)} 2/2 lung’s attempt to clear slough debris
_________________

Clinical

​(CXR if PNA suspected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What paraneoplastic syndromes is Squamous cell lung carcinoma associated with?

A

sCa++mous cell carcinoma!

⬆︎⬆︎PTHrelatedProtein –> HYPERCALCEMIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which bacteria cause Community Acquired PNA-8

A
  1. Strep Pneumo
  2. H. Flu
  3. Moraxella
  4. MRSA
  5. Mycoplasma pneumoniae-AT (ATypical)
  6. Chlamydophila pneumoniae-AT
  7. Chlamydophila Psittaci-AT
  8. Legionella-AT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which NON-bacteria cause Community Acquired PNA-3

A
  1. Flu
  2. TB
  3. Histoplasmosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Vancomycin is not typically used for empiric CAP tx

When would Vancomycin be used in CAP? (4)

A
  1. septic shock
  2. respiratory failure
  3. [MRSA imaging (multilobar PNA with cavitation)]
  4. [MRSA colonization (HD, HF, MRSA colonization hx)]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How do you determine disposition for Community Acquired PNA ?

A

CURB 65

Confusion

BUN > 20

Respiratory Rate > 30

BP < [(90) / (60)]

65 y/o +

________________

[0-1 = outpatient with f/u] | [2 = inpatient] | [3+ = ICU]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Treatment for ICU CAP (2) ​

_________________

Community acquired pneumonia

A

βF | βM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Treatment for Inpatient CAP (2) ​

_________________

Community acquired pneumonia

A

F | βM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Treatment for Outpatient CAP (4) ​

_________________

Community acquired pneumonia

A

A | D | F* | βM*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is an Auricular hematoma?
_________________

What’s the management for it? (3)​

A

blunt ear trauma → hematoma between [outer ear cartilage] and perichondrium
_________________

  1. [STAT hematoma evacuation]to avoid infection, avascular necrosis and permanent cauliflower ear deformity​]

also:
2. POabx
3. Pressure dressingto prevent re-accumulation of blood s/p evac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

PE mgmt is based on HDS vs HDUS. [PE HDUS = ⬜]

How do you workup [HDSPulmonary Embolism]?

A

PE HDUS{[(SBP< 90)x ≥15m]
or
[requires vasopressor|inotrope support]}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

PE mgmt is based on HDS vs HDUS. [PE HDUS = ⬜]

How do you workup [HDUSPulmonary Embolism]?

A

(PE) HDUS = {[(SBP< 90)x ≥15m]
or
[requires vasopressor|inotrope support]}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

HDUS patient (SBP < 90) with suspected obstructive shock 2/2 massive pulmonary embolism

How do you manage this? (2)

A

[ThrombolysisSystemic]

and/or

Embolectomy

PE workup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

pt w suspected PE → HDS →[no RV_TTE❌]→ pretest probability

describe how to determine pretest probability for suspected HDS Pulmonary Embolism? (3)

A

wells: “ Don’t Die | Tell Team To | Calculate Criteria
[HIGH ≥6]
_________________
[3-5 = INTERMEDIATE]
[ low ≤2]

wells criteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the EKG signs for Pulmonary Embolism? (3)

A

“for PE EKG use RST
1. RAD👇🖐🏾
2. [S1Q3T3]
3. [TWIin precordial V1-V6]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 3 different ways you can diagnose ANAPHYLAXIS?

A

rapid onset of…
1. [🅂 + (🆁↔🆅)any antigen]
2. [≥2 🅂 🅲 🆁 🅶{+🄽**} Likely antigen]
3. [🆅KNOWN antigen]

_________________

[🅂kin/mucosa] [🅲 ardio] [🆁 espiratory] [🅶I] [🆅ascular low BP]

these pts should be prescribed self-injectable epinephrine!

** add 🄽euro ⼀if peds

tx = EPIC ➜ chag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria

dx? (5)

A
  1. skin bx (to exclude urticarial vasculitis or mastocytosis)
  2. CBC
  3. UA
  4. [CRP or ESR]
  5. LFT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

a Chronic spontaneous urticaria patient has been given [2nd gen H1 R blocker] with no relief

What therapies can be tried next? (4)

A
  1. [1st gen H1 R blocker] at bedtime
  2. [Leukotriene R blocker (montelukast)]
  3. H2 R blocker
  4. CTS PO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Chronic Spontaneous Urticaria

prognosis?

A

self-limited to 2-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

chronic Cough is a common (and sometimes the only) symptom of ⬜ and is treated with ⬜ weeks of PPI

A

GERD; 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the MOST RELIABLE method for verifying ETT placement?

_________________

What are the less reliable methods of verifying ETT placement? (4)

A

[CO2 CAPNOGRAPHY] - (CO2 analysis) either via [waveform (quant vs rectangular) analysis] or [colorimetric litmus (purple ➜ yellow) analysis]

_________________

[bs Auscultation], [chest rise], [ETT passing thru vocal cord visualization], [ETT fogging]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

HIV+ pts have higher risk for [Active TB Infection]

Explain how CD4 count is specifically related to TB -2

_________________

A
  • ⇪ CD4 = Cavitary apical lung TB
  • ⬇︎CD4 = [Lobar/Pleural/Disseminated] TB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

clinical findings for [TB pleural effusion] (5)

commonly found in advanced HIV

A
  • ⇪ Adenosine DeAminase
  • lymphocyte predominant
  • exudative
  • negative smear
  • dx = [pleural biopsy demonstrating histopathologic pleural granuloma]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Meniere disease

clinical presentation (5)

A

[24VATH]

  • 24m - 24Hepisodes
  • Vertigo
  • Aural fullness
  • Tinnitus
  • Hearing loss uL (low freq sensorineural)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Meniere disease

etx?

A

defective inner ear endolymphatic resorption ➜ ⇪ [endolymph volume/pressure distension = endolymphatic hydrops] ➜ vestibular and auditory damage ➜ [24VATH]</subMeniere sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Meniere disease

dx? -2

A
  • comprehensive audiogram
  • MRI(to r/o other central vertigo etx)

“Meniere must”DABtx on **24*VATHsx *”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Meniere disease

Tx? (5)

A
  1. [(D)iet ∆(⬇︎Salt, ⬇︎Caffeine, ⬇︎EtOH)]
  2. RxMaintenance[HCTZ | (B)etahistine]
  3. RxACUTE[(A)ntiemetics | vestibular suppressants]

“Meniere must”DABtx on **24*VATHsx *”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

BPPV

MOD

A

Ca+ otoliths accumulated within semicircular canals –>
[brief < 1 min] episodes ([triggered by head position ∆ie Dixhall-Pike] ) of:
-Nauseous
-Dizzy(Vertigo)
-Nystagmus

BPPV gave me…Nauseous Dizzy Nystagmus”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What does pulmonary contusion look like on radiograph?

A

localized irregular lung opacification - up to 24h s/p blunt chest trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

how do you treat pulmonary contusion? (2)

A
  1. supplemental O2
  2. pain control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

patient with suspected PE, CTA CTD ➜ abnormal V/Q

How do you interpret V/Q scan? (4)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is Pulmonary Cachexia Syndrome? (2)

A
  • loss of lean muscle mass 2/2 SEVERE COPD (⇪ WOB ➜ energy imbalance ➜ wt dysregulation)
  • and (systemic inflammation ➜ ⬇︎appetite)

tx = optimize lung function and nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

In patients with impaired renal function, ⬜ is most appropriate to evaluate for acute PE. How is acute PE positively confirmed using this modality?

A

V/Q scan;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

[T or F] Fever is not a symptom of Pulmonary Embolism

A

FALSE! ⼀15% of PE has fever

(= abx not indicated if no other infectious s/s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

“Flash” pulmonary edema occurs from ⬜

▶For FLASH pulmonary edema, between Furosemidediuretic IV and [NTGvenoDilator IV )], which takes priority?

▷why?

A

[HTN Emergency > 180/120]

_________________

[NTG venoDilator IV]

◁⼀venoDilation by NTG rapidly DEC cardiac preload (which rapidly DEC intracardiac filling pressures)➜ rapid “flash” pulmonary edema improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What condition is a/w hyperacute stridor after extubation?

_________________

Explain

A

Laryngeal edema

_________________

direct mechanical damage from intubation ➜ laryngeal inflammation/edema ➜ does not symptomatically present until pt extubated and breathing on their own = PostExtubationStridor ➜ REINTUBATE TX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

a. In acute PE, What is the [most important predictor of INC PE Mortality]?
b. explain why

A

a.[HDUS severe hypOtension]
_________________
b.
▶{[HDUS severe hypOtension] ⬅︎ [RV❌] ⬅︎ [MASSIVE (Obstructive) PE = INC PE Mortality]}
▶so… [HDUS severe hypotension] is an important predictor for INC PE Mortality

INC short term PE mortality

{[SBP < 90 x ≥15m] |vasopressor💊|inotrope💊}
🔎RV❌ = RV Dilation|RV hypOkinesis
📖 {[HDUS severe hypOtension] likely indicates [RV❌] which likely 2/2 a [MASSIVE* (Obstructive) PE] which → INC PE Mortality*}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

⬜ is the MOST IMPORTANT predictor of increased short term mortality in acute PE patients

_________________

Name other predictors (7)

A

[HDUS severe hypOtension([SBP < 90 x ≥15m]|vasopressors|inotropes)

_________________

  • Age
  • AMS
  • CA
  • Tachypnea
  • Tachycardia
  • hypOthermia
  • hypOxemia severe
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe the 4 treatment options for patients with acute PE

101
Q

Describe [Exercise Induced Bronchoconstriction] (3)

_________________

MOD?

A

-{[asthma-like reaction] to exercise}
-WITH OR WITHOUT PREEXISTING ASTHMA
-in mostly athletes

_________________

[Hyperventilation shortens time for humidification] ➜ cool dry air stimulates mast cell degranulation ➜ bronchoconstriction

102
Q

EIB = asthma-“LIKE” rxn during exercise ( +/- hx of asthma)

How do you diagnose [Exercise Induced Bronchoconstriction]?

_________________

How is it treated?

A

[Exercise challenge ➜ (FEV1 ⬇︎ GOE15% from baseline)] = EIB

_________________

[bronchoDilator 10m before exercise]

103
Q

Usually, Influenza treatment consist of {⬜ +/- [O|Z]}

Which patients are eligible for [Oseltamivir|Zanamivir]? (3)

A

APAP(symptomatic care)

+/- [O|Z] if…
1. [ < 48h exposure(w/wo sx)]
2. pt presenting AT sx onset
3. {[High risk comorbidities(DM, CardioPulm❌, prior flu hospitalization) = add [PNA CXR r/o] }

104
Q

What causes Snoring?

_________________

What factors increase Snoring? (3)

A

[relaxed upper airway during sleep (habitual vs OSA)]➜ respiration induced soft tissue vibrations

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_

1. EtOH before bed
2. smoking
3. [obese BMI>35]

105
Q

For patients p/w Snoring, how can you initially screen them for OSA?

A

[STOPBang] ≥3 = ⊕OSA

106
Q

Dx Criteria for screening test of Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A

[STOPBang] ≤ 2 = not OSA

a/w mild cognitive impairment in elderly

_________________

Other causes of sleepiness: narcolepsy, restless leg, depression, drugs

107
Q

List for confirmation test for Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A

POLYSOMNOGRAPHY

≤2 = not OSA

Other causes of sleepiness: narcolepsy, restless leg, depression, drugs

108
Q

Why does INC respiratory drive in a patient receiving chronic Opioids concerning?

A

chronic opioids should ➜ DEC respiratory drive, and since Opioids blunt respiratory response … breakthrough [INC respiratory drive] in the setting of chronic Opioids likely indicates abnormal NON-opioid process (SUCH AS Pulmonary Embolism)

109
Q

The Centor Criteria is used to differentiate Patients with Acute Pharyngitis

Recite the Criteria

_________________

Explain the Interpretation

A

*old AGE: [add 1pt← (15-44) → subtract 1pt]

Group A Strep Pharyngitis (GASP) Centor Criteria
110
Q

(malignant) Mesothelioma

Sx (4)

A
  1. [PLEURAL EFFUSION
  2. with [pleuritic chest pain, cough and SOB]
  3. Night sweats
  4. Wt loss
111
Q

(malignant) Mesothelioma

How is it diagnosed? (3)

A
  1. Chest Imaging [PLEURAL CALCIFICATION and THICKENING]
    * * *
  2. [Thoracentesiswith Cytology]
  3. [Thoracotomy bxOpen vs VATS]
112
Q

(malignant) Mesothelioma

occurs typically from ⬜ but arises ⬜ after exposure.

_________________

Tx includes ⬜3 and median survival after dx is ⬜

A

[occupational asbestos(cement/tile/ships) exposure]; 15-30y

_________________

[Palliative, Surgery, Chemoradiation] ; 9-13 months

113
Q

Thoracic duct obstruction can cause ⬜. Diagnosis is supported by ⬜ lab

A

chylothorax ; [pleural fluid TAG > 110]

from milky white lymph leaking out of the thoracic duct into lung

114
Q

Chronic silicosis is an occupational lung disease that commonly affects which job professions? (4)

_________________

What would you expect on CXR? (2)

A

Miners | sandblasters | foundry workers | masons

_________________

upper lobe nodules + lower lobe emphysema

115
Q

What are the following measurement values for EXUDATIVE pleural fluid :

[Pleural:Serum Protein]

________________

[Pleural:Serum LDH]

________________

Usually caused by ⬆︎capillary or pleural membrane permeability

A

Pleural:Serum protein >0.5

________________

Pleural:Serum LDH >0.6

116
Q

What are the following measurement values for transudative pleural fluid :

[Pleural:Serum Protein]

________________

[Pleural:Serum LDH]

________________

A

Pleural:Serum protein ≤0.5

________________

Pleural:Serum LDH ≤0.6

117
Q

What are the following measurement values for EXUDATIVE pleural fluid :

pH

________________

Glucose

________________

Usually caused by ⬆︎capillary or pleural membrane permeability

A

pH<2

________________

Glucose<60

118
Q

What are the following measurement values for transudative pleural fluid :

pH

________________

Glucose

________________

A

pH = 7.4 - 7.55

________________

Glucose > 60

119
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion -2

A

hypOalbumin (Cirrhosis / nephrOtic syndrome)

CHF

120
Q

Causes of EXUDATIVE pleural effusion -3

A

[INFECTION (TB / FUNGAL)]

CA

PE

121
Q

[Pleural Fluid LDH] that is > [2/3 Upper Limit of Normal Serum LDH] is

(⬜ transudate | EXUDATE)

122
Q

[Pleural Fluid LDH] that is ≤ [2/3 Upper Limit of Normal Serum LDH] is

(⬜ transudate | EXUDATE)

A

transudate

123
Q

Explain MOD for CHF pts experiencing pulmonary edema after a MI

A

[precipitating factor(HTN* = “flash pulmonary edema”* , MI, arrhythmia, valve dysfxn) ] causes abrupt INC in [L atrial pressure (Pulmonary Capillary Wedge Pressure)]

➜ INC transmitted back pressure to the pulmonary venous system = pulmonary edema

124
Q

CHF Exacerbation

treatment? (3)

A

🆂🅿︎🅸

1.🆂table?([Respiratory❌→ NIPPV,O2] , [Cardiac shock → inotropes])
_________________
2.🅿︎[**P.O.N.D. PRELOAD REDUCTION][➜ DEC PCWP** (+/- DEC afterload)] = PPV&Position, O2, NTG, Diuretics]
_________________
3.🅸nvestigate cause(EKG, troponin, echo, CXR, BNP)

SPI CHF-E tx
125
Q

Pulm HTN = [≥25 Pulm Arterial Pressure ] (nl=20)

How is a female patient with new dx Pulmonary HTN related to pregnancy?

A

females with pulmonary HTN carry extremely high pregnancy mortality risk = [pulmonary HTN females] should AVOID PREGNANCY!

126
Q

Pulm HTN = [≥25 Pulm Arterial Pressure ] (nl=20)

There are ⬜# causal groups for Pulmonary HTN

Briefly List general mgmt all Pulm HTN pts should receive? (6)

A

4
_________________
🎯REFER TO ACCREDITED PH CENTER
🎯Stabilize
🎯[Contraception⚠️Pulmonary HTN females on Pulm HTN meds should AVOID PREGNANCY!]
🎯Immunization
🎯 ❤️Rehab
🎯BL lung transplantif Refractrory PH

127
Q

[hot potato muffled voice] is one of the features of PTA (and other dz) caused by ⬜

_________________

What are the other clinical features of Peritonsillar abscess? (5)

A

[(PTA/epiglottitis/RTA/mass)]DEC space in POST pharynx ➜
1.⭐{DEC voice resonance = [hot potato muffled voice]⭐

PTA=bacterial infxn between tonsil and pharyngeal muscles

2.[PTATRISMUS⊕]
3.[CTL uvea deviation uvula deviates OPPOSITE the lesion]
4.Sore throat w/dysphagia
5.Fever
6.saliva pooling
_________________

[trismus(inflammatory spasm of nearby pterygoid m)] differentiates [PTA(TRISMUS⊕)] from [tonsillitis(trismus⊝)]

128
Q

Tx of Peritonsillar Abscess (2)

A

[Drain AbscessNeedle aspiration > I&D ]
+
[AbxGASP + Respiratory AnAerobes]

PTA=bacterial infxn in space between tonsil and pharyngeal muscles

✏️[trismus(inflammatory spasm of nearby pterygoid m)] differentiates [PTA(TRISMUS⊕)] from [tonsillitis(trismus⊝)]

129
Q

Trismus is defined as ⬜

How is it related to Peritonsillar Abscess and Tonsillitis?

A

inflammatory spasm of pterygoid muscles ➜ inability to open mouth = SURGICAL INTERVENTION if PTA

_________________

[trismus differentiates [PTA(TRISMUS⊕/surgical intervention)] from [tonsillitis(trismus⊝)]

PTA=bacterial infxn in space between tonsil and pharyngeal muscles
130
Q

A pt with throat pain also begins having ear pain. why?

A

referred ear pain occurs with multiple throat pathologies 2/2 overlapping innervations from the afferent[glossopharyngeal CN9] and afferent[Vagus CN10] –both traveling into ear

131
Q

Smoking Cessation tx = CBT + Rx

List and Briefly describe the 4 [Rx pharmacologic] options for smoking cessation?

_________________

Although ⬜ is the MOST effective, which of these treatments are better together than alone?

A

_________________

VARENICLINE ; [LANRT + SANRT (combined NRT is better!]

132
Q

benign [Solitary Pulmonary coin nodules] have what type of radiographic Calcification? (4)

A

[Hamartoma POPCORN calcification]

concentric

central

[diffuse homogenous]

[Hamartoma POPcorn calcification]
133
Q

MALIGNANT [Solitary Pulmonary coin nodules] have what type of radiographic Calcification? (3)

A

RIP

RETICULAR

[IRREGULAR = ECCENtRIC, asymmetrical]

PUNCTATE

134
Q

[Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency] __(MOD)_ is a potential cause of ⬜

A

[α1aT inhibits neutrophil elastase from breaking down lung tissue
. so
⬇︎α1aT → ⇪ neutrophil elastase lung tissue breakdown which → emphysema)]
_________________
; emphysema

135
Q

What is Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis?

A

[inhaled antigen(poultry/mold/meth?)] overactivates Pulmonary immune system → Dyspnea & Cough

136
Q

“Double Sickening” is a a common clinical sign of ⬜ by ⬜3.

Explain (2)

A

[ABRS (Acute Bacterial RhinoSinusitis)]; [SMH (Strep pneumo/Moraxella catarrhalis/HFlu)] ;

  • Double Sickening Effect= { [viral URI] → [initial improvement]≥5d[sudden clinical deterioration (SMHH sx)* * from ABRS] }
  • Tx = {[Amox/clav PO]7d + [intranasal saline irrigation] + analgesics}
137
Q

etx for [ABRS 2/2 viral URI]

_________________

ABRS: Acute Bacterial RhinoSinusitis

A

[Viruses (rhino/flu/adenovirus)] are most common to infect nasal/sinus mucosa = [(ARS) Acute rhinosinusitis] (resolves within 10d)

BUT…10% people develop secondary bacterial infection in which

[SMHbacteriaSMHHsx = ABRS] ⼀this is Double Sickening effect

(Strep pneumo/Moraxella catarrhalis/HFlu)

[Snotty purulent nasal discharge/Maxillary facial pain/HA/Hot>39C] ≥3d = ABRS

138
Q

Diagnostic criteria for [(ABRS) Acute Bacterial RhinoSinusitis] -3

A

any 1 of the following:

  1. mild[smhhsx ]≥10d(persistent)
  2. SEVERE[SMHHsx]≥3d
  3. Double Sickening effect

ABRS = [(Strep pneumo/Moraxella_catarrhalis/HFlu)SMHHsx ]
_________________

SMHHsx = [Snotty purulent nasal discharge/Maxillary facial pain/HA/Hot>39C]

139
Q

Tx for [(ABRS) Acute Bacterial RhinoSinusitis] -3

What are 2 alternative abx if [1st line abx] is unavailable?

A

{[Amox/clav PO]7d+ [intranasal irrigation] + analgesics}

  • alt: Doxy or Fluoroquinolones*
    • *

[Snotty purulent nasal discharge/Maxillary facial pain/HA/High Fever>39C]

140
Q

▶ Pts with [mild rhinosinusitis sx] less than ___ days likely have viral ARS and should receive symptomatic treatment only

_________________

▶ when should you suspect Acute Bacterial RhinoSinusitis? (3)

ARS: Acute RhinoSinusitis

A

▶10 (viral ARS resolves by 10 days)

_________________

any of below:

  1. mild[smhhsx ]≥10d(persistent)
  2. SEVERE[SMHHsx]≥3d
  3. Double Sickening effect
141
Q

Varenicline MOA (2)

_________________

There are 4 stages for [smoking cessation (NRSQ)]

At what stage of smoking cessation is Varenicline indicated? and why?

A
  1. [Nicotine R BLOCKER]= ⬇︎ cigarette gratification

PLUS

  1. [Nicotine R agonist]= prevents nicotine withdrawal sx
    * * *

1S[Not readyto quit]

( in [“future quitters” ⼀patients unable to give quit date now BUT interested in cutting down in undetermined future]…Varenicline DOUBLES probability of smoking cessation!

= prescribe [Varenicline12w trial] to “future quitters” as part of reduce-to-quit strategy)

142
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

Describe the 3 interventions employed for smoking cessation stage

1 _____?

A

1[Not readyto quit] → 2[Readyto quit] → 3[Strugglingto quit]→ 4QUIT

1[Not readyto quit]

1.MIV: Motivational Interviewing (reswo)
2.Repeat screening every visit
3.1º🚭Rx[Varenicline12w trial]

🚭= smoking cessation

143
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

Describe the 4 interventions employed for smoking cessation stage

2 _____?

A

NRSQ

1[Not readyto quit] → 2[Readyto quit] → 3[Strugglingto quit]→ 4QUIT

2[Readyto quit]

  1. 2º🚭Rx[Vareniclineprescribe stage 1-N /NRT/Bupropion]x 12w trial
  2. [SET FIRM QUIT DATE]
  3. [DISARD PARAPHERNALIA]
  4. Behavioral counseling

NRT=Nicotine Replacement Therapy

144
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

Describe the 3 interventions employed for smoking cessation stage

3 _____?

A

NRSQ

1[Not readyto quit] → 2[Readyto quit] → 3[Strugglingto quit]→ 4QUIT

3[Strugglingto quit]

  1. [Reinforce partial achievement]
  2. [Identify & link struggling triggers to other activities]
  3. Biofeedback loops(exhaled CO monitoring, mobile app gamification)
145
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

Describe the 4 interventions employed for smoking cessation stage

4 _____?

A

NRSQ

1[Not readyto quit] → 2[Readyto quit] → 3[Strugglingto quit]→ 4QUIT

4QUIT
1.Congratulate
2.Continue support
3.Continue 🚭Rx x 12w
4.[encourage reflection“how has your life changed?”]

146
Q

[Motivational interviewing (MIV)] guides “quitting addictions or habit”.

Describe the 4 rungs of MIV

A

{stage 1N[re s w o]MIV}

_________________

roadblocksto quitting the a/h

rewardsto quitting the a/h

risksto quitting the a/h

relevant⼀Based on how an addiction/habit is affecting pt’s life rn⼀does pt consider quitting that a/h a relevant interest at this time? [Y → next rung | N → inquire why not]

_________________

climb 4 rungs of MIV up and out of of addiction”

147
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

In which [smoking cessation stage] is___X___ employed?
a. [MIV (Motivational Interview)]
* * *
b. [Biofeedback loops (i.e. ⬜2)]
* * *
c. [Nicotine Replacement Therapy or bupropion]

A

NRSQto quit

a. 1[Not readytq]
* * *
b. (i.e. exhaled CO monitoring, mobile app gamification) = 3[Strugglingtq]
* * *
c. 2[Readytq]

148
Q

The 4 [smoking cessation stages] are ⬜

In which [smoking cessation stage] is___X___ employed?

[Setting a firm Quit Date & Discarding Smoking Paraphernalia]

A

2[Readytq]

NRSQto quit

149
Q

clinical features of [Cough Variant Asthma] (6)

A
  1. [chronic nonproductive cough]
  2. triggered by forced expiration, nighttime, exercise, allergens
  3. NO classic asthma [sx(wheeezing/SOB)]
  4. NO classic asthma [pex(rhonchi)]
  5. Dx: ⊕methacholine challenge (inducible airway obstruction)
  6. Tx: same as Asthma
150
Q

Sudden SensoriNeural Hearing Loss

a. SSNHL presents as ⬜, and once diagnosed requires what course of management? (2)
b. How would you expect Rinne and Weber to result for Sensorineural Hearing loss?

A

a. Sudden Hearing loss with [normal H & P]:
-[URGENT ENT CONSULT( [+/- MidEar CTS_high dose] within 24H) ] (for audiogram, MRI)

b = RaaWu SNHL

  • nml hx (no recent trauma, no recent pain)
  • nml ear exam
  • nml neuro exam (aside from SSNHL)
151
Q

a. [normal Rinne = ⬜] and [normal Weber = ⬜]
_________________
b. How would you expect Rinne and Weber to result for Conductive Hearing loss?

A

normalRaaWM
_________________
cdlrbwa

152
Q

a. [normal Rinne = ⬜] and [normal Weber = ⬜]
_________________
b. How would you expect Rinne and Weber to result for Sensorineural Hearing loss?

A

normalRaaWM
_________________
SSLRaaWU

153
Q

a. [normal Rinne = ⬜] and [normal Weber = ⬜]
_________________
b. How would you expect Rinne and Weber to result for mixed hearing loss?

A

normalRaaWM
_________________
mXLRbWu

154
Q

name the 4 groups (with examples) of asthma triggers

A

[Viral URI] > [House dust mites] > {[Animal dander] = [Aspergillus mold]}

155
Q

Inhaled allergens are the most common group of asthma triggers

Of the Inhaled allergens group, ⬜ is the overall most common asthma trigger; with ⬜ and ⬜ following after.

A

[House dust mites]60-90% of cases > [Animal dander] = [Aspergillus mold]

⚠️note: [Viral URI] is the most common trigger of asthma exacerbation

156
Q

Inhaled allergens are the most common group of asthma triggers

Explain why [House Dust Mite] control is an important adjunctive tx for persistent asthma

A

60-90% asthma exacerbation are related to HDM (microscopic translucent critters that infest woven material like bedsheets/carpets) leave immunogenic fecal particles→ allergic inflammation = Mite control DEC exacerbations & improves lung fxn

_________________

[House dust mites]60-90% of cases > pet dander = [Aspergillus mold]

[Viral URI] > [House dust mites] > {[Animal dander] = [Aspergillus mold]}

157
Q

[SVC syndrome] must be suspected in any high risk CA pt who presents with what 4 things?

The best diagnostic test for [SVC syndrome] is ⬜

A
  1. [⭐BILATERAL⭐ facial/neck edema(uL = brachiocephalic vein obstruction)]
  2. subQ venous dilationcervical, UE
  3. dyspnea
  4. coughpersistent

_________________

[contrast CTNeck / Chest]

_________________

Superior Vena Cava syndrome is likely 2/2 bronchogenic carcinoma

✏️Both SVC and brachiocephalic vein obstruction → facial/neck edema but [SVC is BL] and [brachiocephalic = uL]

158
Q

⬜ should be considered in the ddx for HD patients with sudden dyspnea and flushing shortly after starting HD and receiving iron infusions (or other meds) during HD

A

Anaphylaxis1A

GIVE [EPIC ➜ chag]!

[ironIV] is a known allergen, and is commonly used for treating anemia in HD pts.

159
Q

⬜ is the most common trigger of asthma exacerbation. What is the clinical definition of asthma exacerbation? (2)

A

viral URI

_________________

INC asthma sx (cough, SOB, wheezing)

+

DEC peak expiratory flow rate >20%

160
Q

a. treatment for [mild resistant(unresponsive to initial bronchoDilator) asthma exacerbation] in an outpatient setting
b. Why this treatment? (2)

A

a. [Prednisone40-60mg PO QD x 7d] (CTS short course)
b. [INC long term control] / [DEC future hospitalization]

161
Q

Pts with smoker hx p/w non-resolving PNA should make you s/f ⬜. If so, obtaining ⬜-2 is 1st step for this diagnosis. Why?

A

[endobronchial malignancy (since obstructive endobronchial malignancy would prevent complete PNA drainage/resolution → nonresolving PNA)];

[CT chest → bronchoscopy]

→ will help diagnose & workup malignancy as well as diagnose other causes of nonresolving PNA (abscess/empyema)

162
Q

bronchiectasis is characterized by ⬜ and ⬜

b. MOD for [focal bronchiectasis]
c. how do you diagnose and treat [focal bronchiectasis]?

A

[permanent airway dilation] and [daily copious mucus production]

b. Focal bronchiectasis (involvement of single lobe/segment only) indicates airway blockage (malignancy/foreign body) ⼀mucus becomes trapped behind obstruction → [bacterial overgrowth (i.e.post-obstructive PNA)] → inflammatory bronchial wall damage → focal permanent airway dilation.
c. bronchoscopy (allows for diagnostic and therapeutic removal of obstructing lesion {since note: initial CT may not reveal obstructing lesion})

general bronchiectasis dx = [airway dilation on High Res CT]

163
Q

Clinical features of Bronchiectasis (3)

A

1.{impaired airway clearance → [chronic copious (+/- blood tinged)mucus production]}
2. → {[acute recurrent lung infections +/- frank hemoptysis2/2 airway destruction]}
3. → {[permanent airway dilationon HRCT = dx]2/2 continued airway destruction}

164
Q

Major causes of Bronchiectasis (5)

A
  1. airway obstruction (focal)
  2. Mucostasis (CF, ABPA, Kartagener)
  3. Immune (Sjogren syndrome, immunodeficiency)
  4. Infection (TB, ABPA)
  5. Toxic inhalation
165
Q

Bronchiectasis dx (3)

A

-[HRCT chest(airway Dilation)] = needed for dx

-[PFT(Obstructive pattern)]

-[Investigate etx(cx, Ig levels)]

166
Q

Bronchiectasis

tx (3)

A
  • [Airway clearancechest physiotherapy , mucolytics]
  • [Abxtreats overgrowth & exacerbations]
  • [Address underlying etx]
167
Q

(⬜ dx?) is typically caused by ⬜

Pts with risk factors should undergo ⬜ and make Modifications to their ⬜-2 to prevent recurrence

A

Lung Abscess; [aspiration of anaerobic bacteria]

________________

[speech/swallow evaluation] ;

Diet (thickened liquids) and/or Positioning (chin tuck)

168
Q

Describe the Chest CT

What’s the dx?

A

Lung [AIR FLUID LEVEL] amid pulmonary consolidation = LUNG ABSCESS

these pts also have sour tasting sputum

169
Q

Anaphylaxis is difficult to diagnose in peds

describe the criteria

________________

Tx for peds Anaphylaxis -8

A

after allergen exposure, pt has acute allergic sx in ≥2 systems
[≥2 🅂 🅲 🆁 🅶{🄽**} Likely antigen]

________________
EPIC ➜ chag but
[Epinephrine 0.1 mg/kg IM]

** peds only

  • [Skin/Neurologic/Respiratory/CV/GI]*
170
Q

tx for [Necrotizing Malignant Otitis Externa] -4

NMOE

A

mild = topical acetic acid

moderate = topical cipro

[SEVERE (canal 100% occluded) = wick placement adjunct]

________________

INVASIVE! = CIPRO IV

7 day treatment

[NMOE = ⊕FEVER] vs [BOE= ⊝fever]

171
Q

management of Acute Mastoiditis -2

A

[middle ear drainage (via mastoidectomy or {tympanostomy +/- ear tube placement})]

+

IV Abx

172
Q

BPPV

CP-3

(Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo)

A

BPPV gave me…Nauseating DixHallpike Nystagmus”*

Ca+ otoliths accumulated within semicircular canals –>
[brief < 1 min] episodes ([triggered by head position ∆ie Dixhall-Pike] ) of:
-Nauseating
-Dixpike-dizzy(Vertigo)
-Nystagmus

173
Q

After receiving anesthesia, pt develops hypOtension, elevated peak pressures and DEC end tidal CO2. This is concerning for ⬜

how should you work this up? Tx?

A

ddx: Anaphylaxis (to rocuronium/abx/skin antisepsis products/blood);
dx: PHYSICAL EXAM (look for cutaneous rash/flushing!)
tx: Epinephrine

174
Q

[PSPST (Pancoast SUP Pulmonary Sulcus Tumor)]

has 4 main clinical symptoms

________________

⬜ is the most common PSPST sx

> ⬜ and ⬜

which are > [⬜ (only present in 25% PSPST pts)]

A
  1. R SHOULDER PAIN
    _________________
Tx = CTS + Radiation + Surgery

2.[PAM Horner Syndrome(2/2 sympathetic chain/stellate ganglion invasion)]

3.[Hand atrophy/weakness(2/2 C8-T2 spinal cord invasion)]
_________________
4.[asymmetric LE HYPERreflexia(2/2 spinal cord compression)]= only 25% of PSPST pts

175
Q

In Smokers, ⬜ may be first sign of Bronchogenic Carcinoma

Why is this?

A

[persistent Recurrent PNA]

________________

{[Bronchogenic Carcinomaolder|smokers] or [Carcinoid tumoryoung | NONsmoker</sup]}[FOCAL Endobronchial Obstruction]
= [FOCAL endobronchial obstruction] ➜ ⬇︎clearance and eventually causes stasis of airway secretions

➜ [persistent Recurrent PNA (despite previous tx success)]

🔬Gold Standard dx = FLEX BRONCHOSCOPY

176
Q

how do you diagnose Bronchogenic Carcinoma (or any endobronchial obstructing lesion) ?
_________________
Name an alternative

A

[CONFIRMATORY FLEXIBLE BRONCHOSCOPY]

________or_________

[alternative nonConfirmatory HRCT]

_______________

HRCT: High Res CT

177
Q

Although RARE, Recurrent Pulmonary Embolism can (rarely) present as nonresolving [PE-related⬜] ;

but this condition will have what distinguishing symptom from its sister condition [NONPE-related⬜] ?

A

PE-related[persistent Recurrent PNA]

; *PE-PNA → *[pleuritic cp with hypoxia]

PE causes Pleurisy

*PE-PNA → *[pleuritic cp with hypoxia]
NON*PE (or regular) PNA *has no [pleuritic cp with hypoxia]

178
Q

[Bacterial otitis externa] and [Necrotizing malignant otitis externa] both present with ⬜ and ⬜ from ⬜

________________

how do you differentiate the two?

A

[pain with ear manipulation] and [purulent ear drainage] ; pseudomonas

________________

NMOE = FEVER+[involves neighboring skull bone] + [only in elderly|DM|immunocompro]

vs

BOE = NO fever

179
Q

cp for [Suppurative Bacterial Otitis Media] (4)

A

[fever + cranky]
➜ [purulent ear drainage w resolution of cranky]

and [NO pinna manipulation pain]

180
Q

[Suppurative Bacterial Otitis Media] etx

A

GASP (from nasopharynx) infects middle ear ➜ TM pressure/bulging –(if untreated)–> TM perforation ➜ nonpainful otorrhea purulent ear drainage with [NO pinna manipulation pain] = SBOM

________________

*[fever + cranky(from GASP nasopharyngeal infxn)] ➜ [ nonpainful suppurative (purulent) ear drainage with resolution of cranky]

nonpainful = [NO pinna manipulation pain]*

181
Q

[Serous Otitis Media with effusion] etx

A

sOME = asymptomatic middle ear effusion in the absence of infection /inflammation

________________

SBOM (➜sOME)

182
Q

postop

CXR shows [linear opacifications in the b/l lung bases]

dx?

A

Atelectasis

183
Q

Postoperative atelectasis is common ⬜ days after operation

________________

how is this managed? -2

A

2-5

________________

+respiratory secretions = [Chest Physiotherapy + suctioning]

NO respiratory secretions = CPAP

184
Q

Name the 6 major causes of Postoperative Hypoxemia

185
Q

Name 5 distinguishing features for differentiating [NonAllergic rhinitis] from [Allergic Rhinitis]

________________

Tx for NAR? -3

A

_N_AR :
1. [No Kids (= cp> 20 yo)]
2. [No ocular sx (= Nasal sx with NO ocular sx - blockage/rhinorrhea/postnasal drip)]
3. [No identifiable allergen]
4. [No identifiable season / perennial (year long) sx]
5. [No blue Nasal mucosa (= NAR = erythematous Nasal mucosa)]

________________

[Intranasal Fluticasone] or [Intranasal Azelastine (antihistamine)] –(prn) –> BOTH

186
Q

Pediatric patient comes in with c/f PNA

What are the 4 classic symptoms of PNA?

________________

How do you work up pediatric PNA ?

A

PNA? FACT

Fever / Adventitious lung sounds / Cough / Tachypnea

________________

187
Q

Which 2 abx are used for pediatric [Community Acquired PNA]?

A

{amoxicillin([LOE4 yo] or [focal lung sounds])}

vs

{AZithromycin([ GOE5 yo] or [BL lung sounds i\well appearing])}

________________

PNA? FACTsx

188
Q

Postoperative pulmonary complications occur most in pts undergoing ⬜ or ⬜ surgery.

What 4 factors make this Risk Greatest? How do you mitigate these?

A

thoracic; upper abd
_________________
COPD / smoker / CHF / OSA

SURGERY IS DELAYED until these pulm/cardiac conditions are treated and optimized

189
Q

BPPV p/w ⬜ and is treated with ⬜
_________________

How do you diagnose BPPV?

BPPV= Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

A

[brief < 1 min] episodes ([triggered by head position ∆ie Dixhall-Pike] ) of:
-Nauseous
-Dizzy(Vertigo)
-Nystagmus

; [Epleycanalith repositioning procedure]
_________________
dx: [Dix-Hallpikecanalith diagnositc procedure]

BPPV gave me…Nauseous Dizzy Nystagmus”

190
Q

Both Meniere disease and [Middle ear effusion 2/2 nasopharyngeal mass] have aural fullness and hearing loss

How do you differentiate them?

A

{Meniere disease (24VATH]<sub sx</sub>)}

= effusion is in the labrinyth and not observed on physical exam
________vs_________

MEE = effusion(persistent, uL, middle ear) IS observed on physical exam,
etx possibly 2/2 nasopharyngeal carcinoma mass obstructing eustachian tube orifice. requires fiberoptic nasal endoscopy

“Meniere must”DABtx on **24*VATHsx *”
🔎24VATH = [24m-24H] Vertigo, Aural fullness, Tinnitus, Hearing loss uL

191
Q

Biostatistically, what are the major benefits of smoking cessation? (2)

A

{AT ANY AGE ⼀ [within 5 years of Smoking cessation]}
pt will have ⬇︎ risk of:
1. [all-cause mortality]
2. [CV events]

192
Q

Although tx for OSA in adults is ⬜ , what’s the first line tx for OSA in children?
_________________

OSA = Obstructive Sleep Apnea

A

CPAP ;

[Tonsillectomy with Adenoidectomy] = 1st line for peds

193
Q

Anaphylaxis is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

1A

[IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity] rxn

194
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

2C

Autoantibodies directed against the host cells

195
Q

Contact Dermatitis is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

4D

[Delayed hypersensitive T-cell mediated] rxn

196
Q

Serum Sickness is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

3i

(Free antigen binds to IgG → binds Complement = [FIC Immune Complex] ➜ embeds in membranes where it cont activating more Complement → tissue damage(fever, polyarthritis, dermatitis)

197
Q

pts with [persistent Recurrent single lobe PNA(despite previous tx successes) ] raises suspicion for ⬜ as the cause

A

[FOCAL Endobronchial Obstruction]

✏️2/2 {[Bronchogenic Carcinoma*older|smokers*(+/- focal bronchiectasis)]
or
[Carcinoid tumor*young | NONsmoker*]
(+/- focal bronchiectasis)}
✏️GOLD STANDARD DX = FLEX BRONCHOSCOPY

198
Q

In PostOp Hypoxemia, how do you tell the difference between Atelectasis and Residual Anesthetic Effect?

A

Atelectasis = POD 2-5

[Residual Anesthetic Effect] (DEC central resp drive)can occur immediately

199
Q

Allergic Rhinitis Sx -4

A
  1. 👃[Rhinitis with pale/blue nasal mucosa]
  2. 👁️ [ Itchy / watery/periorbital edema ]
  3. Young onset < 20 year old
  4. Associated with other allergy DO (asthma, eczema, allergy season)

Rhinitis = Cough 2/2 postnasal drip , watery rhinorrhea, congestion, sneezing, [🤧allergic pale/blue nasal mucosa] vs [NAR🐽erythematous nasal mucosa])

[🤧= Allergic Rhinitis only] / [🐽= NONAllergic Rhinitis only]

200
Q

ALLERGIC RHINITIS
________________

TREATMENT -3

A

1st: ALLERGEN AVOIDANCE
–(prn)-➜
{[Intranasal fluticasone] + [PO antihistamine]}

201
Q

What are the ONLY contraindications for the MMR vaccine? -4

A

”(❌-M-M-R) to (P-A-I-d)
1. Pregnancy
2. [AGPN(Anaphyalxis to Prior MMR|Neomycin|Gelatin)]
3. [ImmunodeficiencySEVERE]
⛔ 4.[do NOT give APAP px for pts with pre-existing fever. They don’t need it.]

202
Q

MOD Type 1 Hypersensitivity Reaction? (2)

A

ACID
1A. [(AAAA)⼀free Ag] rapidly crosslinks [preformed IgE bound to hypersensitive basophil & mast cells ]➜ [hyperacute histamine-mediated vasodilation/bronchoconstriction/edema]
+
1B. [Arachidonic Acid] conversion ➜ Leukotrienes = +/- 6H delayed response also

AAAA= Allergy/Asthma/Atopy/Anaphylaxis

203
Q

MOD for Type 2 Hypersensitivity Reaction?

A

ACID

[{Cytotoxic IgG or IgM} bind to [fixed antigen on enemy Cell] ➜ [enemy Cell undergoes destructive “D.I.P.(Dysfunction|Inflammation|Phagocytosis) ✏️]

✏️
Cytotoxic = ➜ [enemy Cell undergoes destructive “D.I.P.”] via:
3. [enemy Cell (D)ysfunction ⬅︎ {ec⼀AbFc}]
4. [enemy Cell (I)nflammation ⬅︎ {ec⼀AbFc⼀Complement}]
5. [enemy Cell (P)hagocytosis from opsonization ⬅︎ {ec⼀AbFc⼀Complement}]

204
Q

MOD for Type 3 Hypersensitivity Reaction?

A

ACID

[Immune complex fiC] = {(Free Ag +IgG) together binds/activates Complement}] all 3 = [Immune complex fiC] ➜ neutrophils release lysosomal enzymes

205
Q

MOD for Type 4 Hypersensitivity Reaction?

A

ACID

[Delayed T cell rxn] involving [(hyper)sensitized T-cells that (WITH NO ANTIBODY INVOLVEMENT)] secrete [macrophage-activating cytokines] when encountering certain antigens ➜ macrophage phagocytosis

206
Q

Define Presbycusis

A

gradual [high frequency sensorineural hearing loss]

ex.⬇︎ ability to discriminate (make out) speech in a noisy environment

207
Q

What kind of hearing loss does Presbycusis cause?

A

gradual [high frequency sensorineural hearing loss]

ex.⬇︎ ability to discriminate (make out) speech in a noisy environment

208
Q

How does [High Frequency Loss from Presbycusis] affect hearing?

A

DECREASES ability to discriminate (make out) speech in a noisy environment

209
Q

Which pharmacologic agents cause asthma exacerbation? (4)

A
  1. ASA
  2. NSAIDs
  3. [generalBeta Blockers]
  4. [tartrazine(coloring agents)]
210
Q

How do ASA and NSAIDs exacerbate asthma?

A

inhibition of COX1 and COX2 shunts Arachidonic Acid down the [(LipOxygenase → Leukotriene) pathway] –<sup></sup>>🔥Leukotrienes{[🔥LT: C4/D4/E4]→ bronchoconstriction} = [🔥LTB4 → chemotaxis of neutrophils] = asthma exacerbation

🔥=PROinflammatory

211
Q

fill-in-Blank (19)

A

NSAIDs and ASA inhibition of COX1 and COX2 shunts Arachidonic Acid down Leukotriene pathway –> INC Bronchial tone ➜ worsens asthma

212
Q

acute asthma exacerbation ABG shows (⬜ low/high) paCO2

213
Q

status asthmaticus ABG shows (⬜ low/high) paCO2

214
Q

the [5 step Asthma plan] is based on both {[SABA] and []}

Recite the [5 step Asthma plan]
⼀based on [SABA]

[SABA] use

A

[NightAwakenings]

5 step asthma plan

“Treating Asthma is SILIO!”

Tx for Asthma Step__:
① [SABA prn]
② [ICSLd]
③ [LABA vs LAA vs Leukotriene🟥]
④ [ICSHIGH DOSE]
5⃣[Oral CTSLd +/- Anti-IgE]

215
Q

the [5 step Asthma plan] is based on both {[] and [N.A.]}

Recite the [5 step Asthma plan]
⼀based on [NightAwakenings]

🔎N.A. = NightAwakenings

A

[SABA]use

5 step asthma plan

“Treating Asthma is SILIO!”

Tx for Asthma Step__:
① [SABA prn]
② [ICSLd]
③ [LABA vs LAA vs Leukotriene🟥]
④ [ICSHIGH DOSE]
5⃣[Oral CTSLd +/- Anti-IgE]

216
Q

Name the 5 ways you can diagnose Asthma?

A

Either
[BD ➜ ⇪ GOE 12E| 12V| 200C]
OR
[Methacholine ➜ ⬇︎GOE 20E| 20V]
_________________
1. BD ➜⇪ GOE [12% FEV1]
2. BD ➜⇪ GOE [12% FVC]
3. BD ➜⇪ GOE [200 CC FVC]
4. Methacholine ➜⬇︎GOE [20% FEV1]= bH
5. Methacholine ➜⬇︎GOE [20% FVC]= bH

🔎
[🔎BD = BronchoDilator]
[🔎E = FEV1]
[🔎V = FVC]
[🔎C = CC of FVC]
[🔎bH = bronchial Hyperresponsiveness]

217
Q

asthma exacerbation MOA

A

Excess TH2 cells (recruited by hypersensitive APC to inhaled allergens) secrete IL4
–>IL4 activates [B-lymphocyte class switching for IgE Ab]
–> IgE binds to Mast cells which will then secrete IL5
–>IL5 Recruits Eosinophils–>which release mediators like [Leukotrienes & Histamine]
→[bronchoconstriction + inflammation]

218
Q

radiographic finding associated with Asbestos? -2

A
  1. calcified pleural plaques
  2. honeycomb lung (eventually)
calcified pleural plaques

MOA: lung macrophages phagocytose [mineral silicate fibers] ➜ release lysosomal enzymes ➜ [ILD fibrosis] ➜ progressive dyspnea/cough ➜ {[+/- bronchogenic carcinoma] > mesothelioma}

219
Q

Asbestos MOA (6)

A

lung macrophages phagocytose

[mineral silicate fibers] ➜ release lysosomal enzymes ➜ [ILD fibrosis] ➜ progressive dyspnea/cough ➜ {[+/- bronchogenic carcinoma] \> mesothelioma}

220
Q

Asbestos Tx

221
Q

complications of Asbestos exposure? -3

A
  1. [ILD fibrosis]
  2. Bronchogenic Carcinoma (INC risk with smoking)
  3. Mesothelioma

MOA: lung macrophages phagocytose [mineral silicate fibers] ➜ release lysosomal enzymes ➜ [ILD fibrosis] ➜ progressive dyspnea/cough ➜ {[+/- bronchogenic carcinoma] > mesothelioma}

222
Q

Which additional vaccines do COPD patients need? -2

A

MUST ADD…
1. Pneumococcal Q5 year
2. influenza Q1 year

223
Q

How does cigarette smoking cause Emphysema -5

A

ACAMP→ emphysema

  1. ciliary mvmt abnormalities
  2. [mucus-secreting gland] hyperplasia
  3. alveolar macrophage inhibition
  4. Proteolytic enzyme release from neutrophils
  5. AntiProteolytic enzyme inhibition

emphysrema MOD = alveolar septae destruction ➜ irreversible dilatation of distal air space + loss of airway elastic recoil (AKA radial traction) ➜ airway collapse during forced expiration) ➜ prolonged expiratory phase + [INC residual volume/air trapping] + [INC WOB] ➜ [dead space physiology(more air ventilated than can be perfused)]

224
Q

MOD emphysema

A

alveolar septae destruction ➜ irreversible dilatation of distal air space + loss of airway elastic recoil (AKA radial traction) ➜ airway collapse during forced expiration) ➜ {prolonged expiratory phase + [INC residual volume/air trapping] + [INC WOB]} ➜ [dead space physiology(more air ventilated than can be perfused)]

225
Q

Antitrypsin is an enzyme that inhibits ______ and _______ in the lung

Patients with Antitrypsin deficiency develop ___________

A

= trypsinase and elastinase

= Panacinar emphysema

226
Q

Describe the 2 types of emphysema

A
  1. centroacinar = respiratory bronchioles alone
  2. panacinar =[respiratory bronchioles] + [distal airways (consider Antitrypsin deficiency)]
227
Q

T or F: Obstructive sleep apnea increases Risk for Cardiovascular Mortality

228
Q

Obstructive Sleep Apnea dx -3

A
  1. PolysomnographyOSA dx confirmation
  2. [AHI(Apnea-Hyponea Index) ] ⼀ measures OSA severity
  3. [STOPBang ≤2 = no OSA] ⼀OSA screening
229
Q

Describe how severity of Obstructive Sleep Apnea is measured?

A

AHI (Apnea-Hypopnea Index) = sum of apnea and hypOpnea events in 1 hour of sleep

5-15/hr = mild

16-30 = moderate

> 30 = SEVERE

230
Q

T or F: Supplemental Oxygen alone prevents OSA complications

A

FALSE

(supp O2 + correct upper airway obstruction)

231
Q

Describe radiographic findings for Granuloma -3

A
  1. dense
  2. centrally calcified
  3. smoothly bordered
232
Q

radiographic central calcification in pulmonary nodules indicate ________ [malignant/benign] neoplasia

A

BENIGN

(“popcorn”, “onion skin”, “bull’s eye”)

233
Q

radiographic eccentric calcification in pulmonary nodules indicate ________ [malignant/benign] neoplasia

A

[MALIGNANT or BENIGN]

234
Q

Bronchial carcinoid tumors are ______-grade malignant neoplasm made of ___ cells , and about _____% of all lung tumors

A

low ; neuroendocrine ; 2

235
Q

Why do Carcinoid tumors cause
_________ in lungs?

A

[lobar atelectasis] ; [Carcinoid tumors are located in the bronchus(which → lobar atelectasis)]

236
Q

patients GOE _____ years old with significant smoking hx, should receive _____ for pulmonary nodules

A

45 ; biopsy

237
Q

what are the 3 most critical parameters to stabilize in Anaphylaxis

A

ABC

  1. (A) airway (obstructed)?
  2. (B) Breathing/bronchioles bronchoconstricted?
  3. (C) hypOtension
238
Q

what type hypersensitivity is Anaphylaxis?

239
Q

examples of [type 1 “A” hypersensitivity reaction] -5

A
  • [type 1 AAAA hypersensitivity reaction]*
    1. [Allergy (PCN)]
    2. Anaphylaxis
    2. Atopic (Asthma, rhinitis, eczema, hay fever)
    3. IgA deficient patients ➜if receive blood products ➜ possible anaphylaxis (px = use WASHED RBC)
240
Q
A

note: PGE1 also keeps PDA patent during cyanotic heart defects = “kEEps ur Penis and PDA Open”

241
Q
A

note: PGE1 also keeps PDA patent during cyanotic heart defects = “kEEps ur Penis and PDA Open”

243
Q

Which Leukotriene(s) responsible for
Bronchoconstriction?

A

LTC4 / LTD4 / LTE4

C/D/E

244
Q

Which Leukotriene(s) responsible for
Neutrophil Chemotaxis?

245
Q

[PGE1 Prostaglandin]
Function (2)
_________________
Rx

A
  1. *PENIS*vasoDILATOR
  2. “kEEps PDA… patent”
    _________________

[AlprostadilPGE1 Prostaglandin]

“PGE1 kEEPS Penis and PDA open!”

246
Q

[PGE2 Prostaglandin]
Function (2)
_________________
Rx

A

1.ANTIinflammatory
2.[⇪ Uterine tone]
_________________
[DinoprostonePGE2 Prostaglandin]

B

247
Q

[PGF2 Prostaglandin]
Function
_________________
Rx

A

[⇪ Uterine tone]
_________________
[CarboprostPGF2 Prostaglandin]

B

248
Q

[pGi2 prostaCyclin]
Function (3)
_________________
Rx

A
  1. ANTIinflammatory❄
  2. [⬇︎ platelet aggregation](⬇︎clotting)
  3. vasoDILATOR
    _________________
    [EpoProstenolpGi2 prostaCyclin]

B

249
Q

[TXA2 Thromboxane]
Function (3)

A
  1. 🔥PROinflammatory
  2. [⇪ platelet aggregation]
  3. vasoconstrictor

B