81. Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

Gravida (G)

A

is the total number of pregnancies a woman has had

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Primigravida

A

refers to a patient that is pregnant for the first time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Multigravida

A

refers to a patient that is pregnant for at least the second time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Para (P)

A

refers to the number of times the woman has given birth after 24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Nulliparous (“nullip”)

A

refers to a patient that has never given birth after 24 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Primiparous

A

technically refers to a patient that has given birth after 24 weeks gestation once before (see below)

The term primiparous, or “primip” is a bit confusing. Technically, it refers to a woman that has given birth once before. However, it is often used on the labour ward to refer to a woman that is due to give birth for the first time (and has never given birth before). You may hear patients referred to on the labour ward as a “primip” when they have never given birth before.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

G and P currently pregnant, 3 children and 1 miscarriage previously

A

G5P3+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Currently pregnant, previous still birth

A

G2P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what weeks are each of the trimesters

A

First Trimester (0 to 13 Weeks)
Second Trimester (14 to 26 Weeks)
Third Trimester (27 to 40 Weeks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Physiological changes renal - pregnancy

A

Increased perfusion to kidneys (up 30%) → increased GFR (up 30-60%)

Urine : increased protein, increased urea, increased creatinine, trace glucose
Serum: decreased urea, decreased creatinine, reduced albumin

If trace glucose, may offer OGTT at 24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Physiological changes respiratory - pregnancy

A

Increased oxygen demands = increased minute ventilation mainly by:
- increased tital volume

Increased ventilation –> reduced CO2 in blood stream –> compensatory fall in bicarbonate (mild fully compensated respiratory alkalosis)

  • subjective feeling of breathlessness without hypoxia is common
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Physiological changes hematology - pregnancy

A

RBC
Increased RBC production in pregnancy
Plasma volume increases > red blood cell volume, leading to a lower concentration of red blood cells.
Lower Hb
Lower platelets

Requirements
increased requirements: higher iron, folate and B12 requirements. Also increased calcium req but body absorbs better too so may be unchanged

Clotting
Clotting factors such as fibrinogen and factor VII, VIII and X increase in pregnancy, making women hyper-coagulable (ready for delivery). This increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (blood clots developing in the veins). Pregnant women are more likely to develop deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

Placenta
High ALP (up to 4 times higher)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Physiological changes skin and hair - pregnancy

A

skin:
- Increased skin pigmentation due to increased melanocyte stimulating hormone, with linea nigra and melasma
- Striae gravidarum (stretch marks on the expanding abdomen)
- General itchiness (pruritus) can be normal, but can indicate obstetric cholestasis

Increased estrogen:
- Spider naevi (related to increased estrogen)
- Palmar erythema

hair:
- Postpartum hair loss is normal, and usually improves within six months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Physiological cardiovascular changes pregnancy

A

Increased blood volume –> Increased cardiac output (larger stroke volume + higher heart rate)

CO= SV x HR

  • Higher heart rate (10-20bpm)
  • Ejection systolic murmur
  • Third heart sound

Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance and systemic vascular resistance
- Decreased diastolic blood pressure in early and middle pregnancy, returning to normal by term (blood being diverted to placenta)

Peripheral oedema due to:
- increased aldosterone –> fluid retention
- reduced venous return due to pressure of uterus on inferior vena cava (worse if supine) - best position is left lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Physiological changes pregnancy - endocrine

A
  1. Ant pituitary ^ACTH ^prolactin ^melanocyte stimulating hormone
  2. ^ACTH –> ^steroid hormones, cortisol and aldosterone = improvement in autoimmune, susceptible to diabetes and infections
  3. ^Prolactin –> decreased FHS and LH
  4. ^melanocyte stimulating hormone –> increased pigmentation of skin –> linea nigra, melasma
  • TSH nromal, raised t3 and t4
  • HCG rise, double every 48 hours until platau around 8-12 weeks then start to fall
  • Progesterone rises throughout pregnancy –> prevent contractions, suppress immune response to fetal antigens, produced by corpus luteum until 10 weeks, then placenta
  • oestrogen rises throughout pregnancy, produced by placenta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Antenatal timeline

A

First visit is from 8, check everything with mum is great, urine, bloods and rhesus state, give advice and educate

from 11 to 13 is the best time to do a downs screen while your at it check the dates

at 16 or 10 plus 6 do BP and multistix

second scan is at twenty to check the fingers and toes to make sure there’s plenty

one again at 28, urine blood and rhesus state
anti D if appropriate

when the week is 34 plan for birth, what a chore

check the lie at 36, if breech offer a quick-fix

last visit at 38, all thats left to do wait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is part of the booking appointment? when is the booking appointment?

A

From week 8

4 bloods:
FBC
Blood group
Rhesus (rhesus D status and antibodies)
Thalassemia (and sickle cell if high risk)

3 Viruses:
HIV
Syphillis
Hep B

2 urine:
Dipstick
MSU

1 physical exam:
BP
BMI

Screening for Down’s syndrome may be initiated depending on the gestational age. Bloods required for the combined test are taken from 11 weeks onwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is rhesus status important? what does it mean?

A

The rhesus D antigen is found on RBC.

If someone who is rhesus negative, comes into contact with the rhesus antigen - it sees this as foreign and creates antibodies.

It is important to pick up rhesus-D negative mothers as they may have rhesus positive babies

If the baby’s blood comes into contact with the mothers blood then the mother will produce antibodies against the babies blood (sensitisation)

In future pregnancies, the mothers immune system may initiate a full scale attack and destroy the babies RBC.

Once sensitisation has occurred, there is nothing that can be done. therefore prophylaxis is important to prevent sensitisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does anti-D work?

A

The anti-D medication works by attaching itself to the rhesus-D antigens on the fetal red blood cells in the mothers circulation, causing them to be destroyed. This prevents the mother’s immune system recognising the antigen and creating it’s own antibodies to the antigen. It acts as a prevention for the mother becoming sensitised to the rhesus-D antigen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When is anti-D given?

A

Anti-D injections are given routinely on two occasions:
- 28 weeks gestation
- Birth (if the baby’s blood group is found to be rhesus-positive)

Anti-D injections should also be given at any time where sensitisation may occur

Anti-D is given within 72 hours of a sensitisation event. If a sensitisation test occurs after 20 weeks gestation, the Kleinhauer test is performed to see how much fetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood, to determine whether further doses of anti-D are required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In what situations should an anti-D be given within 72 hours

A

delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn

any termination of pregnancy

miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks

ectopic pregnancy if managed surgically

external cephalic version

antepartum haemorrhage

amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling

abdominal trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tests for rhesus sensitisation ?

A

all babies born to Rh -ve mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group & direct Coombs test

Coombs test: direct antiglobulin, will demonstrate antibodies on RBCs of baby

Kleihauer test: add acid to maternal blood, fetal cells are resistant (do after a sensitisation event to see if further foses of anti-d are required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How will an affected fetus present - rhesus sensitisation? pathophysiology? tretament?

A

jaundice –> kerinicterus, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly:
anaemia is caused by the destruction of the RBC by the mothers antibodies, jaundice occurs as there is lots of bilirubin from the breakdown of RBC. The spleen is enlarged as it is processing a lrge number of RBC. the liver is large as it is trying to make much more RBC than normal.

oedema and hydrops fetalis:
liver is under strain from making more RBC that other functions suffer such as albumin production. this leads to leakage of fluid into tissues and body cavities, termed hydrops fetalis.

heart failure:
liver is under strain so portal hypertension devlops which strains the heart and ciruclatory system. Also, the severe anemia taxes the heart to compensate by increasing output in an effort to deliver oxygen to the tissues and results in a condition called high output cardiac failure.

treatment: transfusions, UV phototherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

why does rhesus only cause outcomes in subsequent pregnancies and not the first?

A

IgM antibodies do not cross the placental barrier, which is why no effects to the fetus are seen in first pregnancies for Rh-D mediated disease.

However, in subsequent pregnancies with Rh+ fetuses, the IgG memory B cells mount an immune response when re-exposed, and these IgG anti-Rh(D) antibodies do cross the placenta and enter fetal circulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Management of neonates born to mothers with Hep B

A

Give at birth:
Hepatitis B vaccine
Hepatitis B immunoglobulin infusion

Infants are given an additional hepatitis B vaccine at 1 and 12 months of age.

They will also receive the hepatitis B vaccine as part of the normal vaccine given to all infants aged 8, 16 weeks, 12 mo

They are tested for the HBsAg at 1 year to see if they have contracted hepatitis B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Breastfeeding and Hep B

A

Safe to breastfeed provided their babies are properly vaccinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hep B type of virus and spread

A

DNA virus. It is transmitted by direct contact with blood or bodily fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Testing for Hep C

A

Hepatitis C antibody is the screening test

Hepatitis C RNA testing is used to confirm the diagnosis of hepatitis C, calculate viral load and identify the genotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Management babies born to mothers with hep C

A

tested at 18 months of age using the hepatitis C antibody test

can breastfeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do UTIs in pregnancy increase the risk of?

A

pre-term birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

testing for UTIs in pregancy

A

MSU for sensitivities and cultures routinely (at booking and at appointments) - treat asymptomatic bacteraemia during pregnancy

MSU and dip when symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

folic acid dosage pregnancy

A

400mcg per day from prior to getting pregnant to the 12th week of pregnancy

Women with folate deficiency/epileptic drugs/pre-existing diabetes/BMI>30/NTD or FH of NTD/coeliac/thalassemia are started on folic acid 5mg daily until 12th week of pregnancy

either partner has a NTD, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a NTD, or they have a family history of a NTD
the woman is taking antiepileptic drugs or has coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait.
the woman is obese (defined as a body mass index [BMI] of 30 kg/m2 or more).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when are pregnant women screened for anaemia

A

Booking clinic
28 weeks gestation

34
Q

cut offs for treating anaemia in women? in pregnancy and post partum

A

Hb
<115 non-pregnant
<110 first trimester (booking appt)
<105 2nd/3rd trimester
<100 post partum

35
Q

anaemia treatment pregnancy

A

ferrous sulphate 200mg three times daily

36
Q

what should people with B12 deficiency be tested for?

A

pernicious anaemia (checking for intrinsic factor antibodies).

37
Q

tests for down’s 11-14 weeks

A

combined test (blood and USS)

ABC

low A (PAPPA) <0.5
high B-HCG
High C - nuchal thickness >6mm

38
Q

Tests for downs 14-20 weeks

A

Either triple test or quadruple test

Triple:
low alpha-feto protein
High B-HCG
Low S (simialr to C) serum oestrodiol

Quadruple
High A-inhibin
Low alpha-feto protein
High B-HCG
Low Serum oestrodiol

39
Q

Next step after combined/triple/quadruple

A

If risk > 1 in 150, offered chorionic villious sampling (<15 weeks) or amniocentesis
- these take a sample of cells for karyotype

Non-invasive prenatal testing is being rolled out - maternal blood test for fetal DNA fragments

40
Q

what is urine dipstick for at antenatal appointments?

A

proteinuria

41
Q

vaccines in pregnancy?

A

Whooping cough (pertussis) from 16 weeks gestation

Influenza (flu) when available in autumn or winter

Live vaccines, such as the MMR vaccine, are avoided in pregnancy.

42
Q

when are routine scans done in pregnancy

A

10-13 weeks - dating scan, exclude multiple pregnancy

20 weeks anomaly scan

43
Q

How is growth of fetus measured

A

symphysis fundal height (SFH) from 24 weeks

serial growth scans with umbilical artery doppler if need closer invetsigation due to:
- SFH being < 10th centile at 24 weeks
- Three or more minor risk factors
- One or more major risk factors
- Issues with measuring the symphysis fundal height (e.g. large fibroids or BMI > 35)

44
Q

when is early delivery considered for small for gestational age?

A

when growth is static

45
Q

what does a sonographer look for in early pregnancy

A

Mean gestational sac diameter to 25mm –>

Fetal pole and crown-rump length 7mm –>

Fetal heartbeat

46
Q

What to do if gestational sac is 25mm but no fetal pole?

A

repeat uss in 1 week before confirming anembryonic pregnancy

47
Q

What to do if fetal pole > 7mm but no heart beat?

A

repeat uss in 1 week before confirming non-viable pregnancy

48
Q

symphisis fundal height rule

A

The symphysis-fundal height (SFH) is measured from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres

It should match the gestational age in weeks to within 2 cm after 20 weeks, e.g. if 24 weeks then the a normal SFH = 22 to 26 cm

49
Q

which factors mean women will be offered aspirin for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis? how long given for?

A

From 12 weeks until birth

One high-risk factors (all conditions!):
Pre-existing hypertension
Previous hypertension in pregnancy
Existing autoimmune conditions (e.g. systemic lupus erythematosus)
Diabetes
Chronic kidney disease

2 or more moderate risk factors:
Older than 40
BMI > 35
More than 10 years since previous pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy
First pregnancy
Family history of pre-eclampsia

50
Q

management of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy

A

stick to metformin and insulin
aim for same levels as in gestational diabetes

Preventing complications:
folic acid 5mg
retinopathy screening after booking and at 28 weeks
planned delivery between 37 and 38 + 6 weeks

51
Q

When is OGTT carried out

A

between 24-28 weeks

52
Q

Who should get OGTT

A

risk factors:
Previous gestational diabetes
Previous macrosomic baby (≥ 4.5kg)
BMI > 30
Ethnic origin (black Caribbean, Middle Eastern and South Asian)
Family history of diabetes (first-degree relative)

signs:
Large for dates fetus
Polyhydramnios (increased amniotic fluid)
Glucose on urine dipstick

53
Q

Who should be given VTE prophylaxis? when?

A

Smoking
Parity ≥ 3
Age > 35 years
BMI > 30
Reduced mobility
Multiple pregnancy
Pre-eclampsia
Gross varicose veins
Immobility
Family history of VTE
Thrombophilia
IVF pregnancy

4 or more risk factors = LMWH from booking until 6 w post partum
3 or more risk factors = LMWH from 28 weeks until 6 w post partum

At least 10 days if
C-section, BMI >40, readmission/prolonged admission (>3 days), any surgical procedure, medical comorbidities (cancer, HF, SLE, OBD, SCD)

54
Q

Antiemetic choice pregnancy

A
  1. antihistamines (H1 receptor antagonist): oral cyclizine or promethazine
    Phenothiazines: oral prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine
    combination drug doxylamine/pyridoxine
  2. oral metoclopramide or domperidone (D2 antagonist)
    oral ondansetron (5HT-3 receptor antagonist)
55
Q

associations hyperemesis

A

multiple pregnancies
trophoblastic disease
hyperthyroidism
nulliparity
obesity

Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.

56
Q

pathophysiology hyperemesis? at what stage of pregnancy is it most apparent?

A

It occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels.

Hyperemesis gravidarum is most common between 8 and 12 weeks but may persist up to 20 weeks.

57
Q

When should someone with hyperemesis be admitted?

A
  • Continued N&V and unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics
  • Continued N&V with ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), despite treatment with oral antiemetics
  • A confirmed or suspected comorbidity (for example she is unable to tolerate oral antibiotics for a urinary tract infection)
58
Q

criteria for diagnosis of hyperemesis

A

triad of:
5% pre-pregnancy weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

59
Q

what tool can be used to classify the severity of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy

A

Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE)

60
Q

Management NVP/hyper emesis

A

Simple measures
- rest and avoid triggers e.g. odours
- bland, plain food, particularly in the morning
- ginger
- P6 (wrist) acupressure

  1. antihistamines (H1 receptor antagonist): oral cyclizine or promethazine
    Phenothiazines: oral prochlorperazine or chlorpromazine
    combination drug doxylamine/pyridoxine
  2. oral metoclopramide or domperidone (D2 antagonist)
    oral ondansetron (5HT-3 receptor antagonist)
  3. admission may be needed for IV hydration with
    normal saline with added potassium
61
Q

Complications hyper-emesis

A

Dehydration, weight loss and electrolyte imbalances

acute kidney injury
Wernicke’s encephalopathy
oesophagitis, Mallory-Weiss tear
venous thromboembolism

62
Q

pathophysiology pre-eclampsia

A

Pre-eclampsia is caused by high vascular resistance in the spiral arteries and poor perfusion of the placenta. This causes oxidative stress in the placenta, and the release of inflammatory chemicals into the systemic circulation, leading to systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function in the blood vessels.

63
Q

pre-eclampsia definition

A

NICE guidelines for diagnosis:
Systolic blood pressure above 140 mmHg
Diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg

PLUS any of:
Proteinuria (1+ or more on urine dipstick)

Organ dysfunction (e.g. raised creatinine, elevated liver enzymes, seizures, thrombocytopenia or haemolytic anaemia)

Placental dysfunction (e.g. fetal growth restriction or abnormal Doppler studies

Triad : hypertension after 20 weeks, proteinuria, oedema

64
Q

what is eclampsia

A

seizures due to pre-eclampsia

65
Q

proteinuria in pregnancy values

A

Urine protein:creatinine ratio (above 30mg/mmol is significant)

Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (above 8mg/mmol is significant)

66
Q

test to rule out pre-eclampsia

A

The NICE guidelines (2019) recommend the use of placental growth factor (PlGF) testing on one occasion during pregnancy in women suspected of having pre-eclampsia.

Placental growth factor is a protein released by the placenta that functions to stimulate the development of new blood vessels. In pre-eclampsia, the levels of PlGF are low.

NICE recommends using PlGF between 20 and 35 weeks gestation to rule-out pre-eclampsia.

67
Q

Haemolysis
Elevated Liver enzymes
Low Platelets

A

HELLP SYNDROME - COMPLICATION OF PRE-ECLAMPSIA

68
Q

first line anti-hypertensive for pre-eclampsia in women with severe asthma

A

nifedepine

69
Q

Management pre-eclampsia

A

Labetolol is first-line as an antihypertensive

Nifedipine (modified-release) is commonly used second-line or if asthmatic

Methyldopa is used third-line (needs to be stopped within two days of birth)

Intravenous hydralazine may be used as an antihypertensive in critical care in severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

IV magnesium sulphate is given during labour and in the 24 hours afterwards to prevent seizures

Fluid restriction is used during labour in severe pre-eclampsia or eclampsia, to avoid fluid overload

70
Q

Management HTN postpartum

A

Enalapril (first-line)
Nifedipine or amlodipine (first-line in black African or Caribbean patients)
Labetolol or atenolol (third-line)

71
Q

Definitive management pre-eclampsia

A

Delivery of the baby

72
Q

blood film shows polychromasia and schistocytes

A

HELLP

73
Q

Management eclampsia

A

Magnesium sulphate

Guidelines on its use suggest the following:
- should be given once a decision to deliver has been made
- in eclampsia an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given followed by an infusion of 1g / hour
- urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations should be monitored during treatment
- respiratory depression can occur: calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression
- treatment should continue for 24 hours after last seizure or delivery (around 40% of seizures occur post-partum)

Other important aspects of treating severe pre-eclampsia/eclampsia include fluid restriction to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload

74
Q

how long should magnesium sulphate be given for in eclampsia?

A

for 24 hours after last seizure or delivery

75
Q

what is the major complication that can occur from magnesium sulphate? management?

A

respiratory depression can occur

calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate induced respiratory depression

76
Q

complications of gestational diabetes

A

hypoglycaemia of newborn
macrosmia

77
Q

management of gestational diabestes

A
  • Joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week
  • Taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose
  • Advice about diet (including eating foods with a low glycaemic index) and exercise should be given

The initial management:

Fasting glucose less than 7 mmol/l: trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks, followed by metformin, then insulin

Fasting glucose above 7 mmol/l: start insulin ± metformin

Fasting glucose above 6 mmol/l plus macrosomia (or other complications): start insulin ± metformin

Four weekly ultrasound scans to monitor the fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume from 28 to 36 weeks gestation.

78
Q

Risk factors for gestational diabetes

A

BMI of > 30 kg/m²
previous macrosomic baby weighing 4.5 kg or above
previous gestational diabetes
first-degree relative with diabetes
family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes (South Asian, black Caribbean and Middle Eastern)

79
Q

diagnostic thresholds for gestational diabetes

A

ogtt

fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L
2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L

80
Q

targets for self-monitoring gestational diabetes

A

Fasting 5.3 mmol/l
1 hour after meals 7.8 mmol/l, or:
2 hour after meals 6.4 mmol/l

81
Q

Management of pre-existing diabetes in pregnancy

A

weight loss for women with BMI of > 27 kg/m^2
stop oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, and commence insulin
folic acid 5 mg/day from pre-conception to 12 weeks gestation
detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts
tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates
treat retinopathy as can worsen during pregnancy