*5D XC Planning - FAR 91 Flashcards

0
Q
  1. If an inflight emergency requires immediate action by the pilot, what authority and responsibilities does he/she have?
    (14 CFR 91.3)
A

a. The PIC is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
b. In an inflight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule in Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
c. Each PIC who deviates from a Part 91 rule shall, upon request from the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.

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1
Q
  1. What restrictions apply to pilots concerning the use of drugs and alcohol?
    (14 CFR 91.17)
A

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft:

a. within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
b. while under the influence of alcohol;
c. while using any drug that affects the person’s faculties in any way contrary to safety; or
d. while having an alcohol concentration of .04 percent or more in a blood or breath specimen.

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2
Q
  1. Is it permissible for a pilot to allow a person who is obviously under the influence of intoxicating liquors or drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.17)
A

No. Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.

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3
Q
  1. May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft?
    (14 CFR 91.21)
A

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on which it is to be used.

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4
Q
  1. Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
    (14 CFR 91.15)
A

No pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft may allow any object to be dropped from that aircraft in flight that creates a hazard to persons or property. However, this section does not prohibit the dropping of any object if reasonable precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property.

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5
Q
  1. Concerning a flight in the local area, is any preflight action required, and if so, what must it consist of?
    (14 CFR 91.103)
A

Yes, pilots must familiarize themselves with all available information concerning that flight, including runway lengths at airports of intended use, and takeoff and landing distance data under existing conditions.

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6
Q
  1. Preflight action as required by regulation for all flights away from the vicinity of the departure airport shall include a review of what specific information?
    (14 CFR 91.103)
A

For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport:

a. Weather reports and forecasts
b. Fuel requirements
c. Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed
d. Any known traffic delays of which the pilot-in-command has been advised by ATC
e. Runway lengths of intended use
f. Takeoff and landing distance data

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7
Q
  1. Which persons on board an aircraft are required to use seatbelts and when?
    (14 CFR 91.107)
A

Each person on board a U.S.-registered civil aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt, and if installed, shoulder harness, properly secured about him or her during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing. However a person who has not reached his or her second birthday and does not occupy or use any restraining device may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth, and a person on board for the purpose of engaging in sport parachuting may use the floor of the aircraft as a seat.

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8
Q
  1. What responsibility does the pilot-in-command have concerning passengers and their use of seatbelts?
    (14 CFR 91.107)
A

No pilot may take off a U.S. registered civil aircraft unless the pilot-in-command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person’s safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed. The pilot-in-command shall ensure that all persons on board have been notified to fasten their seatbelt and shoulder harness, if installed, before movement of the aircraft on the surface, takeoff or landing.

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9
Q
  1. When are flight crewmembers required to keep their seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened? (14 CFR 91.105)
A

During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall keep his/her seatbelt fastened while at his/her station. During takeoff and landing this includes shoulder harnesses, if installed, unless it interferes with other required duties.

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10
Q
  1. If operating an aircraft in close proximity to another, such as formation flight, what regulations apply?
    (14 CFR 91.111)
A

a. No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.
b. No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft in the formation.
c. No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.

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11
Q
  1. What is the order of right-of-way as applied to the different categories of aircraft?
    (14 CFR 91.113)
A
B	alloons
G	liders
A	irships
A	irplanes
R	otorcraft
Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft have the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.
Remember: BGAAR (BIG “R”)
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12
Q
  1. When would an aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
    (14 CFR 91.113)
A

An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

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13
Q
  1. State the required action for each of the aircraft confrontations (same category), below.
    (14 CFR 91.113)
A

Converging
Approaching head-on
Overtaking
Converging—aircraft on right has the right-of-way.
Approaching head-on—both aircraft shall alter course to right.
Overtaking—aircraft being overtaken has the right-of-way; pilot of the overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right.

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14
Q
  1. What right-of-way rules apply when two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing?
    (14 CFR 91.113)
A

Aircraft on final approach to land or while landing have the right-of-way over aircraft in flight or operating on the surface, except that they shall not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway surface which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraft on final approach. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.

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15
Q
  1. Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
    (14 CFR 91.117)
A

No person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH).

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16
Q
  1. What is the minimum safe altitude that an aircraft may be operated over a congested area of a city?
    (14 CFR 91.119)
A

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft over a congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

17
Q
  1. In areas other than congested areas, what minimum safe altitudes shall be used?
    (14 CFR 91.119)
A

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft shall be operated no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

18
Q
  1. Define “minimum safe altitude.”

14 CFR 91.119

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

19
Q
  1. What is the lowest altitude an aircraft may be operated over an area designated as a U.S. wildlife refuge, park or Forest Service Area?
    (AIM 7-4-6)
A

All aircraft are requested to maintain a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet above the surface.

20
Q
  1. When flying below 18,000 feet MSL, cruising altitude must be maintained by reference to an altimeter set using what procedure?
    (14 CFR 91.121)
A

When the barometric pressure is 31.00” Hg or less, each person operating an aircraft must maintain the cruising altitude of that aircraft by reference to an altimeter that is set to the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 nautical miles of the aircraft. If there is no station within this area, the current reported altimeter setting of an available station may be used. If the barometric pressure exceeds 31.00” Hg, consult the Aeronautical Information Manual for correct procedures.

21
Q
  1. If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, what procedure should be used?
    (14 CFR 91.121)
A

Use the same procedure as in the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio: the elevation of the departure airport or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure should be used.

22
Q
  1. When may a pilot intentionally deviate from an ATC clearance or instruction?
    (14 CFR 91.123)
A

No pilot may deviate from an ATC clearance unless:

a. an amended clearance has been obtained,
b. an emergency exists,
c. or in response to a traffic and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

23
Q
  1. As pilot-in-command, what action, if any, is required of you if you deviate from an ATC instruction and priority is given?
    (14 CFR 91.123)
A

Two actions are required of you as PIC:

a. Each pilot-in-command who, in an emergency or in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory, deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction must notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible.
b. Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC (on-the-ground responsibility).

24
Q
  1. In the event of radio failure while operating an aircraft to, from, through or on an airport having an operational tower, what are the different types and meanings of light gun signals you might receive from an ATC tower?
    (14 CFR 91.125)
A

On Ground
Steady Green - Cleared for Takeoff
Flashing Green - Cleared to Taxi
Steady Red - Stop
Flashing Red - Taxi Clear of Runway
Flashing White - Return to Start
Alternate Red/Green - Exercise Extreme Caution
In Air
Steady Green - Cleared to Land
Flashing Green - Return for Landing
Steady Red - Yield, Continue Circling
Flashing Red - Unsafe, Do Not Land
Flashing White - Not Used
Alternate Red/Green - Exercise Extreme Caution
Note: Most pilots find these hard to remember; attach them to your kneeboard or your flight log form.

25
Q
  1. If the aircraft radio fails in flight under VFR while operating into a tower controlled airport, what conditions must be met before a landing may be made at that airport?
    (14 CFR 91.126, 91.127, 91.129)
A

a. Weather conditions must be at or above basic VFR weather minimums;
b. Visual contact with the tower is maintained; and
c. A clearance to land is received.

26
Q
  1. What procedures should be used when attempting communications with a tower when the aircraft transmitter or receiver or both are inoperative?
    (AIM 4-2-13)
A

Arriving Aircraft Receiver Inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Advise tower of aircraft type, position, altitude, and intention to land. Request to be controlled by light signals.
d. At 3 to 5 miles, advise tower of position and join traffic pattern.
e. Watch tower for light gun signals.
Arriving Aircraft Transmitter Inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Monitor frequency for landing or traffic information.
d. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
e. Daytime, acknowledge by rocking wings. Nighttime, acknowledge by flashing landing light or navigation lights.
Arriving Aircraft Transmitter and Receiver Inoperative:
a. Remain outside or above Class D surface area.
b. Determine direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the traffic pattern and watch for light gun signals.
d. Acknowledge light signals as noted above.

27
Q
  1. What general rules apply concerning traffic pattern operations at non-tower airports within Class E or G airspace?
    (14 CFR 91.126, 91.127)
A

Each person operating an aircraft to or from an airport without an operating control tower shall:

a. in the case of an airplane approaching to land, make all turns of that airplane to the left unless the airport displays approved light signals or visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right, in which case the pilot shall make all turns to the right.
b. in the case of an aircraft departing an airport, comply with any traffic patterns established for that airport in Part 93.

28
Q
  1. When operating in Class D airspace, what procedure should be used when approaching to land on a runway with a Visual Approach Slope Indicator?
    (14 CFR 91.129)
A

Aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a Visual Approach Slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

29
Q
  1. What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight at night?

14 CFR 91.151

A

No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

30
Q
  1. What is the fuel requirement for VFR flight during the day?
    (14 CFR 91.151)
A

During the day, you must be able to fly to the first point of intended landing, and assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes.

31
Q
  1. When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000 feet above the surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown?
    (14 CFR 91.159)
A

When operating above 3,000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0° to 179°, fly at an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180° to 359°, fly at an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

32
Q
  1. What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight?
    (14 CFR 91.205)
A

For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required:
T achometer for each engine
O il pressure gauge for each engine
M anifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine
A ltimeter
T emperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine
O il temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine
F uel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank
F lotation gear—and at least one pyrotechnic signaling device if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore
L anding gear position indicator, if the airplane has retractable gear
A irspeed indicator
A nticollision light system—aviation red and white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996
M agnetic direction indicator
E mergency locator transmitter (if required by 14 CFR §91.207)
S afety belts (and shoulder harnesses for each front seat in aircraft manufactured after 1978)

33
Q
  1. What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight?
    (14 CFR 91.205)
A

For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following:
F uses—one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight
L anding light—if the aircraft is operated for hire
A nticollision light system—approved aviation red or white
P osition lights—(navigation lights)
S ource of electrical energy—adequate for all installed electrical and radio equipment

34
Q
  1. What is an “ELT”?

AIM 6-2-5

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter—A radio transmitter attached to the aircraft structure which operates from its own power source on 121.5, 243.0 MHz, and the newer 406 MHz. It aids in locating downed aircraft by radiating a downward-sweeping audio tone, 2 – 4 times a second. It is designed to function without human action after an accident. It can be operationally tested during the first 5 minutes after any hour. (Note: Digital 406 MHz ELTs should only be tested per the manufacturer’s instructions.)

35
Q
  1. Is an emergency locator transmitter required on all aircraft?
    (14 CFR 91.207)
A

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil airplane unless there is attached to the airplane an automatic-type emergency locator transmitter that is in operable condition. Several exceptions exist, including the following:

a. Aircraft engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-nautical-mile radius of the airport from which such local flight operations began.
b. Aircraft engaged in design and testing.
c. New aircraft engaged in manufacture, preparation and delivery.
d. Aircraft engaged in agricultural operations.

36
Q
  1. When must the batteries in an emergency locator transmitter be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
    (14 CFR 91.207)
A

Batteries used in ELTs must be replaced (or recharged, if the batteries are rechargeable):
a. When the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour; or
b. When 50 percent of their useful life (or, rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of charge), has expired.
Note: The new expiration date for replacing (or recharging) the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record. This date indicates 50% of the battery’s useful life.

37
Q
  1. What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft?
    (14 CFR 91.211)
A

a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL: for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen.
b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL: for the entire flight time at those altitudes, the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen.
c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL: each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen.

38
Q
  1. According to regulations, where is aerobatic flight of an aircraft not permitted?
    (14 CFR 91.303)
A

No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight:

a. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement;
b. Over an open air assembly of persons;
c. Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport;
d. Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of a Federal airway;
e. Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface; or
f. When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

39
Q
  1. Define aerobatic flight.

14 CFR 91.303

A

For the purposes of this section, aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

40
Q
  1. When are parachutes required on board an aircraft?

14 CFR 91.307

A

a. Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds:
• a bank angle of 60° relative to the horizon; or
• a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon.
b. The above regulation does not apply to:
• flight tests for pilot certification or rating; or
• spins and other flight maneuvers required by the regulations for any certificate or rating when given by a CFI or ATP instructing in accordance with 14 CFR §61.67.