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CAP Self-generated MC Questions > 7. Psychotic disorders > Flashcards

7. Psychotic disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is psychosis characterized by according to the DSM-5?
a) Depression and anxiety
b) Delusions and hallucinations
c) Elevated mood
d) Social withdrawal

A

b) Delusions and hallucinations

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2
Q

What are positive symptoms in psychosis?
a) Hallucinations and delusions
b) Affective flattening and alogia
c) Reduced motivation
d) Decreased energy

A

a) Hallucinations and delusions

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3
Q

What are negative symptoms in psychosis?
a) Hallucinations and delusions
b) Affective flattening and alogia
c) Increased energy
d) Elevated mood

A

b) Affective flattening and alogia

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4
Q

Which country updated their clinical guidelines for schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders in 2016?
a) United States
b) Australia and New Zealand
c) United Kingdom
d) Canada

A

b) Australia and New Zealand

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5
Q

What is the focus of the updated clinical guidelines for schizophrenia in Australia and New Zealand?
a) Reducing medication use
b) Early intervention and psychosocial treatments
c) Increasing hospital admissions
d) Avoiding vocational outcomes

A

b) Early intervention and psychosocial treatments

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6
Q

What is the most serious mental disorder associated with long-term disability according to the guidelines?
a) Bipolar disorder
b) Depression
c) Schizophrenia
d) Anxiety disorder

A

c) Schizophrenia

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7
Q

What is an important factor impacting the ability of people with schizophrenia to function according to the guidelines?
a) Genetic factors
b) Social environment
c) Diet
d) Physical exercise

A

b) Social environment

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8
Q

What is the estimated percentage of people with schizophrenia who experience symptomatic recovery between episodes?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 90%

A

c) 75%

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9
Q

What is the recommendation for mental health clinicians working with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander people with schizophrenia?
a) Cultural awareness training
b) Avoid traditional healers
c) Increase medication doses
d) Focus solely on Western medical treatments

A

a) Cultural awareness training

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10
Q

What percentage of patients with schizophrenia report auditory hallucinations?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 60-70%
d) 90%

A

c) 60-70%

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11
Q

What is a command hallucination?
a) A voice giving comforting messages
b) A voice providing general advice
c) A voice giving specific instructions to the patient
d) A voice encouraging positive behavior

A

c) A voice giving specific instructions to the patient

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12
Q

What type of hallucination involves the perception of physical experience within the body?
a) Visual hallucination
b) Auditory hallucination
c) Somatic hallucination
d) Olfactory hallucination

A

c) Somatic hallucination

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13
Q

What is the prevalence of psychotic experiences disappearing over time according to Linscott and van Os?
a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 80%
d) 100%

A

c) 80%

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14
Q

What are delusions defined as in the DSM-5?
a) True beliefs
b) False beliefs based on incorrect inference about external reality
c) Common beliefs shared by the culture
d) Temporary thoughts

A

b) False beliefs based on incorrect inference about external reality

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15
Q

What is a paranoid delusion?
a) Belief in personal greatness
b) Belief in the presence of a serious illness
c) Belief that someone is seeking to harm the patient
d) Belief in supernatural powers

A

c) Belief that someone is seeking to harm the patient

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16
Q

What is a somatic delusion?
a) Belief in personal greatness
b) False belief about the appearance or functioning of one’s body
c) Belief in supernatural powers
d) Belief in personal guilt

A

b) False belief about the appearance or functioning of one’s body

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17
Q

What type of delusion is primarily associated with manic episodes of bipolar disorder?
a) Paranoid delusions
b) Grandiose delusions
c) Somatic delusions
d) Nihilistic delusions

A

b) Grandiose delusions

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18
Q

What is a common feature of delusions of reference?
a) Belief in personal guilt
b) Belief in personal greatness
c) Belief that neutral sources are conveying personal messages
d) Belief in the presence of a serious illness

A

c) Belief that neutral sources are conveying personal messages

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19
Q

What type of delusion entails a belief that parts of the body or the environment have ceased to exist?
a) Somatic delusions
b) Nihilistic delusions
c) Grandiose delusions
d) Delusions of reference

A

b) Nihilistic delusions

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20
Q

What is a delusion of jealousy?
a) Belief in personal guilt
b) False belief about the appearance of one’s body
c) False belief that a romantic partner is unfaithful
d) Belief in personal greatness

A

c) False belief that a romantic partner is unfaithful

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21
Q

What is erotomanic delusion?
a) False belief in personal greatness
b) False belief that romantic feelings are reciprocated by another person
c) Belief in the presence of a serious illness
d) Belief in personal guilt

A

b) False belief that romantic feelings are reciprocated by another person

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22
Q

What are passivity phenomena in delusions?
a) Belief in personal guilt
b) Belief that thoughts or actions are controlled by external forces
c) Belief in personal greatness
d) Belief in the presence of a serious illness

A

b) Belief that thoughts or actions are controlled by external forces

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the Psychotic Symptom Rating Scales (PSYRATS)?
a) Measure the physical health of patients
b) Measure the degree of preoccupation and distress associated with delusions
c) Measure cognitive abilities
d) Measure social interactions

A

b) Measure the degree of preoccupation and distress associated with delusions

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24
Q

What is disorganised thinking also known as?
a) Positive symptoms
b) Negative symptoms
c) Formal thought disorder
d) Somatic disorder

A

c) Formal thought disorder

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25
Q

What is circumstantiality in disorganised thinking?
a) Direct and concise speech
b) Indirect and long-winded speech
c) Repetitive movements
d) Short and incomplete speech

A

b) Indirect and long-winded speech

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26
Q

What is tangentiality in disorganised thinking? a) Direct and concise responses b) Irrelevant responses to questions c) Long and detailed responses d) Short and incomplete responses

A

b) Irrelevant responses to questions

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27
Q

What is clang association in disorganised thinking?
a) Linking phrases through meaning
b) Linking phrases through sounds
c) Direct and concise speech
d) Repeating phrases

A

b) Linking phrases through sounds

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28
Q

What is echolalia in disorganised thinking?
a) Repeating another’s speech
b) Creating new words
c) Speaking in a concise manner
d) Using vague language

A

a) Repeating another’s speech

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29
Q

What is catatonic behaviour?
a) Increased physical activity
b) Marked decrease in reactivity to the environment
c) Consistent emotional responses
d) Spontaneous verbal communication

A

b) Marked decrease in reactivity to the environment

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30
Q

What is waxy flexibility in catatonia?
a) Resistance to movement
b) Mimicking another’s speech
c) Remaining in a posture even when limbs are moved
d) Increased physical activity

A

c) Remaining in a posture even when limbs are moved

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31
Q

What is negativism in catatonia?
a) Spontaneous verbal communication
b) Opposition or no response to external stimuli
c) Increased physical activity
d) Consistent emotional responses

A

b) Opposition or no response to external stimuli

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32
Q

What is avolition in psychosis?
a) Increased energy
b) Loss of drive or motivation
c) Consistent emotional responses
d) Spontaneous verbal communication

A

b) Loss of drive or motivation

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33
Q

What is affective flattening in psychosis?
a) Increased emotional expressiveness
b) Lack of emotional expressiveness
c) Consistent verbal communication
d) Increased motivation

A

b) Lack of emotional expressiveness

34
Q

What is alogia in psychosis?
a) Increased speech
b) Lack of unprompted speech
c) Consistent emotional responses
d) Increased motivation

A

b) Lack of unprompted speech

35
Q

What is the core feature necessary for diagnosing a psychotic disorder according to the DSM-5?
a) Delusions
b) Hallucinations
c) Disorganised speech
d) Presence of at least two symptoms for a significant period

A

d) Presence of at least two symptoms for a significant period

36
Q

What duration of symptoms is required for diagnosing schizophrenia according to the DSM-5?
a) One week
b) One month
c) Six months
d) One year

A

c) Six months

37
Q

What symptom must be present for a diagnosis of schizophrenia according to the DSM-5?
a) Affective flattening
b) Avolition
c) Delusions or hallucinations
d) Alogia

A

c) Delusions or hallucinations

38
Q

What is the duration criterion for diagnosing schizophreniform disorder according to the DSM-5?
a) Less than one month
b) One to six months
c) Six months to one year
d) More than one year

A

b) One to six months

39
Q

What is the primary difference between schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder?
a) Duration of symptoms
b) Presence of mood episodes
c) Type of hallucinations
d) Type of delusions

A

b) Presence of mood episodes

40
Q

What is the definition of delusional disorder according to the DSM-5?
a) Presence of multiple types of delusions
b) Presence of only non-bizarre delusions
c) Presence of delusions for at least one month
d) Presence of delusions for less than one month

A

c) Presence of delusions for at least one month

41
Q

What is the primary characteristic of brief psychotic disorder according to the DSM-5?
a) Symptoms lasting more than one year
b) Symptoms lasting more than one month
c) Symptoms lasting more than one day but less than one month
d) Symptoms lasting less than one day

A

c) Symptoms lasting more than one day but less than one month

42
Q

What is the term for a psychotic disorder caused by another medical condition?
a) Schizoaffective disorder
b) Delusional disorder
c) Substance-induced psychotic disorder
d) Psychotic disorder due to another medical condition

A

d) Psychotic disorder due to another medical condition

43
Q

What is the term for psychotic symptoms caused by substance use or withdrawal?
a) Schizoaffective disorder
b) Delusional disorder
c) Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder
d) Psychotic disorder due to another medical condition

A

c) Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder

44
Q

What is the prevalence of schizophrenia in the general population?
a) 0.5%
b) 1-2%
c) 5%
d) 10%

A

b) 1-2%

45
Q

What is the peak period of onset for psychotic disorders?
a) Childhood
b) Adolescence and early adulthood
c) Middle age
d) Old age

A

b) Adolescence and early adulthood

46
Q

What is the premorbid phase in the course of psychosis?
a) Period of active symptoms
b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis
c) Period of recovery
d) Period of complete remission

A

b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis

47
Q

What is the prodromal phase in the course of psychosis?
a) Period of active symptoms
b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis
c) Period of recovery
d) Period of complete remission

A

b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis

48
Q

What is the acute phase in the course of psychosis?
a) Period of active symptoms
b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis
c) Period of recovery
d) Period of complete remission

A

a) Period of active symptoms

49
Q

What is the early recovery phase in the course of psychosis?
a) Period of active symptoms
b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis
c) Period of recovery after the acute phase
d) Period of complete remission

A

c) Period of recovery after the acute phase

50
Q

What is the late recovery phase in the course of psychosis?
a) Period of active symptoms
b) Period of gradual deterioration before the onset of psychosis
c) Period of full social, recreational, and vocational reintegration
d) Period of complete remission

A

c) Period of full social, recreational, and vocational reintegration

51
Q

What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who relapse within the first 2-5 years after treatment commencement?
a) 10-20%
b) 30-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 80-90%

A

d) 80-90%

52
Q

What is expressed emotion (EE) in the context of psychosis?
a) High levels of warmth and support
b) Low levels of criticism and hostility
c) High levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional over-involvement
d) Low levels of emotional support

A

c) High levels of criticism, hostility, and emotional over-involvement

53
Q

What is the impact of high expressed emotion (EE) on patients with schizophrenia?
a) Reduced risk of relapse
b) Increased risk of relapse
c) No impact on relapse
d) Improved treatment outcomes

A

b) Increased risk of relapse

54
Q

What is the percentage of patients with schizophrenia who relapse within nine months after discharge if they return to high EE families and have high amounts of face-to-face contact?
a) 20%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 92%

A

d) 92%

55
Q

What are the enduring forms of psychosis associated with?
a) Late onset of symptoms
b) Gradual onset of symptoms
c) High levels of cognitive functioning
d) No substance abuse

A

b) Gradual onset of symptoms

56
Q

What is the primary focus of treatment for enduring forms of psychosis?
a) Complete remission
b) Symptom management and functional improvement
c) Immediate hospitalization
d) Increased medication doses

A

b) Symptom management and functional improvement

57
Q

What model explains the onset of a psychotic episode as an interaction between vulnerabilities and triggering events?
a) Cognitive model
b) Behavioral model
c) Diathesis-stress model
d) Genetic model

A

c) Diathesis-stress model

58
Q

What do family studies indicate about the risk of developing schizophrenia?
a) The risk is the same for everyone
b) The risk decreases with genetic relatedness
c) The risk increases with genetic relatedness
d) The risk is higher for friends than family

A

c) The risk increases with genetic relatedness

59
Q

What is the concordance rate for schizophrenia between monozygotic twins?
a) Lower than dizygotic twins
b) Higher than dizygotic twins
c) The same as dizygotic twins
d) Unrelated to genetic factors

A

b) Higher than dizygotic twins

60
Q

What do adoption studies suggest about the role of genetics in schizophrenia?
a) No genetic influence
b) Genetic influence is independent of the environment
c) Higher rate of schizophrenia in adopted children with biological parents who have schizophrenia
d) Lower rate of schizophrenia in adopted children with biological parents who have schizophrenia

A

c) Higher rate of schizophrenia in adopted children with biological parents who have schizophrenia

61
Q

What have researchers found about rare genetic structural variations in individuals with psychosis?
a) They occur at significantly lower rates
b) They occur at significantly higher rates
c) They are unrelated to psychosis
d) They are present in all individuals with psychosis

A

b) They occur at significantly higher rates

62
Q

What does the diathesis-stress model assume about the occurrence of a psychotic episode?
a) It is solely due to genetic factors
b) It occurs when a triggering event interacts with an underlying vulnerability
c) It is solely due to environmental factors
d) It occurs randomly

A

b) It occurs when a triggering event interacts with an underlying vulnerability

63
Q

What is a common prenatal factor associated with increased risk for schizophrenia?
a) Maternal infection
b) High maternal nutrition
c) Increased maternal exercise
d) High maternal stress

A

a) Maternal infection

64
Q

What is the role of the COMT gene in the risk of developing psychosis?
a) No role in neural development
b) Involved in the breakdown of dopamine
c) Unrelated to psychosis
d) Reduces the risk of psychosis

A

b) Involved in the breakdown of dopamine

65
Q

What is the impact of cannabis use on individuals with a specific form of the COMT gene according to a New Zealand study?
a) Reduces the risk of psychosis
b) Increases the risk of psychosis
c) Has no impact on psychosis risk
d) Leads to complete recovery from psychosis

A

b) Increases the risk of psychosis

66
Q

What is the relationship between amphetamine use and psychosis?
a) Reduces the risk of psychosis
b) Complicates the course of psychosis and increases risk of aggression
c) Has no impact on psychosis
d) Leads to complete recovery from psychosis

A

b) Complicates the course of psychosis and increases risk of aggression

67
Q

What is the impact of tobacco use on patients with long-term psychotic disorders?
a) Improves cognitive function
b) Associated with additional health risks
c) Reduces symptoms of psychosis
d) Has no impact on health

A

b) Associated with additional health risks

68
Q

What is the relationship between antipsychotic medications and obesity in patients with psychosis?
a) Reduces the risk of obesity
b) Increases the risk of obesity
c) Has no impact on weight
d) Leads to weight loss

A

b) Increases the risk of obesity

69
Q

What is the primary focus of treatment for individuals with psychosis to improve quality of life?
a) Reducing cognitive function
b) Improving occupational, relationship, social, and emotional functioning
c) Increasing isolation
d) Avoiding recreational activities

A

b) Improving occupational, relationship, social, and emotional functioning

70
Q

What is the prevalence of unemployment among individuals with a diagnosis of psychosis?
a) 10-20%
b) 30-40%
c) 40-50%
d) 60-70%

A

c) 40-50%

71
Q

What is the impact of stigma on individuals with psychosis?
a) Increases opportunities for recovery
b) Limits opportunities for recovery
c) Has no impact on recovery
d) Leads to improved self-esteem

A

b) Limits opportunities for recovery

72
Q

What is the primary concern of stigma in individuals with psychosis?
a) Increased social support
b) Increased self-esteem
c) Increased prejudice and discrimination
d) Increased employment opportunities

A

c) Increased prejudice and discrimination

73
Q

What is a common myth about psychosis perpetuated by the media?
a) It is associated with increased intelligence
b) It is associated with violence and loss of control
c) It is a minor disorder
d) It is easily treated

A

b) It is associated with violence and loss of control

74
Q

What is the focus of the Early Psychosis Prevention and Intervention Centre (EPPIC)?
a) Avoiding early detection
b) Early detection and intervention for psychosis
c) Increasing hospital admissions
d) Reducing social support

A

b) Early detection and intervention for psychosis

75
Q

What was the original term for schizophrenia coined by Emil Kraepelin?
a) Manic depression
b) Dementia praecox
c) Paranoia
d) Cyclothymic disorder

A

b) Dementia praecox

76
Q

Who coined the term schizophrenia?
a) Emil Kraepelin
b) Eugen Bleuler
c) Kurt Schneider
d) John Nash

A

b) Eugen Bleuler

77
Q

What was Kurt Schneider known for in the context of schizophrenia?
a) Coining the term schizophrenia
b) Identifying first rank symptoms
c) Developing antipsychotic medications
d) Promoting psychoanalysis

A

b) Identifying first rank symptoms

78
Q

What is the dimensional approach to psychosis?
a) Categorizing psychosis into distinct disorders
b) Viewing psychotic experiences as normally distributed across the population
c) Reducing psychosis to one specific cause
d) Focusing only on genetic factors

A

b) Viewing psychotic experiences as normally distributed across the population

79
Q

What is the controversy regarding the diagnosis of attenuated psychosis syndrome in the DSM-5?
a) It includes full criteria for psychosis
b) It includes less severe and more transient symptoms
c) It is not included in the DSM-5
d) It includes only mood symptoms

A

b) It includes less severe and more transient symptoms

80
Q

What is the primary goal of the diathesis-stress model?
a) Identify genetic causes of psychosis
b) Identify environmental causes of psychosis
c) Explain the interaction between vulnerabilities and triggering events
d) Focus on cognitive factors

A

c) Explain the interaction between vulnerabilities and triggering events

CAP Self-generated MC Questions (12 decks)

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