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UH60 > 60 mass deck > Flashcards

60 mass deck Flashcards

1
Q

TGT will be indicated on the Power Pod when?

A

TGT > 793° Dif erence of 75° or more Engine Out (Ng < 55%)

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2
Q

When does NG appear on the power pod?

A

When NG exceeds 100% less than 55%/engine out, dif erence of 5%

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3
Q

What are the primary functions of the overspeed drain valve?

A

H​ot start prevention, O​verspeed protection, P​urges fuel, S​ends fuel to 12 injectors

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4
Q

The ____________ provides added protection from heat-seeking weapons’ systems by mixing hot exhaust with rotor downwash

A

UES

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5
Q

What drives LRUs on accessory gearbox?

A

Ng gas generator @variable speed

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6
Q

What drives Np governing?

A

DEC, ODV

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7
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the DEC

A

TGT limiting, Np governing, Torque matching and load sharing

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8
Q

Over servicing is not possible because extra oil will do what?

A

Flow out the filler port

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9
Q

The pneumatic start system uses an air turbine engine start motor for?

A

Engine starting

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10
Q

Where must the engine oil level be in flights over 6 hrs.?

A

Full mark

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11
Q

Oil from the chip detector passes through the oil cooler and is cooled by?

A

Transferring heat from the oil to fuel

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12
Q

How is the gas generator turbine connected to the accessory gear box?

A

The power takeoff drive assembly

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13
Q

The HMU operates what part of the compressor section?

A

Variable guide veins

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14
Q

What controls the electrical function of the engine and transmits systems information to the cockpit?

A

DEC (digital electronic control )

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15
Q

What is the DEC is powered by?

A

Alternator or aircraft power

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16
Q

What section of the engine mechanically drives NR?

A

Np

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17
Q

The EDECU will display a torque signal of?

A

25%

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18
Q

Is Ng mechanically linked to Np?

A

No

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19
Q

What is the connection of Np and Nr?

A

1- way mechanical connection via the freewheeling unit

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20
Q

Name the 4 modules of the engine

A

Cold, Hot, Power Turbine, and Accessory Gearbox 21

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21
Q

What drives the Accessory Gearbox?

A

Gas Generator (at a variable speed)

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22
Q

How many stages are in the compressor section?

A

(5 Axial, 1 Centrifugal)

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23
Q

What operational section of the engine drives the rotors?

A

NP (power turbine) (it’s a one way mechanical free-wheeling unit)

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24
Q

What are the 2 operational sections of the engine?

A

Ng and Np

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25
Q

How does engine oil cooling occur?

A

Liquid to liquid cooler, oil flow through the scroll vanes

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26
Q

What is the service capacity for engine oil?

A

7 qts

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27
Q

Where is the oil drawn from for the emergency oil system?

A

Sumps A and B

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28
Q

How does the oil system overcome high pressure during cold starts?

A

Oil filter bypass valve, liquid to liquid cooler bypass valve

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29
Q

Where does the engine receive its electrical power?

A

Engine Alternator

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30
Q

The engine alternator supplies AC power to what?

A

The ignition exciter and DEC/EDECU , and NG signal to cockpit

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31
Q

When does the DEC go into the 2.5-minute limiting?

A

When any one engine is below 50%

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32
Q

How does the cockpit receive the Ng signal?

A

From the Ng winding of the alternator

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33
Q

If Ng signal is lost, what happens?

A

Engine Out warning light, audio, and 0% Ng

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34
Q

Why does the fuel system operate on negative pressure?

A

It lessens the potential of fire in the event

the fuel system is damaged

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35
Q

What function of the DEC keeps NP at 100%?

A

NG governing

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36
Q

Ng governing is influenced by what input to the HMU?

A

T2 sensor

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37
Q

When will TGT Limiting not work?

A

Lockout, compressor stall, start up

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38
Q

What is variable geometry and how does it work?

A

HMU controlling airflow in the engine depending upon power demand

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39
Q

Is the APU capable of starting both engines simultaneously?

A

Yes, within certain ambient temperature ranges

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40
Q

When will fuel flow be automatically shut off to the engine during the start sequence (Hot start prevention)?

A

When TGT reaches 900C, ≤60% Ng, ≤50% Np

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41
Q

Explain Hot Start prevention

A

it’s a function of the DEC and ODV that automatically prevents over temp during starts by shutting down the engine

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42
Q

What does ODV do?

A

Its sequences fuel and sends it to the injectors (last stop of fuel, Np overspeed protection (120% +-1), purges fuel on shut down

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43
Q

What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on apu?

A

Uses air from APU to start the main engines

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44
Q

What is the air sce/ht start switch do when on eng?

A

Uses air from the engine to provide cabin heat

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45
Q

With one engine operating, what Ng and Nr must be maintained to cross bleed start the other?

A

90 % and

100%

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46
Q

How do you manually disengage the starter?

A

Pull down on the PCL

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47
Q

What controls air fuel mixture?

A

HMU through fuel scheduling

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48
Q

If power is lost to the engine, will the DEC still remain functional?

A

Yes, it is also supplied from the AC airframe power

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49
Q

Which circuit in the DEC is not powered by the alternator?

A

Hot Start Prevention

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50
Q

When is engine Inlet Anti-Icing system available?

A

4°C and below it must activate, may or may not activate

between 4°-13° C, not available 13°C and above

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51
Q

Other than bleed air, what is used to assist in the engine anti ice functions?

A

Hot engine oil provides a passive anti ice function

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52
Q

How is torque affected when anti-ice switch is ON?

A

You can lose up to 20% torque available, additional 5% with heater on

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53
Q

. How do you recognize a compressor stall?

A

Loud popping/banging accompanied by rapid increase in TGT and fluctuations in NG, Q, NP

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54
Q

Describe the fuel flow:

A

Pump, Fuel filter, HMU, Liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, nozzles

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55
Q

Describe the load demand system

A

Provides mechanical input directly from the collective output of the flight control mixer to the engine HMU to reduce transient engine and NR droop

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56
Q

Where is the pedal adjust handle located?

A

On the side of the instrument panel.

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57
Q

Which cockpit control has a telescoping (extend/retract) feature

A

Co-pilot’s collective

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58
Q

Outputs from cockpit controls are carried by mechanical linkage through the pilot assist servos to the ____________________

A

( MMU)

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59
Q

On which panel can you find both the TAIL SERVO and BACKUP HYD PUMP switches?

A

MISC SWITCH panel

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60
Q

The MMU is designed to reduce _____________

A

Inherent Control Coupling

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61
Q

Name the four mechanical mixes provided by the MMU

A

Collective to Pitch/Roll/Yaw, and Yaw to Pitch

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62
Q

Describe Collective to Pitch

A

MMU put fwd input into rotor disc to prevent nose-high attitude

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63
Q

Collective to roll

A

MMU makes left rotor disc input to compensate for translating tendency

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64
Q

Collective to Yaw

A

MMU inputs left pedal to compensate for torque ef ect

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65
Q

Yaw to pitch

A

As collective and A/S increase, T/R pitch decreases and visa versa.

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66
Q

The SERVO OFF switch has an ___ _____ to prevent both servo stages from being turned offCollective/Airspeed to Yaw

A

Electrical interlock

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67
Q

With a leak, it takes how many seconds to lose both systems?

A

11-13 seconds

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68
Q

Servos are the only thing that can______?

A

Jam or Hardover

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69
Q

How does the MMU minimize inherent control coupling?

A

By combining, summing, and coupling collective, pitch, roll and yaw inputs.

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70
Q

What is the only trim actuator that receives hydraulic power from the number 2 hydraulic system

A

pitch control

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71
Q

Why is Collective/Airspeed to Yaw mixing completely phased out when the airspeed is above 100 kts?

A

Due to the ef iciency of the tail rotor and cambered fin.

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72
Q

Moving the SERVO OFF switch from NORM to 1st STG or 2nd STG will

A

Turn of that stage of primary servos

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73
Q

What is the reason for the depressurization valve to only connect to the Backup Pump?

A

To reduce output pressure of the pump upon startup of the electric motor.

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74
Q

The No. 1 hydraulic system supplies hydraulic fluid through its transfer module to what servos?

A

The first stage primary servos and first stage tail rotor servo.

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75
Q

HYD LEAK TEST switch allows testing of the ____.

A

LDI

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76
Q

What HYD pump is the depressurization valve connected to?

A

Backup HYD Pump

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77
Q

The RSVR 1/2/Backup LOW caution illuminates when?

A

When there is 60% fluid remaining in the

reservoir (leak in the system).

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78
Q

If a tail rotor cable breaks, what caution and/or advisory would appear?

A

T/R QUAD FAIL caution

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79
Q

The No. 2 hyd. system supplies pressure through the transfer mod to what servos?

A

The second stage

primary servos and the pilot-assist servos.

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80
Q

Appearance of the BOOST SERVO OFF caution indicates what?

A

Loss of hydraulic pressure to the

collective and/or yaw boost servo.

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81
Q

What is the purpose of the APU Accumulator?

A

Provide a hydraulic charge to the APU start motor.

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82
Q

In flight, the backup pump mode automatically sets to?

A

The AUTO mode even if the switch is in the OFF or

ON position.

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83
Q

What does the backup pump supply pressure to?

A

No. 1 and/or No. 2 hydraulic systems, 2nd stage tail rotor servo and APU accumulator.

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84
Q

Name the trim actuators

A

Yaw, roll, collective and pitch

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85
Q

What FCC drives the trim actuators?

A

IMAGE
FCC #2

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86
Q

What five lights illuminate when the backup hydraulic pump is on?

A

RES 1 LOW

HYD PUMP 1

T/R SERVO 1

HYD PUMP 2

APU ACCUM LOW

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87
Q

hat are the two central components of the AFCS?

A

FCC’s

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88
Q

What does the AFCS do?

A

It enhances the stability and handling qualities of the helicopter and provides autopilot functions.

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89
Q

What FCC sends signals to the trim actuator?

A

FCC 2

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90
Q

What are the five basic subsystems of AFCS?

A

Stabilator, Stability Augmentation System (SAS), Trim, Flight path stabilization (FPS), Flight director (FD)

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91
Q

What are the additional features of AFCS?

A

Heading hold, Pitch and roll hover augmentation/gust alleviation, Turn coordination, Fault detection and annunciations

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92
Q

What are SAS actuators used for?

A

Used to enhance aircraft short term dynamic stability

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93
Q

What axis’ does SAS work in?

A

pitch, roll, yaw

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94
Q

When does SAS 1 and 2 enhance turn coordination?

A

When the FCC compute data at airspeeds above 50 kts

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95
Q

What provides long term inputs by trimming the flight controls to the position required to maintain selected flight attitude?

A

Outer loop—collective, pitch, roll and yaw (Trim)/FPS

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96
Q

What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?

A

Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD.

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97
Q

What type of Stability is Static associated with, Short or Long Term?

A

Long Term

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98
Q

What will the FCC’s do if A/S signal is lost?

A

Shut of

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99
Q

What is the control authority of the outer loop trim?

A

100% (10% per second)

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100
Q

Is heading hold an inner or outer loop function?

A

It is an outer loop, because it operates through the yaw trim actuator

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101
Q

What is required for proper operation of the FPS?

A

SAS/BOOST, TRIM and SAS1 and/or SAS 2 functions have been selected on the AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel

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102
Q

When is the heading hold reengaged following a turn when what following conditions are maintained for 2 seconds?

A

Roll attitude is within 2 degrees of wing level and yaw rate is less than 2 degrees per second

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103
Q

When will a heading hold be captured in a hover?

A

When yaw rate reaches zero, not when pedal switches are engaged

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104
Q

What are the four signals used by the FCC’s to position the Stabilator?

A

Collective position sensor

Lateral accelerometer

Airspeed

Pitch

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105
Q

Describe the Stabilator

A

A variable angle of incidence airfoil that enhances handling qualities in the pitch

axis in forward flight

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106
Q

What are the stabilator function?

A

● Streamlines - compensates for rotor downwash

● Collective coupling - minimize pitch excursions due to collective inputs

● Angle of Incidence - Angle of Incidence decreases as airspeed increases

● Lateral Sideslip - Sideslip to pitch coupling to reduce susceptibility to gusts

● Pitch Rate - pitch rate feedback to dampen pitch excursions

● Air data computer - Connected to pitot static system

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107
Q

Where does the Stabilator derive its pitch information?

A

The EGIs.

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108
Q

What employs rate damping to improve helicopter stability, 10% control authority, fast in response, and can operate without causing movement of the flight controls?

A

Inner loop (SAS—pitch, roll and yaw

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109
Q

What are the two cautions and one advisory associated with the Stabilator?

A

STAB MANUAL MODE, STAB

UNLOCKED, STAB DEGRADED

110
Q

. Basic autopilot functions are provided by?

A

Trim/FPS

111
Q

The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.

A

AFCS FAIL

112
Q

What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?

A

The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged

113
Q

What does the STAB DEGRADED advisory mean?

A

The stabilator is in a limited auto mode

114
Q

To attempt to clear AFCS fault indications, the pilot can_________.

A

Press the illuminated CPTR 1 and/or

CPTR 2 button

115
Q

The collective trim beeper can be used below 50 KIAS to ________?

A

Change the aircraft heading

116
Q

The inner loop or SAS provides how much control authority?

A

5% per or 10% total

117
Q

The outer loop or Trim/FPS provides how much control authority?

A

100%

118
Q

What are the five basic subsystems that comprise AFCS?

A

Stabilator, Trim, SAS, FPS, and Coupled FD.

119
Q

.Dynamic stability is provided by?

A

SAS

120
Q

The ______________ caution indicates the majority of AFCS has shut down.

A

AFCS FAIL

121
Q

What does the SAS DEGRADED advisory mean?

A

The SAS pitch, roll, or yaw channel has disengaged.

122
Q

What are the main rotor subsystems?

A

m/r blades, hub, flight controls, bifilar vibration absorber

123
Q

Conical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements

A

Flap, lead, lag

124
Q

Cylindrical Elastomeric bearings permit what movements?

A

Provides the pitch change axis

125
Q

Main module chip detector has a _____ time delay to allow fuzz burn to work?

A

30 seconds

126
Q

The ________ accessory module has a low oil pressure switch and chip detector.

A

Left

127
Q

Main XSMSN oil capacity?

A

7 GALLONS

128
Q

Each accessory module has a mounting flange for the installation and drive of the:

A

Main ac generator and Main hydraulic pump.

129
Q

The main transmission is made up of ____ modules.

A

Five (Two input modules, the main module, and two accessory modules)

130
Q

Where is the Low Oil Pressure switch located?

A

Left accessory module

131
Q

The main transmission may run at cruise flight for _______ with loss of all oil?

A

30 minutes

132
Q

The ac generators on the accessory modules also receive oil for what?

A

Cooling

133
Q

The oil temperature sensor is also the chip detector located where?

A

Main module, intermediate module, tail rotor module

134
Q

What range should oil pressure remain steady in to ensure any fluctuations occur they remain in the acceptable range?

A

45 to 60 psi

135
Q

What is used to cool the main transmission oil?

A

Oil cooler fan and the radiator

136
Q

What caution appears if a chip detector fails the PBIT during power up?

A

CHIP IBIT FAIL

137
Q

The Oil Filter has ___ stages

A

Two

138
Q

Does deactivation of the fuzz burn-off feature disable detection and cautions?

A

No

139
Q

. The fuzz burn-off feature is deactivated when oil temperature reaches ___°C.

A

140

140
Q

Does the engine have fuzz burn capability?

A

no

141
Q

When inspecting the flexible couplings, check for _______, _____, and _____.

A

Buckling, Cracks, and Security.

142
Q

The intermediate gear box may run at cruise flight for ___ minutes, with loss of all oil.

A

30

143
Q

The tail rotor provides approximately _____ lift

A

2 ½% total aircraft lift

144
Q

If both tail rotor control cables fail, a centering spring will position the tail rotor servo linkage to provide ____˚ of pitch.

A

10.5 ˚

145
Q

The tail rotor head and blades are installed on the right side of the tail pylon, canted __° upward. 20˚ 25. One advantage of the wide chord blades is _________________.

A

Better maneuverability

146
Q

Each arm of the hub assembly is pre-lagged and pre-coned __° to reduce the torque bending movement from the head and reduce vibrations

A

7

147
Q

Pitch control rod bearings are elastomeric and should be inspected for _____/_____ on preflight.

A

Damage/Cracks

148
Q

The three control inputs connecting the primary servos to the main rotor swashplate are the _______, ___, and _______ control rods

A

Forward, Aft, and Lateral

149
Q

The rotor brake system is designed to hold the main and tail rotor system during engine starting, with both

engines at IDLE and to stop the rotors in approximately ___-___ seconds with 150-180 psi applied at 40% NR during engine shutdown.

A

12-18

150
Q

Operating an engine against the gust lock __ _______ on rotor brake equipped helicopters.

A

Is prohibited

151
Q

What is the purpose of spring cylinders?

A

Maintain tension on operating cables of T/R Quadrant

152
Q

he rotor brake solenoid locks the ______________ in the ground idle position through a locking arm linked to the solenoid.

A

EPCLs

153
Q

Where does emergency power come from?

A

A generator driven by the APU

154
Q

0Where does DC power come from

A

2 converters

155
Q

What voltage do the converters output?

A

28 volts

156
Q

Where does converter output go?

A

No 1 and 2 DC primary buses

157
Q

What provides secondary or emergency power?

A

2 slab batteries

158
Q

Where does power from the slabs go?

A

Battery utility bus (bub), battery bus, DC essential bus

159
Q

How many phases do the generators have?

A

3 phases

160
Q

How many priorities of power are there and what are they?

A

1st - Main Gens, 2nd- APU Gen, 3rd - External power receptacle

161
Q

How are main generators cooled?

A

Oil cooled

162
Q

How is the APU generator cooled?

A

Air cooled

163
Q

How many generators are required for blade de-ice?

A

2

164
Q

Voltage regulation - Regulates voltage to

A

115/200 VAC.

165
Q

Over voltage:

A

When the generator output voltage rises above limits generator is disabled and disconnected from the system

166
Q

Under voltage

A

85-89% NR

167
Q

Current limiting

A

When excessive current demands are placed on the generator it is disabled and disconnected from the system

168
Q

Under Frequency

A

93-95% NR (ground operation only, disabled by WOW switch)

169
Q

Feeder Fault

A

When current transformers sense a short circuit in the feeder lines between the generators and the junction boxes the generator is disabled and disconnected from the system

170
Q

Converter takes _____________ and makes ___________

Each system is capable of supplying _______________

A

3 phase 115 VAC , 28 VDC

total aircraft power

171
Q

What are the basics of the batteries 1&2?

A

24 VDC SLAB, 5 amp/hr, 15 min uninterrupted emergency power

172
Q

What controls the fuel system?

A

Controlled by the Digital Electronic Sequence Unit (DESU)

173
Q

What the most common method of refueling?

A

Pressure will transfer over and is MOST COMMON

METHOD (55 PSI 300 GPM)

174
Q

Internal check valves are used for what?

A

-way direction and keeps system primed

175
Q

What are the pilot controlled fuel systems?

A

submerged boost, prime boost, and CEFS

176
Q

What 3 inputs affect fuel flow to the HMU?

A

PAS, LDS, DEC (torque motor)

177
Q

What is the fuel flow?(in order of flow)

A

Engine driven boost pump, fuel press sensor, fuel filter, HMU, liquid to liquid cooler, ODV, Main fuel manifold (12 injectors)

178
Q

Which fuel cell feeds the APU?

A

Number 1 fuel cell

179
Q

Three methods to refuel the aircraft

A

gravity (one cell at a time), pressure (55 PSI at 300 GPM both cells

simultaneously) and closed circuit (15 PSI at 110 GPM similar to pressure but with NATO fitting)

180
Q

Which fuels may be used?

A

JP-8, JP-5 and JP-4

181
Q

Which fuel lines are self-sealing and which ones are not?

A

Engine lines are self-sealing but APU/CEFS are

steel braided and not self-sealing

182
Q

Which fuel pump is energized when the button is pressed?

A

Prime boost pump

183
Q

Which fuel pumps are pilot controlled?

A

Submerged boost, prime boost and CEFS

184
Q

When refueling, what mechanism stops incoming fuel?

A

High level shutof (similar to toilet bowl)

185
Q

Pressure refuel/defuel valves are closed by high/low level shutoff valves when?

A

Fuel level is at the high or

low level, respectively

186
Q

Which component produces a signal for the amount of fuel in the cells?

A

Fuel Quantity probe

187
Q

In the fuel cells, what keeps the fuel lines primed?

A

One-way check valves

188
Q

Also in the fuel cells, what component allows for expansion of fuel in cold temperatures?

A

Pressure relief valve

189
Q

Fuel cells have a ballistic tolerance up to?

A

7.62

190
Q

What are the abort criteria?

A

No rise in TGT

No rise in oil pressure

No NP within 45secs

Eng starter On caution disappears before reaching 52% NG

TGT reaches 851 C before idle is attained (above 63% NG)

191
Q

What powers the submerged boost pump?

A

No.1 and No. 2 AC PRI BUS

192
Q

When does the FUEL LOW caution appear?

A

Approx. 172 lbs

193
Q

When does the fuel pressure sensor activate the FUEL 1 or FUEL 2 PRESS LOW caution?

A

When fuel pressure is less than -9 psi

194
Q

The APU uses approx. how many pounds per hour?

A

120 lbs

195
Q

What prevents an excessive fuel leak if a fuel line breaks loose?

A

Fuel breakaway valve

196
Q

Approximately how many gallons of fuel remain after pressure defueling?

A

3.5 gallons

197
Q

What kind of pressure does the engine-driven boost pump use to pump fuel?

A

Negative pressure

198
Q

What prevents the fuel cells from collapsing due to negative pressure from the engine driven boost pump?

A

Y-shaped vent tube

199
Q

Where do the no.1 and no.2 submerged boost pumps receive their power?

A

No.1 and no.2 AC primary busses respectively

200
Q

What section of the aircraft are the fuel cells in?

A

Transition

201
Q

The engine driven fuel boost pumps are driven by?

A

The Ng section of the engine

202
Q

What is a bus

A

a grouping of circuit breakers with the same source of power

203
Q

What are the primary sources of ac power

A

No 1 and No 2 main AC generators

204
Q

How is the electrical system redundant

A

t has duplicate systems and components that can power the system individually

205
Q

What component has built in safeties and controls the generators

A

the GCU

206
Q

How do main generators differ from the APU generator

A

Main liquid cooled, APU air cooled with limits

207
Q

What changes 115 VAc to 26 VAC and for what

A

the auto transformers, for the stabilator position indicator

208
Q

What is the order of power priority

A

Main generators, APU generator, external power

209
Q

What are the limits of the apu generator?

A
210
Q

What advisory appears if one or both auto transformers fail

A

AC REF BUS DEGRADED

211
Q

What are the differences in aircraft reaction from one to two auto transformer fails

A

Check condition of stabilator indications

212
Q

GEN 1 FAIL or GEN 2 FAIL Caution Appears

A

No output from main generators

213
Q

GEN 1 BRG FAIL means? How long must the caution stay on

A

Generator main bearing is failing, aux in use, 10 hour limit. Must stay on 1 minte

214
Q

AC REF BUS DEGRADED means

A
215
Q

What can be done for a GEN 1/2 FAIL

A

Take gen switch to off/reset, then back on to reset GCU

216
Q

Primary sources of DC power?

A

No 1 and 2 converter

217
Q

Are the converters redundant?

A

Yes, one can supply the entire DC system

218
Q

If both converters fail, which busses would be lost

A

No 1 and 2 PRI DC busses

219
Q

CONV 1/2 FAIL means

A

No output from the converter

220
Q

DC ESS BUS 1/2 OFF means

A

DC essential bus has no power

221
Q

Can the converters be reset?

A

No, they are hardwired to the AC. The either work or dont

222
Q

What pilot action would make CONV 1/2 FAIL appear

A

Turning off the same side battery of a failed converter

223
Q

Should BATT LOW CHARGE appear in flight?

A

No, they should be charging

224
Q

Prior to turning on APU Gen what do we do

A

Clear TACAN and Stabilator

225
Q

If a circuit breaker is popped during the breaker check, what do we do

A

Push it in, check to see if it pops again when power is applied

226
Q

PRIST is added to the fuel for what

A

Anti icing

Biocide - anti bacteria life shit

227
Q

Which lines are not self sealing

A

APU and CEFS

228
Q

engine driven Boost pump draws with what kind of pressure

If not enough pressure, what caution

A

negative pressure

FUEL X PRESS LOW

229
Q

Fuel selector valves

A

Connect to fuel selector levers with cables

230
Q

What does the yellow low fuel quantity indication represent? When does the fuel low line come on?

A

200 lbs

172lbs

231
Q

Engine driven boost pumps are driven by

A

Ng

232
Q

Once fuel filter clogs, what caution comes on

A

FUEL BYPASS

233
Q

FUEL BYPASS EP

A

Land ASAP

234
Q

Fuel low 1/2 EP

A

Pressure in the lines is low

Land as soon as practicable

235
Q

three times you do a fuel sample

A

First flight of day

after cold refuel

suspected contamination

236
Q

how deep is the fuel cell

A

4 feet

237
Q

how long does the fuel probe need to be

A

5 feet

238
Q

how many hours of settling time for a fuel sample

A

1 hour per foot (4)

239
Q

SAS inoperative airspeed limits:

A

(1) One SAS inoperative - 170 KIAS.

(2) Two SAS inoperative - 150 KIAS.

(3) Two SAS inoperative in IMC - 140 KIAS.

240
Q

HYD PUMP 1 fail EP

A

TAIL SERVO BACKUP, then NORMAL

Land Practicable

241
Q

HYD PUMP 2 FAIL EP

A

Press FAILURE RESET CPTR 1 and or 2

Land practicable

242
Q

HYD PUMP 1 and 2 FAIL EP

A

Land as soon as possible

243
Q

HYD PUMP 2, Backup pump advisory does not appear EP

A

-Adjust to comfortable airspeed

-Backup HYD PUMP on

(If BU PUMP advisory appears)

-FCC reset, land prac

(IF BU PUMP advi doesnt appear)

-FPS, SAS/BOOST off

-land ASAP

244
Q

PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL Caution Appears

A

SERVO OFF switch - check centered

If centered, move servo off to malfunctioning servo #

Land ASAP

245
Q

RSVR 1 LOW and HYD PUMP 1 Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing

A

-Land as soon as practicable

If BACKUP RSVR LOW caution also appears

-SERVO OFF switch - 1ST STG

If PRI SERVO 2 FAIL appears,

-Land ASAP

246
Q

RSVR 2 LOW and HYD PUMP 2 FAIL Cautions Appear With BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Appearing

A
  • FCC 1 and 2 RESET if illuminated
  • Land as soon as practicable

If back up RSVR low appears

  • SERVO OFF 2nd STG

If PRI SERVO 1 fail appears,

LAND ASAP

247
Q

RSVR 2 LOW EP

A

-SAS/BOOST off

  • FPS off
  • Land as soon as practicable
248
Q

T/R SERVO 1 FAIL Caution Appears and BACK UP PUMP ON Advisory Does Not Appear or T/R SERVO 2 ON Advisory Does Not Appear.

A

T/R SERVO - BACKUP

BACKUP HYD PUMP - ON

Land as soon as practicable

249
Q

PSI During depressurization valve for backup pump?

Normal PSI?

A

No more than 700PSI

3000 PSI

250
Q

Airspeed for run on during T/R Quad fail?

A

25 to 145 knots

251
Q

Bank angle limit for a PRI SERVO FAIL

A

30 degrees

252
Q

Flight director uses which axes

A

Pitch, roll, collective trim

253
Q

FPS uses which axes

A

Pitch, roll, yaw

254
Q

Does flight director or FPS hold heading

A

FPS holds heading, FD does NOT

255
Q

SEF

A

EST SE AIRSPEED

JETTISON

LAND ASAP

256
Q

DEC LOW SIDE FAILURE

A

SE airspeed establish

PCL to Lockout

Land practicable

257
Q

DEC High side

A

SE airspeed

PCL retard

Practicable

(If engine does not respond)

SE emergency shutdown

258
Q

NP Oscillations

A

SE airspeed

259
Q

Comp stall

A

SE airspeed establish

PCL retard

EMER ENG Shutdown

260
Q

Engine X OIL BYPASS

A

SE airspeed

PCL retard

Practicable

261
Q

CHIP ENG X

A

SE airspeed

PCL Retard

EMER ENG shutdown

262
Q

Min max rotor brake operation pressure

A

450PSI, 690 PSI

263
Q

Power on rotor limits

A

91-95 trans

95-101 continuous

101-107 trans

264
Q

Power off rotor limits

A

90-105% norm

105-110 Transient

110 max

265
Q

MAIN TRANS PRESS EP

A

Land ASAP

if time permits

EMER APU START

266
Q

CHIP L or R INPUT MDL

A

SE airspeed

PCL affected engine IDLE

Land ASAP

267
Q

Any transmission chips

A

Land ASAP

268
Q

Loss of tail cruise EP

A

Autorotate

PCLs OFF

269
Q

Loss of tail right rotation

A

Collective reduce

PCL off 5-10feet above ground

270
Q

T/R quad fail EP

A

Collective - adjust to determine controllability

271
Q

Main rotor system malfunction EP

A

Land ASAP

Emerg eng shutdown

Rotor brake

272
Q

Rotor brake advisory in flight

A

Land ASAP

UH60 (30 decks)

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