5) Conditions: Developmental Flashcards

Module 5

1
Q

4 Evaluation Steps

A

1) Planning
2) Gathering the Occupational Profile
3) Analysis of Occupational Performance
4) Synthesis of Evaluation Process

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2
Q

What is the most common motor disability of childhood?

A

Cerebral Palsy

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3
Q

What diagnosis would you suspect, given the following symptoms: lack of coordination, scissor gate, OM deficits, tremors?

A

Cerebral Palsy

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4
Q

Manual Ability Classification System (MACS)
Eating and Drinking Ability Classification System (EDACS)
Modified Tardieu Scale
COPM
PEDI-CAT

There are all used in assessment of which diagnosis?

A

Cerebral Palsy

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5
Q

As part of an inter-disciplinary autism evaluation team, the OT helps to administer the Autism Diagnostic Observation Schedule (ADOS-2). In order to confirm the diagnosis of autism the child shows symptoms in need of support in the two following categories:

a. Repetitive and restrictive behaviors & sensory sensitivities
b. Repetitive and restrictive behaviors & expressive language disorder
c. Social interaction & repetitive and restrictive behaviors
d.Social interaction & cognitive delays

A

Social interaction & repetitive and restrictive behaviors

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6
Q

What are the 3 severity levels of autism?

A

Level 1: requiring support
Level 2: requiring substantial support
Level 3: requiring very substantial support

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7
Q

Is a Top-Down or Bottom-Up Approach considered best for Neurodevelopmental Conditions?

A

Top-Down Approach

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8
Q

Describe botox as an intervention for Cerebral Palsy.

A

toxin injections directly in spastic muscle, paralyzes the targeted muscle, by blocking ACh release, lasts 3-4 months

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9
Q

Which of the following feeding interventions is successful in treatment of children with CP?

Sensorimotor Facilitation
Positioning
Feeding Devices
None of the above

A

None of the above.

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10
Q

Which autism intervention uses imitation to increase engagement and interaction?

A) Reciprocal Imitation Training
B) Relationship Developmental Intervention
C) TEACCH
D) Early Start Denver Model
E) Pivotal Response Training

A

A) Reciprocal Information Training (RIT)

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11
Q

Which autism intervention focuses on coping with changes, being more flexible, and integration of information?

A) Reciprocal Imitation Training
B) Relationship Developmental Intervention
C) TEACCH
D) Early Start Denver Model
E) Pivotal Response Training

A

B) Relationship Development Intervention (RDI)

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12
Q

Which autism intervention uses visual support strategies to improve motor skills and cognition?

A) Reciprocal Imitation Training
B) Relationship Development Intervention
C) TEACCH
D) Early Start Denver Model
E) Pivotal Response Training

A

C) TEACCH

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13
Q

Which autism intervention focuses on joint attention and shared interaction using a naturalistic applied behavioral approach?

A) Reciprocal Imitation Training
B) Relationship Development Intervention
C) TEACCH
D) ) Early Start Denver Model
E) Pivotal Response Training

A

Early Start Denver Model

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14
Q

Which autism intervention uses specific strategies, such as, providing choice, using task variation, rewarding attempts, and natural reinforcers in play-based sessions?

A) Reciprocal Imitation Training
B) Relationship Development Intervention
C) TEACCH
D) ) Early Start Denver Model
E) Pivotal Response Training

A

Pivotal Response Training

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15
Q

Name at least two feeding interventions with moderate to strong evidence.

A

SOS Approach
Co-Op cognitive-behavioral approach
Operant Conditioning
Systematic Desensitization
Environmental/Family Intervention

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16
Q

A genetic disorder that can be affected by lifestyle and environment with mutations in one or more genes is known as:

a. Single-gene disorders
b. Chromosomal disorders
c. Complex disorders
d. Mitochondrial disorders

A

c. Complex Disorder (Colon Cancer)

17
Q

A genetic disorder that can be dominant, recessive, or x-linked and affects only one gene, is known as:

a. Single-gene disorders
b. Chromosomal disorders
c. Complex disorders
d. Mitochondrial disorders

A

a. Single Gene Disorder (Sickle Cell Anemia)

18
Q

A genetic disorder in which parts of chromosomes are missing or misplaced is known as:

a. Single-gene disorders
b. Chromosomal disorders
c. Complex disorders
d. Mitochondrial disorders

A

b. Chromosomal Disorder (Trisomy 21)

19
Q

A genetic disorder in which the maternal genetic material is mutated is known as:

a. Single-gene disorders
b. Chromosomal disorders
c. Complex disorders
d. Mitochondrial disorders

A

d. Mitochondrial Disorder

20
Q

What are the following age norms for typical children versus Trisomy 21 children:

Sits Alone
Crawls
Stands
Walks Alone

A

Sit - 5-9m, 6-30m
Crawl - 6-12m, 8-22m
Stand - 8-17m, 1-3.25y
Walk - 9-18m, 1-4 y

21
Q

What are the following age norms for typical children versus Trisomy 21 children:

Responsive Smile
Finger Feeds
Uses Spoon
Dresses Self

A

Smile - 1-3m, 1.5-5m
Feed - 7-14m, 10-24m
Spoon - 12-20m, 13-39m
Dressing - 3.25-5y, 3.5-8.5y

22
Q

What is the most common cause of birth defects, that is preventable?

A

Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorders

23
Q

A group treatment approach that teaches children to recognize deficit areas and to adapt strategies to compensate for weak areas and build on strengths, is called _____?

A

Neurocognitive Habilitation Therapy (used on FASD)

24
Q

Which performance skill in handwriting, do children with FASD have the greatest difficulty in?

Fine Motor
Coordination
Visual Motor
Visual Perception

A

Visual Motor

25
Q

Strong evidence supports __________ to improve handwriting LEGIBILITY.

a) addressing visual perception
b) therapeutic practice
c) sensorimotor approach
d) motor skill training

A

b) therapeutic practice

26
Q

A type of brain damage that results from high levels of bilirubin (jaundice) in an infant for too long, is called _____.

A

Kernicterus
(can cause athetoid CP , H/V loss, and ID)

27
Q

This type of heart defect includes four anomalies including a ventricular septal defect, a narrowing of the pulmonary artery, an enlarged and misplaced aortic valve, and ventricular hypertrophy.

A

Tetrology of Fallot

28
Q

Descriptive term for the development of non-progressive contractures, affecting one or more areas of the body, prior to birth, is called ___.

A

Arthrogryposis

Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita (AMC) is if two or more areas are affected on the body

29
Q

What orthopedic procedure would help increase passive elbow flexion and the arc of elbow motion for children with arthrogryposis?

A

Elbow Capsulotomoy and Tricep Lengthening

30
Q

What type of approach is best when treating Arthrogryposis?

Top-Down
Bottom-Up

A

Top-Down so the intervention can occur directly at the level of participation

31
Q

What is a common scale used to classify the level of functional hand use in a child diagnosed with cerebral palsy?

a. The Gross Motor Functional Classification Scale (GMFCS)
b. The Canadian Occupational Therapy Performance Measure
c. The Functional Communication Scale
d. The Manual Ability Classification Scale (MACS)

A

d. The Manual Ability Classification Scale (MACS)