39. Skin rash and eruptions Flashcards

1
Q

History taking rash

A

HoPC: distribution, how the rash has changed, itch, associated symptoms
MHx: recent infections,
DHx: new medications, immunosuppressant medications, allergies
SHx: close contacts unwell? Contact with children? Travel history, Sexual history, occupation,

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2
Q

Examination steps rash

A

General inspection (number, distribution and size)
Configuration (shape/outline)
Colour and blanching
Morphology (form and structure)
Palpation

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3
Q

ddx erythematous rash

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin
Toxic shock syndrome
TEN and SJS
Erythema nodosum
Erythroderma and erythrodermic psoriasis
Acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis (AGEP)
(Still’s disease)

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4
Q

ddx maculopapualr rash

A

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
Erythema multiforme
Lyme disease
Syphilis
Childhood exanthems: measles, scarlet fever, rubella, parvovirus, roseola infantum
Pityriasis rosea
Rheumatic fever
(Kawasaki disease)

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5
Q

ddx vesiculobullous rash

A

Bullous pemphigoid
Pemphigus vulgaris
Varicella
Hand-foot-and -mouth
Eczema herpeticum
Bacterial superinfection (of chickenpox or eczema)

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6
Q

ddx petechial/purpuric rash

A

Infection (palpable)
(Meningococcal meningitis)
Disseminated gonococcal infection
(Infective endocarditis)
Immune (palpable)
(Vasculitis: HSP, polyarteritis nodosa)
Bleeding (non-palpable)
(DIC and sepsis)
(Scurvy)
(ITP)
(TTP)
(Leukaemia)

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7
Q

acral distribution

A

distal areas including the hands and feet (e.g. hand, foot and mouth disease).

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8
Q

extensor distribution

A

extensor surfaces including the elbows and knees (e.g. psoriasis).

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9
Q

flexural distribution

A

flexural surfaces including the axillae, genital region and cubital fossae (e.g. eczema).

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10
Q

Seborrhoeic/follicular distrubution

A

affecting areas with increased numbers of sebaceous glands such as the face, scalp, chest and axillae (e.g. acne). eg seborrheoic dermatitis

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11
Q

Dermatomal distribution

A

he skin lesions appear confined to one or several dermatomes and do not cross the midline (e.g. herpes zoster).

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12
Q

discrete vs confluent lesions

A

Discrete lesions: individual lesions, clearly separated from one another (e.g. normal mole).

Confluent lesions: lesions that appear to be merging together (e.g. urticaria).

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13
Q

linear lesions

A

lesions in the shape of a line (e.g. excoriations).

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14
Q

discoid vs target vs annular lesions

A

Discoid lesions: coin-shaped lesions (e.g. discoid eczema, discoid lupus).

Target lesions: concentric rings of varying colour, resembling a bullseye (e.g. erythema multiforme).

Annular lesions: ring-like lesions with a central clearing (e.g. tinea corporis).

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15
Q

petechiae vs purpura

A

Petechiae - small red lesions caused when capillaries leak blood into the skin, DO NOT blanch when pressure is applied

Purpura - petechiae that are larger than 0.5cm.

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16
Q

macule vs patch

A

Macule: a flat area of altered colour less than 1.5cm in diameter.

Patch: a flat area of altered colour greater than 1.5cm in diameter.

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17
Q

Papule vs nodule

A

Papule: a solid raised palpable lesion less than 0.5cm in diameter.

Nodule: a solid raised palpable lesion greater than 0.5cm in diameter.

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18
Q

plaque

A

Plaque: a palpable flat lesion usually greater than 1cm in diameter. Most plaques are raised, however, some may be thickened without being visibly raised.

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19
Q

vesicle vs bulla

A

Vesicle: a raised, clear fluid-filled lesion less than 0.5cm in diameter.
Bulla: a raised, clear fluid-filled lesion greater than 0.5cm in diameter.

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20
Q

Pustule

A

Pustule: a pus-containing lesion less than 0.5cm in diameter.

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21
Q

cyst vs boil vs abscess

A

Cyst: A cyst is a cavity or sac that is filled with pus or fluid semisolid material or air. Cysts can be benign or malignant and can form on any part of the body. An infected cyst = abscess.

Abscess: An abscess is an infection filled with pus, is painful, and can happen anywhere on the body.

Boil: A small skin abscess is also called a boil and can appear on any body part. A boil is also known as a furuncle.

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22
Q

Wheal

A

an oedematous papule or plaque caused by dermal oedema.
(urticaria)

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23
Q

Lichenification

A

Thickening of the epidermis with exaggeration of normal skin lines, typically caused by chronic rubbing or scratching of an area (e.g. chronic eczema).

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24
Q

Excoriation

A

loss of epidermis associated with trauma

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25
Q

crust

A

a rough surface consisting of dried serum, blood, bacteria and cellular debris. The serum, blood, bacteria and debris have usually exuded through an eroded epidermis.

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26
Q

Atrophic scarring

A

thinning of normal tissues underlying the scar resulting in a cratering effect.

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27
Q

Hypertrophic scarring

A

hyperproliferation of scar tissue within the wound boundary, resulting in a prominent scar.

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28
Q

Keloidal scarring

A

hyperproliferation of scar tissue beyond the wound boundary resulting in a scar that is significantly larger than the original skin insult.

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29
Q

ulcer

A

a localised defect in the skin of irregular size and shape where the epidermis and some dermis have been lost. Ulcers ultimately result in scarring when healed.

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30
Q

skin fissure

A

a sharply-defined, linear or wedge-shaped tear in the epidermis with abrupt walls, typically due to excess skin dryness.

Fissures or splits occur when there is a lack of elasticity in the skin, usually when the skin is too dry or too moist.

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31
Q

striae

A

stretch marks

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32
Q

why is palpation of abscess important

A

might be hot

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33
Q

red flags rashes

A

mucosal involvement
blistering/peeling
pain
lymphadeopathy
systemic upset (fever, abnormal lft, u&e)

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34
Q

4 categories of rashes

A

Petechial/purpuric
Erythematous
Maculopapular
Vesiculobullous

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35
Q

Differentiating features petechial/purpuric rash and DDX

A
  1. Fever = assume infectious
  2. Palpable vs non-palpable

Palpable petechiae/purpura are usually the result of perivascular inflammation or infection = inflammatory eg vasculitis or bacterial emboli

Non-palpable petechiae/purpura usually occur in low platelet states such as ITP and DIC = non-inflammatory

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36
Q

febrile and petechial rash, first ddx?

A

meningococcal disease

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37
Q

mechanism of DIC

A

DIC - bacterial endotoxin and the inflammatory response from our immune system → activate clotting cascade → micro clots → clotting factors used up –> bleeding eg petechiae

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38
Q

rash meningitis

A

The rash is initially erythematous, maculopapular and appears first on the wrist and ankles, then becomes palpable petechiae

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39
Q

Typical history meningitis

A

Fever
Neck stiffness
Vomiting
Headache
Photophobia
Altered consciousness
Seizures
Non-blanching rash

Neonates:
Hypotonia, poor feeding, lethargy, hypothermia and a bulging fontanelle.

Therefore lumbar puncture in all children if:
Under 1 month old and presenting with fever
1-3 months with fever and unwell
Under 1 years with unexplained fever and other features of serious illness

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40
Q

Examination findings meningitis

A

Fever
Non-blanching rash
Photophobia

Kernig’s test (Kernig’s test involves lying the patient on their back, flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees. This creates a slight stretch in the meninges and where there is meningitis will produce spinal pain or resistance to this movement.)
Brudzinski test (Brudzinski’s test involves lying the patient flat on their back and gently using your hands to lift their head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest. A positive test is when this causes the patient to involuntarily flex their hips and knees.)

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41
Q

What is Meningococcal meningitis vs Meningococcal septicaemia

A

Meningococcal meningitis - meningococcus bacteria (neisseria meningitidis) is infecting the meninges and CSF

Meningococcal septicaemia - meningococcal bacterial infection in the bloodstream → non blanching rash due to DIC and subcutaneous haemorrhage

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42
Q

plan ?meningitis

A

Airway
Breathing
Circulation
Disability: GCS, ; focal neurological signs; seizures; papilloedema;

Initial:
if in primary care and ?meningococcal - an urgent stat injection (IM or IV) of benzylpenicillin prior to transfer to hospital as time is so important:
< 1 year – 300mg
1-9 years – 600mg
> 10 years and adults – 1200mg

Once in hospital, decisions to treat empirically quickly vs LP depends on patient and senior clinician

Investigations:
Bloods:
full blood count
CRP
coagulation screen
blood culture
whole-blood PCR, this will be relied upon if lumbar puncture contraindicated
blood glucose
blood gas

Lumbar puncture
unless contraindicated eg if there is evidence of raised ICP as it can cause herniation of cerebrum. Signs of raised ICP: cushing’s reflex (raised BP, low HR), focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation (meningococcal septicaemia eg the rash), signs of cerebral herniation.

Blood glucose at same time as CSF so can be compared

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43
Q

Normal lumbar puncture result

A

clear appearance

glucose 70% of plasma

protein 0.3 g/l

WCC 2 per mm^3 (neuts)

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44
Q

Bacterial meningitis LP result

A

Cloudy

Glucose low (< 1/2 plasma) bacteria using up the glucose

Protein high (> 1 g/l) bacteria releasing proteins

WCC 10 - 5,000 polymorphs/mm³ the immune system releases neutrophils in response to bacteria

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45
Q

Viral meningitis LP result

A

Clear/cloudy

Glucose 60-80% of plasma glucose* viruses don’t really use glucose

Protein normal/raised viruses may release a small amount of protein

WCC 15 - 1,000 lymphocytes/mm³ the immune system releases lymphocytes in response to viruses

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46
Q

Tuberculous LP result

A

Slight cloudy, fibrin web

glucose Low (< 1/2 plasma)

Protein high >1g/l

WCC 30-300 lymphocytes/mm3

The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is only 20% sensitive in the detection of tuberculous meningitis and therefore PCR is sometimes used (sensitivity = 75%)

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47
Q

Bacterial meningitis 0-3 months

A

BELS

  1. Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates)
  2. E. coli
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Strep pneumoniae
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48
Q

Bacterial meningitis 3 months-6 years

A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. Haemophilus influenzae
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49
Q

Bacterial meningitis 6-60 years

A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae
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50
Q

Bacterial meningitis >60 years

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Neisseria meningitidis
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
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51
Q

Meningitis in immunocompromised

A

listeria monocytogenes

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52
Q

Community meningitis initial management

A

Benzylpenicillin IM or IV

< 1 year – 300mg
1-9 years – 600mg
> 10 years and adults – 1200mg

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53
Q

Meningitis initial empirical therapy < 3 months

A

IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin (or ampicillin)

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54
Q

Meningitis initial empirical therapy 3 months-50 years

A

IV cefotaxime

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55
Q

Meningitis initial empirical therapy > 50 years

A

IV cefotaxime + amoxicillin (or ampicillin)

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56
Q

Meningitis management - listeria

A

IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin)
+ gentamicin

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57
Q

When should dexamethasone be given for meningitis

A

Give if lumbar puncture reveals:
- frankly purulent CSF
-CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre
- raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre
- bacteria on Gram stain

Withhold if:
- septic shock
- meningococcal
- septicaemia
immunocompromised

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58
Q

Management meningococcal meningitis

A

IV benzylpenicillin or cefotaxime

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59
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis bacterial meningitis

A

Ciprofloxacin single dose

This risk is highest for people that have had close prolonged contact within the 7 days prior to the onset of the illness

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60
Q

Signs of raised ICP

A

cushing’s reflex (raised BP, low HR) irregular breathing, bradycardia, widening pulse pressure (blood pressure)

focal neurological signs
papilloedema
significant bulging of the fontanelle

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61
Q

contraindications to LP

A

Brain - raised ICP, convulsions, focal neurology
- reduced or fluctuating level of consciousness (Glasgow Coma Scale score less than 9 or a drop of 3 or more)
- age-relative bradycardia and hypertension
- focal neurological signs
- abnormal posture or posturing
- unequal, dilated or poorly responsive pupils
- papilloedema
- abnormal ‘doll’s eye’ movements
- tense, bulging fontanelle

Cardio - shock

Respiratory - respiratory insufficiency (lumbar puncture is considered to have a high risk of precipitating respiratory failure in the presence of respiratory insufficiency).

Blood - Coagulation abnormality
- coagulation results (if obtained) outside the normal range
- platelet count below 100×109/litre
- receiving anticoagulant therapy

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62
Q

Typical history infective endocarditis

A

PC:
Fever
Fatigue
Night sweats
Muscle aches
Anorexia (loss of appetite)

o/e:
New or “changing” heart murmur
Splinter haemorrhages
Petechiae on the trunk, limbs, oral mucosa or conjunctiva
Janeway lesions
Osler’s nodes
Roth spots

Splenomegaly (in longstanding disease)
Finger clubbing (in longstanding disease)

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63
Q

risk factors infective endocarditis

A

Intravenous drug use
Structural heart pathology (see below)
Chronic kidney disease (particularly on dialysis)
Immunocompromised (e.g., cancer, HIV or immunosuppressive medications)
History of infective endocarditis

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64
Q

define infetcive endocarditis

A

Infective endocarditis refers to infection of the endothelium (the inner surface) of the heart.

Most commonly, it affects the heart valves.

It can be acute, subacute or chronic, depending on how rapidly and acutely the symptoms present and the causative organism.

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65
Q

Examples of structural heart pathology that can increase risk of infetcive endocarditis

A

Valvular heart disease
Congenital heart disease
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Prosthetic heart valves
Implantable cardiac devices (e.g., pacemakers)

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66
Q

most common causative oragnism infective endocarditis? other causes

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Other causes include:
Streptococcus (notably the viridans group of streptococci)
Enterococcus (e.g., Enterococcus faecalis)
Rarer causes include Pseudomonas, HACEK organisms and fungi

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67
Q

Invetsigations ?infective endocarditis

A
  1. Three blood cultures, separated by 6 hours, taken from different sites
  2. Echo (trans-oesohageal ideal but trans-thoracic done mostly)
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68
Q

what scans can be done if prosthetic heat valve ?infective endocarditis

A

18F-FDG PET/CT
SPECT-CT

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69
Q

What criteria is used for diagnosis of infective endocarditis

A

modified duke criteria

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70
Q

what is the modified duke criteria

A

The Modified Duke criteria can be used to diagnose infective endocarditis. A diagnosis requires either:
- One major plus three minor criteria
- Five minor criteria

Major criteria are:
- Persistently positive blood cultures (typical bacteria on multiple cultures)
- Specific imaging findings (e.g., a vegetation seen on the echocardiogram)

Minor criteria are:
- Predisposition (e.g., IV drug use or heart valve pathology)
- Fever above 38°C
- Vascular phenomena (e.g., splenic infarction, intracranial haemorrhage and Janeway lesions)
- Immunological phenomena (e.g., Osler’s nodes, Roth spots and glomerulonephritis)
- Microbiological phenomena (e.g., positive cultures not qualifying as a major criterion)

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71
Q

Management infective endocarditis

A

Intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., amoxicillin and optional gentamicin) are the mainstay of treatment.
The choice of antibiotic may be more specific once the causative organism is identified on cultures.

Antibiotics are typically continued for at least:
4 weeks for with native heart valves
6 weeks for patients with prosthetic heart valves

Surgery may be required for:
- Heart failure relating to valve pathology
- Large vegetations or abscesses
- Infections not responding to antibiotics

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72
Q

Complications of infective endocarditis?

A
  • Heart valve damage, causing regurgitation
  • Heart failure
  • Infective and non-infective emboli (causing abscesses, strokes and splenic infarction)
  • Glomerulonephritis, causing renal impairment
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73
Q

when is prophylaxis for infective endocarditis given

A

case by case basis for surgical procedures etc for those at particularly high risk

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74
Q

what are janeway lesions vs oslers nodes

A

Osler’s nodes are on the tip of the finger or toes and painful. O for Owww.

Janeway lesions occur on palm and soles and are non-painful.

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75
Q

Complications bacterial meningitis

A

Hearing loss is a key complication
Seizures and epilepsy
Cognitive impairment and learning disability
Memory loss
Focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity

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76
Q

What is scurvy? presentation

A

condition caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet

Vitamin C is essential for the production of collagen

Symptoms of scurvy can include fatigue, weakness, joint pain, and bleeding gums. In severe cases, patients may experience anaemia and skin lesions.

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77
Q

cutaneous manifestations of scurvy

A

Perifollicular Petechiae: Small hemorrhagic spots surrounding hair follicles are one of the earliest signs of scurvy. They appear as reddish-brown or purple macules on the skin surface.

Follicular Hyperkeratosis: Swollen hair follicles with keratin plugs lead to a roughened skin texture resembling ‘goosebumps’ or ‘corkscrew hairs.’

Ecchymoses: Bruising occurs easily due to weakened blood vessel walls secondary to impaired collagen synthesis.

Gingival Changes: Swollen, spongy gums that bleed easily upon contact are common findings in patients with scurvy. In severe cases, gingival swelling may result in tooth mobility or loss.

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78
Q

MSK manifestations of scurvy

A

Arthralgia: Joint pain occurs due to inflammation of the synovial membrane secondary to subperiosteal haemorrhage.

Myalgia: Muscle pain and weakness are common complaints in patients with scurvy, often leading to a reluctance to move or ambulate.

Haemarthrosis: Bleeding into joint spaces can lead to painful and swollen joints.

Subperiosteal Hemorrhage: Blood accumulates beneath the periosteum of long bones, causing pain and tenderness. In children, this may manifest as pseudoparalysis or refusal to bear weight on affected limbs.

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79
Q

typical history disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Various non-specific skin lesions
Polyarthralgia (joint aches and pains)
Migratory polyarthritis (arthritis that moves between joints)
Tenosynovitis
Systemic symptoms such as fever and fatigue
septic arthritis

The rash consists of a few skin lesions only, usually on the distal extremities, and may be missed. The lesions begin as petechial macules which progress to form papules and pustules as microabscesses form around embolized bacteria. They later develop a necrotic center.

80
Q

Pathophysiology HSP

A

antigenic stimulus –> IgA antibody production –> IgA deposited in vascualr walls –> deposition in kidneys - golmerulonephritis, deposition in GI tract (pain, haemorrhage, intussception, deposition in skin - palpable purpura

complement system also activated

81
Q

Presentation HSP

A

Purpura (100%)
Joint pain (75%) usually knees and ankles
Abdominal pain (50%)
Renal involvement (50%) - microscopic or macroscopic haematuria and proteinuria, oedema

82
Q

most common trigger HSP

A

URTI 1-3 weeks prior, streptococcus

83
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is HSP

A

type 3 - immune complex mediated

84
Q

Invetsiagtions HSP

A

To rule out other things:
- Sepsis : blood culture, CRP
- Thromboytopaenia (inc leukaemia) : coagulation studies
- Other vasculidities: Autoantibody screen: antinuclear antibodies, antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies, and complement levels

To help support HSP diagnosis
- ESR raised in 75% of patients
- Serum IgA may be high

To test for complications:
- urinalysis : haematuria, proteinuria
- Serum creatinine and electrolyte levels
Elevated creatinine indicates renal impairment or renal failure
Electrolyte abnormalities may occur in patients with severe gastrointestinal symptoms.
- blood pressure

If non-typical presentation :
- skin/renal biopsy for confirmation of diagnosis

If severe abdo pain:
- abdo USS

85
Q

Management HSP

A

Supportive (fluid, rest, symptomatic relief)

  • paracetamol (avoid ibruprofen if abdo pain)
  • steroids may be used in severe cases

Monitoring
- 6 months periodic urinalysis and BP monitoring
- abnormlaity on urinalysis –> test serum cretainine
- if persistent - refer to nephrologist

86
Q

monitoring post HSP

A
  • 6 months periodic urinalysis and BP monitoring
  • abnormlaity on urinalysis –> test serum cretainine
  • if persistent - refer to nephrologist
87
Q

Presentation staphylococcal scalded skin

A

PC: abrupt fever, diffuse, blanching skin erythema usually beginning on the face and flexures associated with skin tenderness. Mucous membranes are NOT involved.

o/e: red rash, wrinkled tissue paper-like. Blisters then form superficially → rupture easily → skin peeling (Nikolsky sign is positive)

88
Q

Are mucous membranes involved in staphylococcal scalded skin

A

no

89
Q

epidemiology SSSS

A

occurs in children <5 years

90
Q

Plan ?SSSS

A

Investigation
cultures should be obtained from blood, urine, nasopharynx, umbilicus or any suspected focus of infection

Management
Antibiotics antistaphylococcal antibiotics (nafcillin or oxacillin), and Vancomycin in areas with a high prevalence of CA-MRSA
diligent fluid and electrolyte management and wound care, generally in a burn unit

91
Q

Presentation toxic shock syndrome

A

PC: diffuse erythematous rash, which eventually desquamates on the hands and feet.

o/e: fever, hypotension

92
Q

Pathophysiology and causes toxic shock

A

staph aureus

Classically TSS has been associated with high absorbent tampon use, however nasal packing, surgical wounds, postpartum infection and abscesses are other causes.

93
Q

microorganism toxic shock

A

staph aureus

94
Q

Management toxic shock syndrome

A

removal of infection focus (e.g. retained tampon)
IV fluids
IV antibiotics

95
Q

Presentation SJS

A

PC: start with non-specific symptoms of fever, cough, sore throat, sore mouth, sore eyes and itchy skin. → maculopapular rash with target lesions, may develop vesicles/bullae mucosal involvement, fever, arthralgia. <10% skin detachment. Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas - blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently

96
Q

Presentation toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

PC: sudden onset diffuse erythema with painful skin and eventual sloughing, >30% skin detachment

97
Q

cause SJS and TEN

A

almost always drug related

Anti-epileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine, lamotrigine
Antibiotics: penicillins
Antivirals
Allopurinol
NSAIDs
Sulfonamides
The OCP

Can also be caused by infection but is rare

98
Q

Difference between SJS and TEN

A

SJS <10% skin detachment

TEN >30% skin detachment

99
Q

Management SJS and TEN

A

Management:
Identify and stop causative agent
IV fluid management and wound care, usually in a burn unit.

100
Q

Presentation erythema nodosum

A

PC: tender, erythematous nodular lesions over the shins (can be elsewhere). Resolves within 6 weeks

101
Q

pathology erythema nodosum

A

inflammation of the subcutaneous fat

102
Q

causes of erythema nodosum

A

infection
- TB

systemic disease
- sarcoidosis
- IBD

malignancy/lymphoma

drugs
- penicillins
- sulphonamides
- combined oral contraceptive pill

103
Q

Approach to erythema nodosum

A

Approach:
Try to identify the underlying cause.
DHx: recent changes to drugs?
Investigation:
CXR for TB/sarcoidosis

104
Q

what is erythroderma?

A

Erythroderma is a term used when more than 95% of the skin is involved in a rash of any kind.

105
Q

causes erythroderma

A

eczema
psoriasis
drugs e.g. gold
lymphomas, leukaemias
idiopathic

106
Q

trigger erythrodermic psoriasis

A

This may be triggered by a variety of factors such as withdrawal of systemic steroids.

107
Q

management erythroderma

A

hospitalisation for monitoring and to restore fluid and electrolyte balance, circulatory status, and body temperature.

108
Q

what is acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis?

A

Drug eruption

most often called by b lactam abx

109
Q

presentation AGEP

A

PC: high fever, sterile pustules, oedema, similar to acute pustular psoriasis
Onset less than 4 days

110
Q

presentation drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

A

Onset 15-40 days
PC: morbilliform, oedema, lymphadenopathy, purpura, scaling, maculopapular

111
Q

onset DRESS

A

15-40 days

112
Q

cause DRESS

A

drug eruption

Aciclovir
Sulfa drugs

113
Q

management DRESS

A

Withdrawal of the drug +/- systemic steroids in severe cases

Supportive care: fluids, nutrition, electrolytes

Topical steroid and emollient dressings 50:50

114
Q

Presentation erythema multiforme

A

PC: target lesions on back of or palms and soles → torso. The more severe form, erythema multiforme major is associated with mucosal involvement.

115
Q

Cause erythema multiforme

A

Cause: hypersensitivity, most commonly triggered by infections
viruses: herpes simplex virus (the most common cause), Orf*
idiopathic
bacteria: Mycoplasma, Streptococcus
drugs: penicillin, sulphonamides, carbamazepine, allopurinol, NSAIDs, oral contraceptive pill, nevirapine
connective tissue disease e.g. Systemic lupus erythematosus
sarcoidosis
malignancy

116
Q

management erythema multiforme

A

EM major requires discontinuing the offending agent and fluid
management, analgesics, wound care.

Although often given, systemic steroids are of unproven benefit.

117
Q

what are the 5 childhood exanthems

A

1 measles
2 scarlet fever
3
4 rubella
5 erythema infectionosum (parvovirus)
6 roseola infantum

118
Q

which of the childhood exanthems require school exlusion? how long for?

A

measles 4 days
rubella 5 days

scarlet fever 24 hours after abx

119
Q

how does scarlet fever spread

A

Scarlet fever is spread via the respiratory route by inhaling or ingesting respiratory droplets or by direct contact with nose and throat discharges, (especially during sneezing and coughing).

120
Q

what is scarlet fever

A

Scarlet fever is a reaction to erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (usually Streptococcus pyogenes).

121
Q

epidemiology scarlet fever

A

It is more common in children aged 2 - 6 years with the peak incidence being at 4 years.

122
Q

pathogen scarlet fever

A

streptococcus pyogenes

123
Q

features scarlet fever

A

fever: typically lasts 24 to 48 hours

malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting

sore throat

‘strawberry’ tongue

rash
fine punctate erythema (‘pinhead’) which generally appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles
children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. The rash is often more obvious in the flexures
it is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture
desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes

124
Q

features of the rash in scarlet fever

A

fine punctate erythema (‘pinhead’)

rough ‘sandpaper’ texture

125
Q

plan ?scarlet fever

A

investigation
1. throat swab

management
empirical (dont wait until swab back)
1. oral penicillin V for 10 days
2. patients who have a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin

126
Q

what should chidlren with a penicillin allergy be given for scarlet fever?

A

patients who have a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin

127
Q

when can a child return to school scarlet fever

A

children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

128
Q

most common complication scarlet fever

A

otitis media

129
Q

complications of scarlet fever

A

otitis media
rheumatic fever
acute glomerulonephritis
invasive complications e.g. bacteraemia, meningitis, necrotizing fasciitis

130
Q

what is rheumatic fever

A

an autoimmune condition triggered by streptococcus bacteria. It is caused by antibodies created against the streptococcus bacteria that also target tissues in the body.

131
Q

when does rheuamtic fever present vs infection

A

occurs 20 days after infection

132
Q

incubation period scarlet fever

A

2-4 days

133
Q

Jones criteria fir

A

The mnemonic for the Jones criteria is JONES – FEAR.
evidence of recent streptococcal infection, plus:
Two major criteria OR
One major criteria plus two minor criteria

Major Criteria:
J – Joint arthritis
O – Organ inflammation, such as carditis
N – Nodules
E – Erythema marginatum rash
S – Sydenham chorea

Minor Criteria:
Fever
ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) without carditis
Arthralgia without arthritis
Raised inflammatory markers (CRP and ESR)

134
Q

what systems and corresponding symptoms does rheuamtic fever affect

A

Joints
- arthritis (maj)
- arthralgia (min)

Skin
- nodules (maj)
- erythema marginatum (maj)

Heart
- carditis (maj)
- ECG Changes (prolonged PR interval) (min)

Neuro
- sydenham chorea

135
Q

Invetsigation ?rheuamtic fever

A
  • Throat swab for bacterial culture
  • ASO antibody titres
  • Echocardiogram, ECG and chest xray can assess the heart involvement

A diagnosis of rheumatic fever is made using the Jones criteria

136
Q

complication rheuamtic fever

A

Recurrence of rheumatic fever
Valvular heart disease, most notably mitral stenosis
Chronic heart failure

137
Q

how is rheuamtic fever managed

A

specialist

NSAIDs (e.g. ibuprofen) are helpful for treating joint pain
Aspirin and steroids are used to treat carditis
Prophylactic antibiotics (oral or intramuscular penicillin) are used to prevent further streptococcal infections and recurrence of the rheumatic fever. These are continued into adulthood.
Monitoring and management of complications

138
Q

causative organism erythema infectionosum

A

Parvovirus B19

139
Q

Presentation erythema infectionosum

A

mild fever, coryza, non-specific viral symptoms. After 2-5 days diffuse bright red rash on both cheeks (slapped cheeks). A few days later a reticular mildly erythematous rash affecting the trunk and limbs appears that can be raised and itchy. Reticular means net-like.

140
Q

characteristic of rash erythema infectionosum

A

diffuse bright red rash on both cheeks

A few days later a reticular mildly erythematous rash trunk and limbs raised and itchy. Reticular means net-like.

141
Q

management erythema infectionosum

A

Self limiting - symptoms usually fade over 1 – 2 weeks

142
Q

who is at risk of complications erythema infectiosum

A

Immunocompromised pts, pregnant women and patients with haematological conditions such as sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemia, hereditary spherocytosis and haemolytic anaemia

143
Q

most common complication erythema infectionosum

A

Aplastic anaemia - serology testing for parvovirus to confirm the diagnosis and checking of the full blood count and reticulocyte count for aplastic anaemia

144
Q

when is erythema infectionosum contagious

A

It is infectious prior to the rash forming, but once the rash has formed they are no longer infectious and do not need to stay off school.
No school exclusion

145
Q

presentation roseola infantum

A

high fever that lasts for 3-5 days then disappears. There may be coryzal symptoms, sore throat and swollen lymph nodes during the illness.WHEN THE FEVER SETTLES…, the rash appears for 1 – 2 days. The rash consists of a mild erythematous macular rash across the arms, legs, trunk and face and is not itchy.

146
Q

incubation period roseola infantum

A

1-2 weeks

147
Q

causative organism roseola infantum

A

HHV-6

148
Q

management roseola ifnantum

A

Children make a full recovery within a week

149
Q

main complication roseola infantum

A

febrile convulsions due to high temperature.
Immunocompromised patients may be at risk of rare complications such as myocarditis, thrombocytopenia and Guillain-Barre syndrome.

150
Q

what is pityriasis rosea?

A

acute, self-limiting rash which tends to affect young adults. The aetiology is not fully understood but is thought that herpes hominis virus 7 (HHV-7) may play a role.

151
Q

features pityriasis rosea

A

herald patch –> then erythematous, oval, scaly patches which follow a characteristic distribution with the longitudinal diameters of the oval lesions running parallel to the line of Langer. This may produce a ‘fir-tree’ appearance

152
Q

management pityriasis rosea

A

self-limiting - usually disappears after 6-12 weeks

153
Q

what may be confused for pityriasis rosea

A

gittate psoraisis

154
Q

what is bullous pemphigoid

A

autoimmune condition causing sub-epidermal blistering of the skin

155
Q

presentation bullous pemphigoid

A

PC: itchy, tense blisters typically around flexures
the blisters usually heal without scarring
there is stereotypically no mucosal involvement (i.e. the mouth is spared)

156
Q

investigation bullous pemphigoid

A

immunofluorescence shows IgG and C3 at the dermoepidermal junction

157
Q

management bullous pemphigoid

A

referral to a dermatologist for biopsy and confirmation of diagnosis
oral corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment
topical corticosteroids, immunosuppressants and antibiotics are also used

158
Q

what is pemphigus vulgaris

A

an autoimmune disease caused by antibodies directed against desmoglein 3, a cadherin-type epithelial cell adhesion molecule. It is more common in the Ashkenazi Jewish population.

159
Q

difference between bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus vulgaris

A

BP = no mucosal involvement

PV= mucosal involvement

in reality this isn’t clear cut

160
Q

invetsiagtion pemphigus vulgaris

A

skin biopsy

acantholysis on biopsy

161
Q

management pemphigus vulgaris

A

steroids are first-line
immunosuppressants

162
Q

presentation pemphigus vulgaris

A

PC: mucosal ulceration is common and often the presenting symptom. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients
skin blistering - flaccid, easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. Lesions are typically painful but not itchy. These may develop months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s describes the spread of bullae following application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin

163
Q

presentation chicken pox

A

widespread, erythematous, raised, vesicular (fluid filled), blistering lesions. The rash usually starts on the trunk or face and spreads outwards affecting the whole body over 2 – 5 days. Eventually the lesions scab over, at which point they stop being contagious.

Fever is often the first symptom
Itch
General fatigue and malaise

164
Q

infectivity of chicken pox, when? how?

A

Chickenpox is highly contagious and spread through direct contact with the lesions or through infected droplets from a cough or sneeze. Patients become symptomatic 10 days to 3 weeks after exposure. The stop being contagious after all the lesions have crusted over.

165
Q

complications chicken pox

A

Bacterial superinfection
Dehydration
Conjunctival lesions
Pneumonia
Encephalitis (presenting as ataxia)

166
Q

what increases the risk of bacterial superinfection chicken pox

A

NSAIDs

167
Q

when is aciclovir used for chicken pox

A

immunocompromised patients, adults and adolescents over 14 years presenting within 24 hours, neonates or those at risk of complications.

168
Q

management of itch in chicken pox

A

calamine lotion and chlorphenamine (antihistamine).

169
Q

infection control chicken pox

A

Patients should be kept off school and avoid pregnant women and immunocompromised patients until all the lesions are dry and crusted over. This is usually around 5 days after the rash appears.

170
Q

pathogen hand foot and mouth

A

intestinal viruses of the Picornaviridae family (most commonly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71)

171
Q

clinical features hand foot and mouth

A

mild systemic upset: sore throat, fever
oral ulcers
followed later by vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet

172
Q

management hand foot and mouth disease

A

symptomatic treatment only: general advice about hydration and analgesia

reassurance no link to disease in cattle

children do not need to be excluded from school
the HPA recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better
they also advise that you contact them if you suspect that there may be a large outbreak.

173
Q

infection control hand foot and mouth

A

children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better

174
Q

what is molloscum contagiosum

A

skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV), a member of the Poxviridae family.

175
Q

how does molloscum contaginosum spread

A

directly by close personal contact, or indirectly via fomites (contaminated surfaces) such as shared towels and flannels.

176
Q

epidemiology molloscum contagiosum

A

children (often in children with atopic eczema), with the maximum incidence in preschool children aged 1-4 years

177
Q

presentation molloscum contagiosum

A

characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication,

which are up to 5 mm in diameter. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body (except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet). In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, but anogenital lesions may also occur. In adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen. Rarely, lesions can occur on the oral mucosa and on the eyelids.

178
Q

mamagement molloscum contagiosum

A

Reassure people that molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition.
Spontaneous resolution usually occurs within 18 months

Encourage people not to scratch the lesions. If it is problematic, consider treatment to alleviate the itch

If lesions are troublesome or considered unsightly, use simple trauma or cryotherapy

179
Q

infection control molloscum contagiosum

A

sensible to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people (e.g. siblings)

Exclusion from school, gym, or swimming is not necessary

180
Q

what is eczema herpeticum

A

Viral skin infection in patients with eczema caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella zoster virus (VZV)

181
Q

pathogen eczema herpeticum

A

Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is the most common causative organism

can also be caused by VZV

182
Q

presentation eczema herpeticum

A

widespread, painful, vesicular rash with systemic symptoms such as fever, lethargy, irritability and reduced oral intake. There will usually be lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes).

in a pt with eczema

183
Q

plan ?eczema herpeticum

A

Viral swabs of the vesicles can be used to confirm the diagnosis, although treatment is usually started based on the clinical appearance.

Treatment is with aciclovir. A mild or moderate case may be treated with oral aciclovir, whereas more severe cases may require IV aciclovir.

abx for bacterial superinfection if req

can be v ill and LT if not treated properly

184
Q

presentation rosacea

A

typically affects nose, cheeks and forehead
flushing is often first symptom
telangiectasia are common
later develops into persistent erythema with papules and pustules
rhinophyma

185
Q

what makes rosacea worse

A

sunlight

186
Q

occular involvement rosacea?

A

blepharitis

187
Q

management rosacea

A

simple measures
- sunscreen
- camouflage creams

predominant erythema/flushing:
- topical brimonidine

mild-to-moderate papules and/or pustules:
- topical ivermectin

moderate-to-severe papules and/or pustules:
- topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline

188
Q

what is brimonidine

A

topical alpha-adrenergic agonist
this can be used on an ‘as required basis’ to temporarily reduce redness

it typically reduces redness within 30 minutes, reaching peak action at 3-6 hours, after which the redness returns to the baseline

189
Q

when should you rf someone w rosacea

A
  • if symptoms have not improved with optimal management in primary care
    (laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia)
  • patients with a rhinophyma
190
Q

what is rhinopyma

A

disfiguring nasal deformity due to the proliferation of sebaceous glands and underlying connective tissue

191
Q

what is shingles?

A

Shingles (herpes zoster infection) is an acute, unilateral, painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Following primary infection with VZV (chickenpox), the virus lies dormant in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia.

192
Q

features shingles

A

Features
prodromal period
burning pain over the affected dermatome for 2-3 days
pain may be severe and interfere with sleep
around 20% of patients will experience fever, headache, lethargy
rash
initially erythematous, macular rash over the affected dermatome
quickly becomes vesicular
characteristically is well demarcated by the dermatome and does not cross the midline. However, some ‘bleeding’ into adjacent areas may be seen

193
Q

most commonly affected dermatomes shingles

A

The most commonly affected dermatomes are T1-L2.

194
Q

management shingles

A
  1. remind patients they are potentially infectious
    may need to avoid pregnant women and the immunosuppressed
    should be advised that they are infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, usually 5-7 days following onset
    covering lesions reduces the risk

+ anaglgesia
paracetamol and NSAIDs are first-line
if not responding then use of neuropathic agents (e.g. amitriptyline) can be considered
oral corticosteroids may be considered in the first 2 weeks in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe and not responding to the above treatments

+ antivirals
within 72 hours for the majority of patients, unless the patient is < 50 years and has a ‘mild’ truncal rash associated with mild pain and no underlying risk factors
one of the benefits of prescribing antivirals is a reduced incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia, particularly in older people
aciclovir, famciclovir, or valaciclovir are recommended

195
Q

complication shingles?

A

post-herpetic neuralgia
the most common complication
more common in older patients
affects between 5%-30% of patients depending on age
most commonly resolves with 6 months but may last longer