1. Anaemia Flashcards

1
Q

What is anaemia ?

A

Low haemaglobin concentration

Adult Male 130 - 180 g/l
Adult Female 115 - 165 g/l

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2
Q

What does Haemaglobin (Hb) tell you? ranges?

A

Adult Male 130 - 180 g/l
Adult Female 115 - 165 g/l

Amount of haemoglobin in whole blood
low - Anaemia
high - Polycythaemia

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3
Q

History taking anaemia

A

Anaemia symptoms and complications: fatigue, tiredness, exercise intolerance, SOB, palpitations, oedema, pins and needles, weakness

Microcytic: blood loss - menorrhagia, harmaturia, change in bowel habit, surgery
Normocytic: bone pain, night sweats, weight loss, easy bruising, jaundice, itching
Macrocytic: cold intolerance, abdo distension

MHx chronic diseases, kidney problems, hypertension, liver problems, t1dm
DHx: methotrexate, alcohol, IDA risk drugs (use of aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, clopidogrel, corticosteroids, and long-term proton pump inhibitors)
FHx blood disorders, anyone require blood transfusion? Liver disease?
SHx : diet, recent travel

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4
Q

symptoms of anaemia?

A

Tiredness
Shortness of breath
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions, such as angina, heart failure or peripheral arterial disease

IDA
Pica (dietary cravings for abnormal things, such as dirt or soil)

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5
Q

Examination anaemia?

A

General inspection
- Hair loss
- Dry and rough skin, dry and damaged hair.
- Angular cheilosis (ulceration of the corners of the mouth).
- Atrophic glossitis.
- Nail changes, such as longitudinal ridging and koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails).

Abdominal examination
- peripheral signs of anaemia (pallor, dry skin, brittle hair, koilynycia, longitudinal ridging)
- ?bleed
- hepatosplenomegaly (extramedullary production)

Cardiac examination
- heart failure
- murmurs
- tachycardia

Neuro
- sensation and motor

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6
Q

Skin/mouth changes iron deficiency anameia

A

Dry and rough skin

Angular cheilosis (ulceration of the corners of the mouth).

Atrophic glossitis.

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7
Q

Nail changes iron defieceny anaemia

A

longitudinal ridging

koilonychia (spoon-shaped nails).

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8
Q

Blood tests for anaemia ?

A

Effects:
- FBC (Hb and MCV)
- Reticulocyte count

Microcytic
- iron studies (total iron, ferritin, TIBC)
- peripheral blood film
- Hb electrophoresis
- Blood film
- renal profile
- LFTs and bilirubin
- coeliac disease serology (anti-ttg)

Normocytic
- direct coombs test
- serum protein electrophoresis

Macrocytic
- B12, folate
- intrinsic factor antibodies
- thyroid function tests

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9
Q

what does reticulocyte tell you?

A

number of reticulocytes (immature RBCs) normal is 0.2-2%

Raised reticulocyte in presence of anaemia = bone marrow working to correct the anaemia. ​​This would therefore suggest red blood cells are being destroyed in the peripheral circulation (e.g. haemolysis, bleeding) rather than there being an issue with the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow itself.

Low reticulocyte count in the context of anaemia implies a problem with the bone marrow not being able to make enough cells. This could be due to nutritional deficiencies (e.g. B12/folate or iron) or a primary bone marrow disorder (e.g. aplastic anaemia, bone marrow infiltration from solid organ malignancies).

A raised reticulocyte count in the absence of anaemia may indicate that the body is effectively compensating for blood loss or haemolysis (i.e. the increased production is managing to replenish the number of cells being lost in the peripheral circulation). Alternatively, a raised reticulocyte count in the absence of anaemia may be due to the body adapting to increased oxygen demands.

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10
Q

what does red cell distribution tell you?

A

looks at range of sizes of RBC

Useful where there is a false normocytic MCV due to mix of micro and macro eg in iron, B12 and folate deficiency in coeliac disease

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11
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia

A

T – Thalassaemia
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
I – Iron deficiency anaemia
L – Lead poisoning
S – Sideroblastic anaemia

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12
Q

Causes of normocytic anaemia

A

There are 3 As and 2 Hs for normocytic anaemia:
A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of chronic disease
A – Aplastic anaemia
H – Haemolytic anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism

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13
Q

Causes of macrocytic anaemia

A

Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by:
B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency

Normoblastic macrocytic anaemia is caused by:
Alcohol
Reticulocytosis (usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs, such as azathioprine

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14
Q

Approach to microcytic anaemia

A
  1. Iron study
    - Fe, ferritin low. TIBC high = iron deficiency anaemia
    - Fe and TIBC are low but ferritin is high = anaemia of chronic disease
    - Fe high, ferritin high, TIBC low
    - Iron study normal = ?thalassemia
  2. Blood smear
    basophilic stippling and ringed sideroblasts = sideroblastic anaemia
  3. Hb electrophoresis
    Increased HbA2 = beta thalassemia
    HbH=Hb H disease (alpha thalassemia)
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15
Q

if youre measuring ferritin, what other test should you do?

A

CRP

it is an acute inflamamtory phase substance so will increase in inflammation (false normal result)

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16
Q

Causes of iron defieicny anaemia

A

Poor iron intake
Phytate (found in wholegrain cereals, nuts, seeds and legumes), polyphenols (found in tea and coffee) and calcium (in dairy products) impair iron absorption.
Failure of absorption: surgery, coeliac
Drugs (use of aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, clopidogrel, corticosteroids, and long-term proton pump inhibitors) Tetracyclines and quinolones chelate with iron so that neither the antibiotic nor the iron is absorbed.

Bleeding

Excessive requirement of iron: growth in children, pregnancy,

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17
Q

when should you refer patients with IDA

A

IDA 60+ = 2ww colorectal
IDA <60 = offer FIT test first
IDA <50 with rectal bleeding = 2ww colorectal

IDA women 55+ with haematuria = direct access USS endometrial
IDA 55+ with upper abdo pain = non-urgent direct access endoscopy - upper GI ca

All men and postmenopausal women with iron deficiency anaemia unless they have overt non-gastrointestinal bleeding = refer to gastro

any symptoms of specific cancers - refer to referral criteria

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18
Q

Management of iron defieicny anaemia

A
  • see if any referral needed quickly eg 2ww
  • FIT testing
  1. Address any underlying causes that can be managed in primary care (for example treat menorrhagia or stop nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, if possible).

+ 65 mg elemental iron (ferrous sulfate 200 mg) once daily (on an empty stomach)

+ advise the person to maintain an adequate balanced intake of iron-rich foods (for example dark green vegetables, iron-fortified bread, meat, apricots, prunes, and raisins) and consider referral to a dietitian

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19
Q

What are the main causes of bleeding leading to IDA

A

Malignancy: colon, oesophageal/stomach, endometrial

Menorrhagia: endometrial ca^, fibroids, dysfunctional uterine bleeding, hypothyroid, (see other topics)

Major trauma/surgery

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20
Q

main adverse effects iron supplements? what to do in that cirucmstance?

A

gastrointestinal disturbance

For people with significant intolerance to oral iron replacement therapy options include alternate day dosing, oral ferric maltol, or parenteral iron preparations.

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21
Q

Presentation of colorectal cancer

A

PC: change in bowel habit, rectal bleeding/melena, abdominal pain/cramping/discomfort, unexplained weight loss, anaemia, bowel obstruction

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22
Q

2ww criteria colorectal cancer

A

Refer adults using a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for colorectal cancer if:
they are aged 40 and over with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain or
they are aged 50 and over with unexplained rectal bleeding or
they are aged 60 and over with:
iron‑deficiency anaemia or
changes in their bowel habit, or
tests show occult blood in their faeces.

Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for colorectal cancer in adults with a rectal or abdominal mass.

Consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for colorectal cancer in adults aged under 50 with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings:
abdominal pain
change in bowel habit
weight loss
iron‑deficiency anaemia.

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23
Q

when are FIT tests used

A

FIT tests can be used as a test in general practice to help assess for bowel cancer in specific patients who do not meet the criteria for a two week wait referral, for example:

Over 50 with unexplained weight loss and no other symptoms
Under 60 with a change in bowel habit

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24
Q

FIT test screening program

A

screening every 2 years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening.

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25
Q

what do patients with newly diagnosed colorectal cancer need for staging

A

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis

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26
Q

gold standard investigation colorectal cancer

A

Colonoscopy

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27
Q

what classification is used to assess severity of colorectal cancer

A

TNM classification

T for Tumour:
TX – unable to assess size
T1 – submucosa involvement
T2 – involvement of muscularis propria (muscle layer)
T3 – involvement of the subserosa and serosa (outer layer), but not through the serosa
T4 – spread through the serosa (4a) reaching other tissues or organs (4b)

N for Nodes:
NX – unable to assess nodes
N0 – no nodal spread
N1 – spread to 1-3 nodes
N2 – spread to more than 3 nodes

M for Metastasis:
M0 – no metastasis
M1 – metastasis

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28
Q

Management colorectal cancer

A

surgical resection

Right hemicolectomy involves removal of the caecum, ascending and proximal transverse colon.

Left hemicolectomy involves removal of the distal transverse and descending colon.

High anterior resection involves removing the sigmoid colon (may be called a sigmoid colectomy).
Low anterior resection involves removing the sigmoid colon and upper rectum but sparing the lower rectum and anus.

Abdomino-perineal resection (APR) involves removing the rectum and anus (plus or minus the sigmoid colon) and suturing over the anus. It leaves the patient with a permanent colostomy.

Hartmann’s procedure is usually an emergency procedure that involves the removal of the rectosigmoid colon and creation of an colostomy. The rectal stump is sutured closed. The colostomy may be permanent or reversed at a later date. Common indications are acute obstruction by a tumour, or significant diverticular disease.

chemo and radiation for rectal

Bevacizumab (anti-VEGF) for mets

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29
Q

What is hartmanns procedure

A

Hartmann’s procedure is usually an emergency procedure that involves the removal of the rectosigmoid colon and creation of an colostomy. The rectal stump is sutured closed. The colostomy may be permanent or reversed at a later date. Common indications are acute obstruction by a tumour, or significant diverticular disease.

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30
Q

what is low anterior resection syndrome

A

Low anterior resection syndrome may occur after resection of a portion of bowel from the rectum, with anastomosis between the colon and rectum. It can result in a number of symptoms, including:
Urgency and frequency of bowel movements
Faecal incontinence
Difficulty controlling flatulence

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31
Q

follow up colorectal cancer after curative surgery

A

3 years

Serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
CT thorax, abdomen and pelvis

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32
Q

What % of colorectal cancer is related to genes

A

5%

hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC, 5%)
familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP, <1%)

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33
Q

Screening bowel cancer in lynch’s syndrome

A

colonoscopy every two years from the age of 25 until the number of polyps make prophylactic colectomy advisable. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy every two years from the age of 50.

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34
Q

Presentation endometrial cancer

A

post-menopausal bleeding is the classic symptom
pre-menopausal women may have a change intermenstrual bleeding
haematuria
pain and discharge are unusual features

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35
Q

Risk factors endometrial cancer

A

obesity
nulliparity
early menarche
late menopause
unopposed oestrogen. The addition of a progestogen to oestrogen reduces this risk (e.g. In HRT). The BNF states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously
diabetes mellitus
tamoxifen
polycystic ovarian syndrome

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36
Q

Invetsigations endometrial cancer

A

first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound - a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm) has a high negative predictive value

hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

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37
Q

Management endometrial cancer

A

localised disease is treated with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Patients with high-risk disease may have post-operative radiotherapy
progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women not consider suitable for surgery

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38
Q

Referral criteria upper GI malignancy

A
  1. Immediate endoscopy if evidence eg GI bleed (melena, coffee ground vomit)

2ww urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy if:
- dysphagia
- aged 55 and over with weight loss and any of the following:
- upper abdominal pain
- reflux
- dyspepsia.

Consider non‑urgent direct access upper GI endoscopy if:
- haematemesis

Consider non‑urgent direct access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to assess for stomach cancer in people aged 55 or over with:
- treatment‑resistant dyspepsia
- upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels
- raised platelet count with any of the following:
nausea
vomiting
weight loss
reflux
dyspepsia
upper abdominal pain

  • nausea or vomiting with any of the following:
    weight loss
    reflux
    dyspepsia
    upper abdominal pain.
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39
Q

Most common type of oesophageal cancer UK

A

adenocarcinoma which is present in lower ⅓ of oesophagus,

in other parts of the world, squamous cell carcinoma is most common, present in upper ⅔ of oesophagus.

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40
Q

Presentation oesophageal cancer

A

PC: dysphagia: the most common presenting symptom, anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, cough

MHx: GORD, barretts oesophagus, obesity (if adenocarcinoma)
DHx
FHx
SHx: smoking, alcohol

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41
Q

Plan oesophageal cancer

A

Investigation:
Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy for diagnosis
CT and endoscopy USS used for staging

Management:
surgical management if operbale - Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy
adjuvant chemotherapy

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42
Q

Priamry risk factor for gastric cancer

A

Helicobacter pylori infection is the primary risk factor for gastric cancer, accounting for approximately 75% of cases

Persistent infection with H. pylori can induce chronic inflammation, leading to atrophic gastritis, intestinal metaplasia, dysplasia, and eventually, gastric adenocarcinoma.

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43
Q

Risk factors gastric cancer

A

PRIAMRY - h.pylori

Additional:
Dietary factors: High salt intake, consumption of smoked or preserved foods, and low intake of fruits and vegetables
Smoking
Alcohol consumption
Pernicious anaemia and atrophic gastritis
Family history of gastric cancer
Genetic syndromes (e.g., hereditary diffuse gastric cancer, Lynch syndrome)

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44
Q

Presentation gastric cancer

A

PC:
Symptoms of gastric cancer are often nonspecific, especially in the early stages. Common clinical features include:
Dyspepsia or indigestion
Epigastric pain
Early satiety or postprandial fullness
Weight loss
Anaemia
Nausea and vomiting
Gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., melena, haematemesis)

Advanced disease may present with additional signs, such as palpable abdominal mass, ascites, and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (Virchow’s node).

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45
Q

Examination findings gastric cancer

A

Advanced disease may present with additional signs, such as palpable abdominal mass, ascites, and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy (Virchow’s node).

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46
Q

Platelet count cancer

A

High

Cancer is believed to induce platelet formation through the release of interleukin 6, a proinflammatory cytokine that stimulates the production of thrombopoietin hormone.

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47
Q

Investigations gastric cancer

A

diagnosis: endoscopy with biopsy
staging: CT or endoscopic ultrasound - endoscopic ultrasound has recently been shown to be superior to CT

CT scanning of the chest abdomen and pelvis is the routine first line staging investigation in most centres.
Laparoscopy to identify occult peritoneal disease
PET CT (particularly for junctional tumours)

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48
Q

Management gastric cancer

A

Chemo
Radiation
Surgery

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49
Q

Pathophysiology anaemia of chronic disease

A

Occurs in patients with chronic infections and inflammatory disease
TB, chrons, RA, SLE, malignancy

Inflammation → release of cytokines → release of hepicidin → anaemia

Hepcidin:
Inhibits intestinal iron absorption
Inhibits iron release from iron stores
Inhibits EPO sensitivity
Reduces erythrocyte lifespan

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50
Q

MCV anaemia of chronic disease

A

FBC - normocytic anaemia then microcytic as iron is depleted

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51
Q

Iron studies iron deficiency anaemia

A

Fe low
Ferritin low
TIBC high
Transferrin saturations low

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52
Q

Iron studies anameia of chronic disease

A

Fe low
Ferritin high (stored iron cant be utilised)
TIBC low (stored iron cant be utilised)
Transferrin saturations low

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53
Q

management anaemia of chronic disease

A

Don’t respond to iron therapy
Treat underlying disorder

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54
Q

Causes of sideroblastic anaemia

A

Inherited
gene defect
Acquired
alcohol excess
lead poisoning
Copper deficiency
B6 deficiency
Drugs
Myelodysplasia / AML

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55
Q

features of lead poisoning

A

Abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy motor, blue lines on gum margin

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56
Q

Pathophysiology sideroblastic anaemia

A

Immature RBC - constellation of iron as there is a defect in protoporphyrin synthesis → cant form heme → Iron trapped within cell (in mitochondria)

Iron built up → organ damage eg damage to kidneys, liver, spleen, heart etc

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57
Q

Iron studies sideroblastic anaemia

A

Fe high
Ferritin high
TIBC low
Transferrin saturations high

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58
Q

Investigations sideroblastic anaemia

A

Low RBC, low haemoglobin, low hematocrit
Serum iron high
Ferritin high
TIBC low
Transferrin saturations high

Peripheral blood smear = basophilic stippling
Bone marrow biopsy = ringed sideroblasts

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59
Q

Examination finding siderobalastic anaemia

A

Hepatosplenomegaly is found in a third to a half of people with sideroblastic anaemia and is not present in iron deficiency anaemia.

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60
Q

Management of siderobalstic anaemia

A

Stop offending agent
Pyridoxine (B6) supplement - cofactor in gene pathway

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61
Q

Inheritance thalassemia

A

autosomal recessive

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62
Q

Pathophysiology thalassemia

A

genetic defect in the protein chains that make up haemoglobin. Normal haemoglobin consists of 2 alpha and 2 beta-globin chains.

Defects in alpha-globin chains leads to alpha thalassaemia. Defects in the beta-globin chains leads to beta thalassaemia.

In thalassaemia, the red blood cells are more fragile and break down more easily. The spleen acts as a sieve to filter the blood and remove older blood cells. In thalassaemia the spleen collects all the destroyed red blood cells and swells, resulting in splenomegaly.

The bone marrow expands to produce extra red blood cells to compensate for the chronic anaemia. This causes a susceptibility to fractures and prominent features such as a pronounced forehead and malar eminences (cheekbones).

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63
Q

Signs and symptoms thalassemia and pathophysiology of symptoms

A

Microcytic anaemia (low mean corpuscular volume) (less stuff in the RBC)
Fatigue (anaemia)
Pallor (anaemia)
Jaundice (quicker breakdown)
Gallstones (higher bilirubin due to RBC breakdown –> ppt gallstones)
Splenomegaly (swelling due to increased use - removing old RBC)
Hepatomegaly related to significant extramedullary hematopoiesis
Poor growth and development (anaemia?)
Pronounced forehead and malar eminences (extramedullary production of RBC)

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64
Q

Invetsigations thalassemia

A

Full blood count shows a microcytic anaemia.
Haemoglobin electrophoresis is used to diagnose globin abnormalities.
DNA testing can be used to look for the genetic abnormality

Pregnant women in the UK are offered a screening test for thalassemia at booking.

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65
Q

Why does iron overload occur in thalassemia? symptoms?

A

Iron overload occurs in thalassaemia as a result of faulty creation of red blood cells, recurrent transfusions and increased absorption of iron in response to the anaemia.

Iron overload in thalassaemia causes effects similar to haemochromatosis:
Fatigue
Liver cirrhosis
Infertility and impotence
Heart failure
Arthritis
Diabetes
Osteoporosis and joint pain

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66
Q

why do you need to check ferritin thalassemia patients

A

Patients with thalassaemia have serum ferritin levels monitored to check for iron overload. Management involves limiting transfusions and iron chelation.

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67
Q

what chromosome is genes alpha thalassemia

A

chromosome 16

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68
Q

Alpha thalassemia genes explanation and results

A

Gene HBA1 and HBA2
So 4 alleles in each parent
Pass on 2 each to child

either present or deleted

In child:
number of missing alleles

1 missing - silent carrier
2 misisng - alpha thalssemia trait
3 missing - HbH disease
4 missing - Hb Bart’s - hydrops fetalis

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69
Q

what is alpha thalssemia trait

A

2 alleles missing - minor anaemia

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70
Q

What is HbH disease? how is patient affected?

A

3 missing alleles - alpha thalssemia

mild to moderate haemolytic anaemia, which may or may not require medical intervention. Cases can be severe – usually during an acute illness or increased metabolic exacerbation, such as during pregnancy.

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71
Q

What is Hb Barts disease?

A

4 missing alleles alpha thalassemia

incompatible with life

usually die in utero

hydrops fetalis

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72
Q

ethnicity risk alpha thalssemia

A

Southeast Asia, the Middle East, China, and in those of African descent.

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73
Q

What chromosome beta thalassemia

A

chromosome 11

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74
Q

Beta thalassmeia gene and explanation inheritance

A

HBB gene chromosome 11
Both parents have 2 alleles
Pass on 1 each

Gene either fucntional, partially functional (+), or no fucntion (0)

B0/B0 - beta thalassemia major - severe symptomatic anaemia age 2

B+/B+ or B+/B0 - beta thalassemia intermedia - symptomatic later in life moderate

B/B+ or B/B0 - beta thalassemia minor/trait - asymptomatic/mild

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75
Q

Presentation beta thalassemia major

A

present within the first two years of life with symptomatic severe anemia, poor growth, and skeletal abnormalities. Untreated thalassemia major eventually leads to death, usually by heart failure; therefore, prenatal screening is very important.

transfusiond ependent

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76
Q

Presentation beta thalssemia intermedia

A

Those with beta thalassemia intermedia (those who are compound heterozygotes for the beta thalassemia mutation) usually present later in life with mild to moderate symptoms of anemia

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77
Q

PResentation beta thalssemia minor/trait

A

Beta thalassemia trait (also known as beta thalassemia minor) involves heterozygous inheritance of a beta-thalassemia mutation and patients usually have borderline microcytic, hypochromic anemia and they are usually asymptomatic or have mild symptoms.

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78
Q

ethnicity beta thalssemia

A

Beta thalassemia most often occurs in people of Mediterranean origin. To a lesser extent, Chinese, other Asians, and African Americans can be affected.

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79
Q

Management thalassemia

A

Depending on the type/severity, there are different treatment requirements and options including:
Monitoring the full blood count
Monitoring for complications
Blood transfusions
Iron chelation- desferrioxamine
Splenectomy may be performed
Bone marrow transplant can be curative

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80
Q

which thalassemia is usually transfusiond ependent

A

beta major

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81
Q

microscopy megaloblastic anaemia

A

hypersegmented neutrophils - (more than 5 lobes)

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82
Q

Approach to macrocytic anaemia

A
  1. Check folate and B12 levels
  2. If normal : non megaloblastic causes (liver disease, alcohol, hypothyroid, reticulocytosis)
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83
Q

pathophysiology megalobastic anaemia

A

Megaloblastic anaemia results from impaired DNA synthesis, preventing the cells from dividing normally. Rather than dividing, they grow into large, abnormal cells.

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84
Q

most common cause megaloblastic anaemia

A

Pernicious anaemia accounts for 80% of cases of megaloblastic anaemia due to impaired absorption of vitamin B12.

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85
Q

vitamin b12 defienct values? what other invetsigations support?

A

Deficiency is likely: <148 picomole/L
Deficiency is probable: 148 to 258 picomole/L
Deficiency is unlikely: >258 picomole/L

Methylmalonic acid (MMA) and homocysteine (Hcy) level - both usually elevated with low B12- supports diagnosis

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86
Q

Presentation b12 defieciency

A

Haematological: anaemia and associated symptoms

Neurological: subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord (SACD) - bilateral dorsal column signs, may have bilateral corticospinal tract signs (affects posterior cord)
and sensory loss peripheral neuropathy

Psychiatric: mild neurosis to severe dementia; depression, personality change, psychosis, bipolar disorder, panic disorder and phobia

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87
Q

presentation subacute degeneration of spinal cord

A

bilateral dorsal column signs, may have bilateral corticospinal tract signs (affects posterior cord)

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88
Q

prevention subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord

A

Always replace vitamin B12 before folate - giving folate to a patient deficient in B12 can precipitate subacute combined degeneration of the cord

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89
Q

causes b12 deficiency

A

Malabsorption, e.g. Pernicious anaemia, Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis
Inadequate intake, e.g. vegan or vegetarian diet
Increase in requirement, e.g. pregnancy, hyperthyroidism
Drug induced (OCP)
Congenital, e.g. cobalamin transport disorder

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90
Q

investigations pernicious anaemia

A

Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies for pernicious anaemia

Anti-parietal cell antibodies (to confirm/refute if anti-intrinsic antibodies negative)

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91
Q

what are people with pernicious anaemia at increased risk of?

A

gastric cancer

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92
Q

management b12 deficieny

A

With neurological involvement
Replacement therapy:
- IM hydroxocobalamin 1mg once daily on alternative days until no further improvement
Maintenance therapy:
- IM Hydroxocobalamin 1mg, which usually lasts for life, once every 2 months

Without neurological involvement
Replacement therapy:
- IM Hydroxocobalamin 1mg three times a week for 2 weeks
Maintenance therapy (diet related):
- IM Hydroxocobalamin 1mg twice a year
Maintenance therapy (non-diet related):
- IM Hydroxocobalamin 1mg once every 2-3 months for life

Within 7 to 10 days of starting treatment, FBC should be performed to check for treatment response.
No response: check serum folate level
Haemoglobin level and reticulocyte index above normal range: adequate treatment

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93
Q

other name for b12

A

cobalamin

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94
Q

causes folate deficiency

A

Folate deficiency is often caused by problems with dietary intake alone, or in a combination with increased folate usage, or malabsorption. For example:

Drugs — alcohol, anticonvulsants, nitrofurantoin, sulfasalazine, methotrexate, trimethoprim.

Excessive requirements in pregnancy, malignancy, blood disorders, or malabsorption.

Excessive urinary excretion.

Liver disease.

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95
Q

management folate deficiency

A

Prescribe oral folic acid 5 mg daily — in most people, treatment will be required for 4 months.
However, folic acid may need to be taken for longer (sometimes for life) if the underlying cause of deficiency is persistent.

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96
Q

what do you need to check before giving folate

A

Check vitamin B12 levels in all people before starting folic acid

ALWAYS CORRECT B12 BEFORE FOLATE

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97
Q

Presentation coeliac disease

A

Coeliac disease is often asymptomatic, so have a low threshold for testing for coeliac disease in patients where it is suspected. Symptoms can include:

Failure to thrive in young children
Features may coincide with the introduction of cereals (i.e. gluten)
Diarrhoea
Fatigue
Weight loss
Mouth ulcers
Anaemia secondary to iron, B12 or folate deficiency
Dermatitis herpetiformis is an itchy blistering skin rash that typically appears on the abdomen

Rarely coeliac disease can present with neurological symptoms:
Peripheral neuropathy
Cerebellar ataxia
Epilepsy

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98
Q

genetic associations coeliac

A

HLA-DQ2 gene (90%)
HLA-DQ8 gene

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99
Q

auto-antibodies coeliac

A

Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG)
Endomysial antibodies (EMAs)

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100
Q

when testing for auto-antibodies, what else do you need to test for

A

total IgA

When you test for these antibodies, it is important to test for total Immunoglobulin A levels because if total IgA is low the coeliac test will be negative even when they have the condition. In this circumstance you can test for the IgG version of the anti-TTG or anti-EMA antibodies or do an endoscopy with biopsies.

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101
Q

what will endoscopy biposy show coeliac disease

A

“Crypt hypertrophy”
“Villous atrophy”

102
Q

where in SI should bipsy be taken from coeliac

A

duodenum classically. jejunum most affected

103
Q

Investigations coeliac

A
  1. auto-antibody testing
    Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG)
    Endomysial antibodies (EMAs)
  2. If positive –>
    Arrange referral for young people and adults to a gastroenterologist for specialist endoscopic intestinal biopsy to confirm or exclude the diagnosis.
    Arrange referral for children to a paediatric gastroenterologist for further investigation to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. This may include further serology testing, intestinal biopsy, human leukocyte antigen (HLA) genetic testing, or a combination of these.
104
Q

associations coeliac

A

Type 1 diabetes
Thyroid disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Down’s syndrome

105
Q

complications untreated coeliac

A

Vitamin deficiency
Anaemia
Osteoporosis
Ulcerative jejunitis
Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL) of the intestine
Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)
Small bowel adenocarcinoma (rare)

106
Q

anaemia alcohol

A

Macrocytic
1. Folate deficiency
chronic alcohol exposure impairs folate absorption by inhibiting expression of the reduced folate carrier and decreasing the hepatic uptake and renal conservation of circulating folate.

heavy alcohol consumption can cause generalized suppression of blood cell production and the production of structurally abnormal blood cell precursors that cannot mature into functional cells. Alcoholics frequently have defective red blood cells that are destroyed prematurely, possibly resulting in anemia.

In many alcoholic patients, blood loss and subsequent iron deficiency are caused by gastrointestinal bleeding.

107
Q

How does hypothyroid cause anaemia

A

The low thyroid hormone levels of hypothyroidism suppress the activity of bone marrow, the tissue that makes red blood cells.

108
Q

TFTs hypothyroid

A

TSH is raised, and T3 and T4 are low

109
Q

autoantibodies hashimotos

A

anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies and anti-thyroglobulin (anti-Tg) antibodies

110
Q

What drugs can ppt hypothyroid

A

Lithium inhibits the production of thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland and can cause a goitre and hypothyroidism.

Amiodarone interferes with thyroid hormone production and metabolism, usually causing hypothyroidism but can also cause thyrotoxicosis.

111
Q

presentation hypothyroid

A

Weight gain
Fatigue
Dry skin
Coarse hair and hair loss
Fluid retention (including oedema, pleural effusions and ascites)
Heavy or irregular periods
Constipation

112
Q

causes secondary hypothyroid

A

Secondary hypothyroidism is often associated with a lack of other pituitary hormones, such as ACTH, referred to as hypopituitarism. This is rarer than primary hypothyroidism, and may be caused by:
Tumours (e.g., pituitary adenomas)
Surgery to the pituitary
Radiotherapy
Sheehan’s syndrome (where major post-partum haemorrhage causes avascular necrosis of the pituitary gland)
Trauma

113
Q

examination hashimotos

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can initially cause a goitre, after which there is atrophy (wasting) of the thyroid gland.

114
Q

management hypothyroid

A

Oral levothyroxine is the mainstay of treatment of hypothyroidism. Levothyroxine is a synthetic version of T4 and metabolises to T3 in the body.
The dose is titrated based on the TSH level, initially every 4 weeks.

115
Q

How does liver disease cause anaemia

A

Microcytic:IDA due to acute or chronic blood loss into the gastrointestinal tract. Anemia of chronic disease

Normocytic: early stages of anaemia of chronic disease

Macrocytic : lipid deposition on RBC membranes making them bigger

116
Q

Causes normocytic anaemia

A

Haemolytic: RBC are normal but are being destroyed
Non-haemolytic: RBC are either being lost or not being made by BM

There are 3 As and 2 Hs for normocytic anaemia:
A – Acute blood loss
A – Anaemia of chronic disease and chronic kidney disease
A – Aplastic anaemia
H – Haemolytic anaemia
H – Hypothyroidism

117
Q

causes haemolytic anaemia

A

Rhesus - haemolytic anaemia of the newborn
Hereditary spherocytosis
G6PD deficiency
Sickle cell disease
Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
ttp
Extrinsic causes : eg malaria, clostridium, burns, mediations, prosthetic heart valves

118
Q

why is rhesus status important? what does it mean?

A

The rhesus D antigen is found on RBC.

If someone who is rhesus negative, comes into contact with the rhesus antigen - it sees this as foreign and creates antibodies.

It is important to pick up rhesus-D negative mothers as they may have rhesus positive babies

If the baby’s blood comes into contact with the mothers blood then the mother will produce antibodies against the babies blood (sensitisation)

In future pregnancies, the mothers immune system may initiate a full scale attack and destroy the babies RBC.

Once sensitisation has occurred, there is nothing that can be done. therefore prophylaxis is important to prevent sensitisation

119
Q

How does anti-D work?

A

The anti-D medication works by attaching itself to the rhesus-D antigens on the fetal red blood cells in the mothers circulation, causing them to be destroyed. This prevents the mother’s immune system recognising the antigen and creating it’s own antibodies to the antigen. It acts as a prevention for the mother becoming sensitised to the rhesus-D antigen.

120
Q

When is anti-D given?

A

Anti-D injections are given routinely on two occasions:
- 28 weeks gestation
- Birth (if the baby’s blood group is found to be rhesus-positive)

Anti-D injections should also be given at any time where sensitisation may occur

Anti-D is given within 72 hours of a sensitisation event. If a sensitisation test occurs after 20 weeks gestation, the Kleinhauer test is performed to see how much fetal blood has passed into the mother’s blood, to determine whether further doses of anti-D are required.

121
Q

In what situations should an anti-D be given within 72 hours

A

delivery of a Rh +ve infant, whether live or stillborn

any termination of pregnancy

miscarriage if gestation is > 12 weeks

ectopic pregnancy if managed surgically

external cephalic version

antepartum haemorrhage

amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, fetal blood sampling

abdominal trauma

122
Q

Tests for rhesus sensitisation ?

A

all babies born to Rh -ve mother should have cord blood taken at delivery for FBC, blood group & direct Coombs test

Coombs test: direct antiglobulin, will demonstrate antibodies on RBCs of baby

Kleihauer test: add acid to maternal blood, fetal cells are resistant (do after a sensitisation event to see if further foses of anti-d are required)

123
Q

How will an affected fetus present - rhesus sensitisation? pathophysiology? tretament?

A

jaundice –> kerinicterus, anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly:
anaemia is caused by the destruction of the RBC by the mothers antibodies, jaundice occurs as there is lots of bilirubin from the breakdown of RBC. The spleen is enlarged as it is processing a lrge number of RBC. the liver is large as it is trying to make much more RBC than normal.

oedema and hydrops fetalis:
liver is under strain from making more RBC that other functions suffer such as albumin production. this leads to leakage of fluid into tissues and body cavities, termed hydrops fetalis.

heart failure:
liver is under strain so portal hypertension devlops which strains the heart and ciruclatory system. Also, the severe anemia taxes the heart to compensate by increasing output in an effort to deliver oxygen to the tissues and results in a condition called high output cardiac failure.

treatment: transfusions, UV phototherapy

124
Q

why does rhesus only cause outcomes in subsequent pregnancies and not the first?

A

IgM antibodies do not cross the placental barrier, which is why no effects to the fetus are seen in first pregnancies for Rh-D mediated disease.

However, in subsequent pregnancies with Rh+ fetuses, the IgG memory B cells mount an immune response when re-exposed, and these IgG anti-Rh(D) antibodies do cross the placenta and enter fetal circulation.

125
Q

pathophysiology g6pd

A

↓ G6PD → ↓ reduced NADPH → ↓ reduced glutathione → increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress

G6PD deficiency renders RBCs susceptible to oxidative stress, which shortens RBC survival. Hemolysis occurs following an oxidative challenge, commonly after fever, acute viral or bacterial infections, and diabetic ketoacidosis.

126
Q

Presentation G6PD and spherocytosis

A

acute episodes of haemolysis
neonatal jaundice
gallstones
splenomegaly
failure to thrive

127
Q

inheritance g6pd

A

X-linked

grandpa- dad

128
Q

blood film g6pd

A

Heinz bodies on blood films. Bite and blister cells may also be seen

129
Q

diagnosis g6pd

A

Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay

levels should be checked around 3 months after an acute episode of hemolysis, RBCs with the most severely reduced G6PD activity will have hemolysed → reduced G6PD activity → not be measured in the assay → false negative results

130
Q

things that may precipitate a crisis g6pd

A

anti-malarials: primaquine
ciprofloxacin
sulph- group drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine, sulfonylureas

acute illness
DKA

fava (broad) beans

131
Q

ethnicity RF g6pd

A

Mediterranean and Africa

132
Q

ethnicity spherocytosis

A

northern European descent

133
Q

inheritance spherocytosis

A

autosomal diminant

134
Q

diagnosis spherocytosis

A
  1. if family history of HS, typical clinical features and laboratory investigations (spherocytes, raised mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration [MCHC], increase in reticulocytes) do not require any additional tests
  2. EMA binding test and the cryohaemolysis test
  3. for atypical presentations electrophoresis analysis of erythrocyte membranes is the method of choice
134
Q

Pathophysiology spherocytosis

A

defect of red blood cell cytoskeleton
the normal biconcave disc shape is replaced by a sphere-shaped red blood cell
red blood cell survival reduced as destroyed by the spleen

135
Q

management spherocytosis acute adn chronic

A

acute haemolytic crisis:
treatment is generally supportive
transfusion if necessary

longer term treatment:
folate replacement
splenectomy

136
Q

neonatal jaundice <24 hours, plan?

A

<24 hours PATHOLOGICAL - check bilirubin level and do peripheral blood smear

137
Q

Pathophysiology sickle cell

A

Patients with sickle-cell disease have an abnormal variant called haemoglobin S (HbS). HbS causes red blood cells to be an abnormal “sickle” shape.

sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse; they block small blood vessels and cause infarction

more RBC need to be created to compensate for early destruction

138
Q

what may precipitate a crisis spherocytosis

A

parvovirus infection

138
Q

FBC findings spherocytosis

A

raised mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration [MCHC]

increase in reticulocytes

139
Q

when do symptoms of sickle cell anaemia usually develop

A

Symptoms in homozygotes don’t tend to develop until 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules take over from fetal haemoglobin.

140
Q

inheritance sickle cell

A

autosomal recessive

HbAA = normal
HbAS = sickle cell trait
HbSS = sickle cell disease

141
Q

ethnicity sickle cell

A

Sickle cell disease is more common in patients from areas traditionally affected by malaria, such as Africa, India, the Middle East and the Caribbean. Having one copy of the gene (sickle-cell trait) reduces the severity of malaria

142
Q

when is diagnosis of sickle cell made

A

Pregnant women at risk of being carriers of the sickle cell gene are offered testing during pregnancy.

Sickle cell disease is also tested for on the newborn screening heel prick test at 5 days of age.

143
Q

Complications of sickle cell

A

Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
Stroke
Avascular necrosis in large joints such as the hip
Pulmonary hypertension
Painful and persistent penile erection (priapism)
Chronic kidney disease
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome

144
Q

General management of sickle cell

A

Avoid dehydration and other triggers of crises

Ensure vaccines are up to date
- Influenza vaccine annually.
- Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccinePPV23 vaccine every 5 years.

Antibiotic prophylaxis to protect against infection, usually with penicillin V (phenoxymethypenicillin)

Hydroxycarbamide can be used to stimulate production of fetal haemoglobin (HbF). Fetal haemoglobin does not lead to sickling of red blood cells. This has a protective effect against sickle cell crises and acute chest syndrome.

Blood transfusion for severe anaemia

Bone marrow transplant can be curative

145
Q

what does sickle cell crisis mean? causes?

A

Sickle cell crisis is an umbrella term for a spectrum of acute crises related to the condition. These range from mild to life threatening. They can occur spontaneously or be triggered by stresses such as infection, dehydration, cold or significant life events.

Blood cells blocking blood flow
Vaso-occlusive crisis (painful crisis) eg priapism and acute chest
Splenic sequestration

Loss of creation of new blood cells
Aplastic crisis

146
Q

pain management sickle cell crisis

A

follow care plan

  1. prescribe paracetamol and/or ibuprofen (avoid ibuprofen if the person has renal impairment or significant proteinuria).
  2. Weak opioids can be used for more severe pain (dihydrocodeine in children aged under 13 years and codeine phosphate in people aged over 13 years
147
Q

presentation and manageemnt priapism sickle cell

A

Obstruction of venous outflow from the corpora cavernosa by sickled cells may cause persistent penile erection accompanied by pain.

This is a urological emergency and is treated with aspiration of blood from the penis.

148
Q

Pathophysiology acute chest

A

Acute chest syndrome occurs due to vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary vasculature of patients with sickle cell disease. This results in deoxygenation of hemoglobin and sickling of erythrocytes, which can then cause further vaso-occlusion, ischemia, and endothelial injury.

Acute chest syndrome can be due to infection (e.g. pneumonia or bronchiolitis) or non-infective causes (e.g. pulmonary vaso-occlusion or fat emboli).

149
Q

define acute chest sickle cell

A

Defined as a new pulmonary infiltrate on the chest radiograph combined with one or more manifestations such as fever, cough, sputum production, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, or new-onset hypoxia.

150
Q

manageemnt acute chest sickle cell

A

Antibiotics or antivirals for infections
Blood transfusions for anaemia
Incentive spirometry using a machine that encourages effective and deep breathing
Artificial ventilation with NIV or intubation may be required

151
Q

what is splenic sequestration

A

Splenic sequestration crisis is caused by red blood cells blocking blood flow within the spleen. This causes an acutely enlarged and painful spleen. The pooling of blood in the spleen can lead to severe anaemia and circulatory collapse (hypovolemic shock).

152
Q

management splenic sequestraton

A

Splenic sequestration crisis is considered an emergency. Management is supportive, with blood transfusions and fluid resuscitation to treat anaemia and shock.

Splenectomy prevents sequestration crisis and is often used in cases of recurrent crises. Recurrent crises can lead to splenic infarction, resulting in susceptibility to infections.

153
Q

what is an aplastic crisis sickle cell usually caused by? management?

A

Aplastic crisis describes a situation where there is temporary loss of the creation of new blood cells. This is most commonly triggered by infection with parvovirus B19.

It leads to significant anaemia. Management is supportive with blood transfusions if necessary. It usually resolves spontaneously within a week.

154
Q

what infections are people will sickle cell anemia particularly susceptible to

A

encapsulated bacteria, in particular Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) and Haemophilus influenzae.

due to reduced fucntion of spleen

155
Q

Causes of non-haemolytic normocytic anaemia

A

CKD: low reticulocyte
Blood loss : high reticulocyte
Aplastic anaemia : low reticulocyte

156
Q

how does CKD cause anaemia? what type

A

Non-haemolytic normocytic

Kidneys secrete EPO
EPO stimulates RBC production from the bone marrow

In CKD the kidney is damaged and there is decreased production of EPO
This leads to normocytic anaemia as the bone marrow is under stimulated to produce RBC
Patients can receive EPO injections

157
Q

what does aplastic anaemia mean

A

Aplastic is a rare condition characterised by pancytopenia and a hypoplastic bone marrow.

158
Q

blood results aplastic anaemia

A

need 2 of following:

Haemoglobin concentration below 100 g/L. Normochromic, normocytic
Platelet count below 50 x 109/L.
Neutrophil count below 1.5 x 109/L. with lymphocytes relatively spared

(low reticulocyte count)

159
Q

presentation aplastic anaemia

A

Patients with aplastic anaemia most commonly present with symptoms of anaemia (pallor, headache, palpitations, dyspneoa, fatigue, or ankle oedema)

and thrombocytopenia (skin or mucosal haemorrhage, visual disturbance due to retinal haemorrhage, petechial rashes).

Infection - a less common presentation.

There is no lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly (in the absence of infection).

160
Q

causes aplastic anaemia

A

Idiopathic (70-80%)
Congenital: Fanconi anaemia, dyskeratosis congenita
Drugs: cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, gold
Toxins: benzene
Infections: parvovirus, hepatitis → 5-10% of severe acquired cases are preceded by seronegative hepatitis
Radiation

161
Q

history taking aplastic anameia - thinsg that would point to a specific cause

A

Children: short stature, café au lait spots and skeletal anomalies suggest the possibility of a congenital form of aplastic anaemia

A family history of cytopenias should raise suspicion of an inherited disorder even when no physical abnormalities are present

A preceding history of jaundice, usually 2-3 months before, may indicate a post-hepatitis aplastic anaemia.

162
Q

management aplastic anaemia

A

Supportive
Blood products
Prevention and treatment of infection

Anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) and anti-lymphocyte globulin (ALG):

Prepared in animals (e.g. rabbits or horses) by injecting human lymphocytes
Is highly allergenic and may cause serum sickness (fever, rash, arthralgia), therefore steroid cover usually given
Immunosuppression using agents such as ciclosporin may also be given

Allogeneic transplants have a success rate of up to 80%

163
Q

inheritance fanconi anaemia

A

autosomal recessive

164
Q

what is fanconi anaemia

A

Fanconi anaemia (FA) is a rare, AR, genetic disease resulting in impaired response to DNA damage in the FA/BRCA pathway.

Among those affected, the majority develop cancer, most often acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), MDS, and liver tumors. 90% develop aplastic anemia (the inability to produce blood cells) by age 40.

165
Q

presentation fanconi anaemia

A

60–75% have congenital defects, commonly short stature, abnormalities of the skin, arms, head, eyes, kidneys, and ears, and developmental disabilities. Around 75% have some form of endocrine problem, with varying degrees of severity. 60% of FA is FANC-A, 16q24.3, which has later onset bone marrow failure.

166
Q

management fanconi anaemia

A

Treatment with androgens and hematopoietic (blood cell) growth factors can help bone marrow failure temporarily, but the long-term treatment is bone marrow transplant if a donor is available

167
Q

what cancers do people with fanconi anaemia get

A

acute myelogenous leukemia (AML), MDS, and liver tumors.

168
Q

what is leukemia

A

Leukaemia is the name for cancer of a particular line of the stem cells in the bone marrow. This causes unregulated production of certain types of blood cells. Types of leukaemia can be classified depending on how rapidly they progress (chronic is slow and acute is fast) and the cell line that is affected (myeloid or lymphoid).

169
Q

what leukemia is the most common in children

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

170
Q

which leukemia is associated with downs

A

acute lymphoblastic leukemia

171
Q

which leukemia is associated with richers transformation and smudge cells

A

CLL

172
Q

which leukemia is associated with philedelphia chromosome

A

CML

173
Q

which leukenia is assocated with transformation from a myeloproliferative disorder and is associated with auer rods

A

AML

174
Q

how does leukemia cuase pancytopenia

A

Leukaemia is a form of cancer of the cells in the bone marrow. A genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells in the bone marrow leads to excessive production of a single type of abnormal white blood cell.

The excessive production of a single type of cell can lead to suppression of the other cell lines, causing underproduction of other cell types. This results in a pancytopenia, which is a combination of low:
Red blood cells (anaemia),
White blood cells (leukopenia)
Platelets (thrombocytopenia)

175
Q

what is required urgently when leukemia is a ddx for a presentation

A

An urgent full blood count

176
Q

features of leukemia?

A

anaemia: lethargy/fatigue and pallor
neutropaenia: frequent or severe infections
thrombocytopenia: easy bruising, petechiae

Hepatosplenomegaly: due to leukemic infiltration
Fever: A persistent, recurrent or refractory fever that is most likely a constitutional symptom and may present alongside a history of night sweats, weight loss.
Lymphadenopathy: a build-up of large numbers of cancerous cells which have travelled from the bone marrow
Failure to thrive (children)

177
Q

why does leukemia cause hepatosplenomegaly

A

due to leukemic infiltration

178
Q

why does leukemia cause lymphadenopathy

A

a build-up of large numbers of cancerous cells which have travelled from the bone marrow

179
Q

when should ?leukemia be sent for immediate specialist assessment

A

They recommend children or young people with petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly are sent for immediate specialist assessment.

180
Q

initial investigation leukemia

A

FBC

181
Q

investigation leukemia

A
  • FBC
  • lactate
  • bone marrow biopsy
  • CT and PET scans
  • lymph node biopsy
  • genetic tests
182
Q

what are the two cell lines coming from multipotential hematopoeitic cells

A
  • myeloid –> (megakaryocyte (–> thrombocytes), erythrocyte, mast cells, myeloblast ) then myeloblast –> basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil, monocyte (–> macrophage)
  • lymphoid –> natural killer cell and small lymphocyte. small lymphocyte –> T lymphocyte, B lymphocyte (–> plasma cell)
183
Q

presentation CLL

A

slow proliferation of a single type of well-differentiated lymphocyte, usually B-lymphocytes. It usually affects adults over 60 years of age. It is often asymptomatic but can present with infections, anaemia, bleeding and weight loss. It may cause warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia.

184
Q

smudge cellsa ssociated with?

A

CLL

185
Q

what is richters transformation

A

Richter’s transformation refers to the rare transformation of CLL into high-grade B-cell lymphoma.

186
Q

phases of CML

A

chronic - years of high WCC

accelerated - blast cells push out other types - anaemia, thrombocytopenia, immunodeficiency

blast phase - over 20% blasts in blood - severe symptoms and is often fatal

187
Q

CML genetic associtaed

A

philedelphia chromosome

This refers to an abnormal chromosome 22 caused by a reciprocal translocation (swap) of genetic material between a section of chromosome 9 and chromosome 22.

188
Q

AML age

A

from middle age onwards

189
Q

what may cause AML

A

myeloprolifertaive disorder such as polycythaemia vera or myelofibrosis

190
Q

blood film AML

A

A blood film and bone marrow biopsy will show a high proportion of blast cells. Auer rods in the cytoplasm of blast cells are a characteristic finding in AML.

191
Q

management leukemia

A

Leukaemia is mainly treated with chemotherapy and targeted therapies, depending on the type and individual features.
Examples of targleted therapies include (mainly used in CLL):
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (e.g., ibrutinib)
Monoclonal antibodies (e.g., rituximab, which targets B-cells)

Other treatments options include:
Radiotherapy
Bone marrow transplant
Surgery

192
Q

complications of chemo

A

Failure to treat cancer
Stunted growth and development in children
Infections due to immunosuppression
Neurotoxicity
Infertility
Secondary malignancy
Cardiotoxicity (heart damage)
Tumour lysis syndrome

193
Q

what is tumor lysis syndrome

A

Tumour lysis syndrome results from chemicals released when cells are destroyed by chemotherapy, resulting in:
High uric acid
High potassium (hyperkalaemia)
High phosphate
Low calcium (as a result of high phosphate)

Uric acid can form crystals in the interstitial space and tubules of the kidneys, causing acute kidney injury. Hyperkalaemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias. The release of cytokines can cause systemic inflammation.
Very good hydration and urine output before chemotherapy is required in patients at risk of tumour lysis syndrome. Allopurinol or rasburicase may be used to suppress the uric acid levels.

194
Q

what is myelofibrosis

A

a myeloproliferative disorder
thought to be caused by hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes
the resultant release of platelet derived growth factor is thought to stimulate fibroblasts –> fibrosis of bone marrow –> cant do haematopoieis –>
haematopoiesis develops in the liver and spleen

can also be secondary to other myeloprolifertaive diseases

195
Q

presentation myelofibrosis

A

e.g. elderly person with symptoms of anaemia e.g. fatigue (the most common presenting symptom)
massive splenomegaly
hypermetabolic symptoms: weight loss, night sweats etc

196
Q

invetsigations myelofibrosis

A

anaemia
high WBC and platelet count early in the disease
‘tear-drop’ poikilocytes on blood film
unobtainable bone marrow biopsy - ‘dry tap’ therefore trephine biopsy needed
high urate and LDH (reflect increased cell turnover)

gene test JAK2, MPL and CALR genes can help with diagnosis and management.

197
Q

what are myeloprolifertaive diseases

A

a group of neoplastic disorders involving the bone marrow cells that produce RBC, platelts or fibroblasts

  • RBC= polycytahemia vera
  • platelets = essential thrombocytahemia
  • fibrobalsts (triggered by megakaryocytes) - myelofibrosis
198
Q

management myelofibrosis

A

Management of primary myelofibrosis may involve:

No active treatment for mild disease with minimal symptoms
Supportive management of complications, such as anaemia, splenomegaly and portal hypertension
Chemotherapy (e.g., hydroxycarbamide) to help control the disease
Targeted therapies, such as JAK2 inhibitors (ruxolitinib)
Allogeneic stem cell transplantation (risky but potentially curative)

199
Q

what gene mutations is associated with myeloprolifertaive diseases ?

A

JAK2
MPL
CALR

200
Q

what type of drug may be used in myeliprolifertaive diseases

A

JAK2 inhibitors, such as ruxolitinib.

201
Q

what is myelodysplastic syndorme

A

Precancerous disease of myeloid cells in bone marrow whereby the dysplastic cells may cause abnormal or inadequate blood cell rpoduction
Badly fucntioning → anaemia, thrombocytopenia, leukopenia etc.
Tries to compensate by increasing haematopoeisis
Dysplasia has risk of progressing to acute myeloid leukemia

202
Q

FBC myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome causes low levels of blood components that originate from the myeloid cell line:

Anaemia (low haemoglobin)
Neutropenia (low neutrophil count)
Thrombocytopenia (low platelets)

203
Q

risk factors myelodysplasia

A

older age and previous chemotherapy or radiotherapy.

204
Q

presentation myelodysplasia

A

Patients may be asymptomatic. It may be diagnosed after incidental findings on a full blood count.
They may present with symptoms of:
Anaemia (fatigue, pallor or shortness of breath)
Neutropenia (frequent or severe infections)
Thrombocytopenia (bleeding and purpura)

205
Q

blood film myelodysplasia

A

Full blood count will be abnormal. There may be blasts on the blood film.
Bone marrow biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis.

206
Q

management myelodyspalsia

A

Watchful waiting
Supportive treatment (e.g., blood or platelet transfusions)
Erythropoietin (stimulates red blood cell production)
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (stimulates neutrophil production)
Chemotherapy and targeted therapies (e.g., lenalidomide)
Allogenic stem cell transplantation (risky but potentially curative)

207
Q

what are blasts

A

In the myeloid cell line, the term “blast cell” refers to myeloblasts or myeloid blasts. These are the very earliest and most immature cells of the myeloid cell line.

208
Q

what is myeloma

A

Myeloma is a cancer of the plasma cells (type of B lymphocytes that produce antibodies). Cancer in a specific type of plasma cell results in large quantities of a single antibody being produced.

209
Q

what is Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)

A

is where there is an excess of a single type of antibody or antibody components without other features of myeloma or cancer.

210
Q

pathophysiology myeloma

A

B cells in bone marrow producing antibodies → genetic mutation causing one antibody to be produced uncontrollably (50% of the time this is IgG)

Bone marrow infiltration → anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia
Plasma cells releasing cytokines → increased osteoclast activity → myeloma bone disease → skull, spine, long bones affected → bone pain / pathological fractures → releasing lots of calcium from bones → hypercalcaemia

Kidney failure is common in patients with a monoclonal gammopathy, most frequently due to hypercalcemia or myeloma cast nephropathy. Immunoglobulin crystallization is an uncommon phenomenon that also results in kidney injury
hypercalcaemia can ppt kidney stones,

211
Q

presentation myeloma

A

PC: anaemia
PC: neutropenia
PC: thrombocytopenia
PC: pathological fractures
PC: bone pain, particularly back pain
PC: myeloma renal disease
PC: hyperviscosity
PC: kidney stones

212
Q

Initial tests myeloma

A

FBC: anaemia
Calcium and bone profile: hypercalcaemia
U&Es : renal failure
ESR
Plasma viscosity

If suggetsive –>

then very urgent (within 48hrs)
- protein electrophoresis
- bence-jones urine test

if +ve 2ww
bone marrow biopsy and look at all results

213
Q

diagnostic criteria multiple myeloma

A

The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma requires one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.

Major criteria
Plasmacytoma (as demonstrated on evaluation of biopsy specimen)
30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample
Elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine

Minor criteria
10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample.
Minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine.
Osteolytic lesions (as demonstrated on imaging studies).
Low levels of antibodies (not produced by the cancer cells) in the blood.

214
Q

what is a Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation

A

involves the removal of a patient’s own stem cells prior to chemotherapy, which are then replaced after chemotherapy

215
Q

what is allogenic haematopoeitic stem cell transplant

A

Allogenic hematopoietic cell transplantation

is not commonly used in myeloma due to high rates of overall mortality and symptoms of graft-ve

216
Q

stages of myeloma treatment

A

A combination of drugs is used to treat myeloma - ‘induction therapy
targeted drugs (such as thalidomide, lenalidomide, bortezomib, daratumumab)
chemotherapy (such as cyclophosphamide or melphalan)
steroids (such as prednisolone or dexamethasone)

The particular combination depends on whether a patient may be suitable for autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation or not.

Autologous hematopoietic cell transplantation
involves the removal of a patient’s own stem cells prior to chemotherapy, which are then replaced after chemotherapy
prolong both event-free and overall survival when compared with non-transplant strategies
typically it is younger, healthier patients who are suitable for stem cell transplantation and rigorous chemotherapy regimes.

217
Q

symptom management and complication avoidance myeloma

A

pain: treat with analgesia (using the WHO analgesic ladder)

pathological fracture: zoledronic acid is given to prevent and manage osteoporosis and fragility fractures as these are a large cause of morbidity and mortality, particularly in the elderly.

infection
patients receive annual influenza vaccinations
they may also receive Immunoglobulin replacement therapy.

venous thromboembolism prophylaxis

fatigue
treat all possible underlying causes
if symptoms persist consider an erythropoietin analogue.

218
Q

coeliac vaccination

A

Patients with coeliac disease often have a degree of functional hyposplenism
For this reason, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine
Coeliac UK recommends that everyone with coeliac disease is vaccinated against pneumococcal infection and has a booster every 5 years
Currrent guidelines suggest giving the influenza vaccine on an individual basis.

219
Q

features specific to haemolytic anaemias

A

Splenomegaly (the spleen becomes filled with destroyed red blood cells)

Jaundice (bilirubin is released during the destruction of red blood cells)

220
Q

important invetsigations haemolytic anaemias

A

Full blood count shows a normocytic anaemia

Blood film shows schistocytes (fragments of red blood cells - Schistocytes are a key finding on the blood film in patients with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia)

Direct Coombs test is positive in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (not in other types)

221
Q

what is hereditary elliptocytosis

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis is similar to hereditary spherocytosis except that the red blood cells are ellipse-shaped. It is also autosomal dominant. The presentation and management are the same as hereditary spherocytosis.

222
Q

what test would be positive autoimmune haemolytic anemia

A

direct coombs

223
Q

warm vs cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia is the more common type. Haemolysis occurs at normal or above-normal temperatures. It is usually idiopathic, meaning that it arises without a clear cause.

Cold AIHA can be secondary to lymphoma, leukaemia, systemic lupus erythematosus and infections (e.g., mycoplasma, EBV, CMV and HIV).

224
Q

management autoimmune haemolytic anaemias

A

Blood transfusions
Prednisolone
Rituximab (a monoclonal antibody against B cells)
Splenectomy

225
Q

what anaemia has red urine in the morning

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria

acquired genetic mutation

226
Q

what does microangiopathic haemolytic anameia mean?

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA) involves the destruction of red blood cells as they travel through the circulation.

This is most often caused by abnormal activation of the clotting system, with blood clots (thrombi) partially obstructing the small blood vessels, referred to as thrombotic microangiopathy. These obstructions churn the red blood cells, causing haemolysis (rupture). Picture a mesh inside the small blood vessels shredding the red blood cells.

227
Q

causes microangiopathic haemolytic anemia

A

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Cancer

228
Q

blood film finding micronangiopathic haemolysis

A

Schistocytes

229
Q

pathophysiology and triad haemolytic uraemic syndrome

A

Occurs when there is thrombosis within small blood vessels throughout the body.

This is usually triggered by a bacterial toxin called shiga toxin. It leads to the classic triad of:
Haemolytic anaemia: anaemia caused by red blood cells being destroyed
Acute kidney injury: failure of the kidneys to excrete waste products such as urea
Thrombocytopenia: low platelet count

230
Q

cause HUS? exacerbating factors?

A

The most common cause is a toxin produced by the e. coli 0157 bacteria, called the shiga toxin. Shigella also produces this toxin.

The use of antibiotics and anti-motility medications such as loperamide to treat gastroenteritis caused by these pathogens increases the risk of developing HUS.

231
Q

features HUS

A

Reduced urine output
Haematuria or dark brown urine
Abdominal pain
Lethargy and irritability
Confusion
Oedema
Hypertension
Bruising

232
Q

management HUS

A

HUS is a medical emergency and has a 10% mortality. It needs to be managed by experienced paediatricians under the guidance of a renal specialist. The condition is self limiting and supportive management is the mainstay of treatment:

Urgent referral to the paediatric renal unit for renal dialysis if required
Antihypertensives if required
Careful maintenance of fluid balance
Blood transfusions if required

70 to 80% of patients make a full recovery.

233
Q

pathophysiology TTP

A

TTP is caused by a deficiency in ADAMTS13, a metalloprotease that cleaves von Willebrand factor multimers. This leads to the accumulation of ultra-large von Willebrand factor multimers, which promote platelet aggregation and thrombus formation.

In TTP, hemolytic anemia develops because red blood cells are broken into pieces as they try to squeeze around blood clots. (microangiopathic haemolytic anemia)

Deficiency in the ADAMTS13 protein can be due to:
An inherited genetic mutation (hereditary)
Autoimmune disease, where antibodies are created against the protein (acquired)

Post-infection e.g. urinary, gastrointestinal
Pregnancy
Drugs: ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, aciclovir
Tumours
SLE
HIV

234
Q

pentad TTP

A

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Fever
Disturbed neurological function
Renal failure
Thrombocytopenia

235
Q

management TTP

A

Treatment is guided by a haematologist and may involve plasma exchange, steroids and rituximab.
No antibiotics - may worsen outcome
Plasma exchange is the treatment of choice
Steroids, immunosuppressants
Vincristine

236
Q

what kind of anaemia can prostehtic valves cause?

A

Haemolytic anaemia is a key complication of prosthetic heart valves. It occurs in both bioprosthetic and metallic valve replacement, although it varies depending on the type. It is caused by turbulence flow around the valve and the shearing of the red blood cells. The valve churns up the cells, and they break down.

Management involves:

Monitoring
Oral iron and folic acid supplementation
Blood transfusions if severe
Revision surgery may be required in severe cases

237
Q

diagnosis of coeliac process

A
  1. anti ttg, anti-EMA, total IgA

if all neg and done them all = coeliac ruled out

if positive –> refer to gastro for confirmation using endoscopy duodenal biopsy

has to be on gluten containing diet

238
Q

Spherocytes on blood film

A
  • hereditary spherocytosis
  • autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
239
Q

Calcium level myeloma

A

Hypercalcaemia,

In cases of myeloma, there is hypercalcaemia secondary to increased osteoclast activity. Additionally, renal impairment causes hypercalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia.

240
Q

Phosphate level myeloma

A

normal / high phosphate

renal impairment causes hypercalcaemia and hyperphosphataemia

241
Q

ALP myeloma

A

normal ALP

ALP enzyme levels remain normal with myeloma but may rise in other conditions such as solid tumours or bony metastases.

242
Q

Most likely diagnosis Pancytopaenia 5 years post-chemotherapy/radiotherapy

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

243
Q

abdominal pain and a motor periperal neuropathy

A

Leas poisoning

244
Q

Haemoglobin electrophoresis results beta thalassemja major

A

HbA2 (an alpha chain) & HbF raised
HbA absent

245
Q

What diabetes drug is contraindicated in G6PD deficiency

A

Glipizide

As it is a sulfonylurea

G6PD deficiency: sulph- drugs: sulphonamides, sulphasalazine and sulfonylureas can trigger haemolysis

246
Q

What does Disproportionate microcytic anaemia mean and what does it indicate

A

It means the MCV and the Hb are decreased disproportionately. This is a sign of beta thalassemia

This is in contrast to iron deficiency where the MCV and Hb are usually proportionally decreased.

247
Q

when should you get blood results within 48 hours for ?haematological malignancy in a young person (0-24 years)

A

Any of the following features in a person aged 0-24 years should prompt a very urgent full blood count (within 48 hours) to investigate for leukaemia:
Pallor
Persistent fatigue
Unexplained fever
Unexplained persistent infections
Generalised lymphadenopathy
Persistent or unexplained bone pain
Unexplained bruising
Unexplained bleeding

248
Q

when should you refer for immediate specialist assessment for leukaemia in a young person (0-24 years)

A

if: unexplained petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly

249
Q
A