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World week 1 > 5/14 > Flashcards

5/14 Flashcards

1
Q

How do people get hydatid cyts

A

Infection w/ echinococcus granulosos from “intimate contact with dogs”

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2
Q

Dysentary + RUQ pain and single cyst + Mexico

A

Entamoeba histolytic causing amebic liver abscess

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3
Q

Viral arthritis features

A

Symmetrical + Fever that goes away in 2 months

Can have ANA and RF +

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4
Q

When is arrest of labor is the first stage diagnosed

A

> 6cm dilation w/ ruptured membranes in the setting of no cervical change for .4 hours w/ adequate contractions OR
when no cervical change for >6 hours with inadequate contractions

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5
Q

What is pitocin for

A

Helping contraction strength

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6
Q

PCP cxr

A

Bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates beginning the in perihilar region

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7
Q

Triad of biliary cysts

A
  1. Abdominal pain
  2. Jaundice
  3. RUQ palpable mass
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8
Q

What is peak airway pressure the sum of

A

Airway resistance and plateau pressure

Plateau pressure is the sum of the elastic pressure and PEEP

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9
Q

Amp + Gent has good synergism for what

A

Gram-neg aerobes (for abdominal infections in combo w/ metronidazole)

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10
Q

Lambert-Eaton occurs w/ what lung Ca

A

Small cell

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11
Q

Severe bipolar episode tx

A

Lithium or valproate + Atypical antipsychotic

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12
Q

What causes bowel ischemia post AAA repair

A

Inadequate colonic collateral arterial perfusion to the left and sigmoid colon after loss of IMA during aortic graft placement

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13
Q

MCC of urinary retention in older men

A

Bladder outlet obstruction du eto BPH

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14
Q

First step in workup of thyroid nodule

A

TSH and thyroid US

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15
Q

3 suspicious US features of thyroid nodules

A
  1. Hypoechoic
  2. Microcalcifications
  3. Interval vascularity
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16
Q

MC brachial plexus injury in delivery

A

Erb-Duchennes (C5-C7)

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17
Q

Type of anemia Isoniazid causes

A

Sideroblastic

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18
Q

Empiric meningitis tx

A

Vanc + Third gen cef

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19
Q

What causes biliary stasis in TPN

A

Normal stimulus for CCK release and gallbladder contraction is absent (proteins and FA in duodenum)

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20
Q

Prevalence effect on PPV and NPV

A

Inc prevalence inc PPV and dec NPV (and opposite for dec prev effect)

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21
Q

Why is are the Ab in celiac disease often absent

A

Many celiac patients have selective IgA def

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22
Q

Drugs that can cause IIH

A

GH, Tetracyclines, and excessive vitamins A and its derivatives (isotretinoin, ATRA)

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23
Q

Two types of murmurs usually due to underlying pathologic cause

A

Diastolic and continuous

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24
Q

Triad of HHS

A
  1. AMS
  2. Volume depletion
  3. Polyuria
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25
Q

How can thiazide diuretics precipitate HHS

A

Reducing intravascular volume, which decreases GFR and activates counter-regulatory hormones

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26
Q

MCC of LE edema

A

Venous valvular incompetence

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27
Q

What are lewy bodies

A

Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions representing adulation of alpha-synuclein protein

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28
Q

Gluose-6-phosphatase def features

A

Doll like face, thin extremities, short stature, and protuberant abdomen

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29
Q

How does bronchiectasis present

A

Cough, mucopurent sputum, and hemoptysis that often responds to antibiotics

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30
Q

Next line for kids who pee at night when desmopressin doesn’t work

A

TCAs (imipramine, amitriptyline, despramine)

31
Q

First abnormalities seen in a metabolically compromised fetus

A

Absent breathing movements and decelerations, followed by decreased body movements and fetal tone

32
Q

First line tx for adolescents w/ acute abnormal bleeding

A

High dose estrogen

33
Q

When do CF gets get pseudomonas

A

High chloride concentration and defective mucociliar clearance

34
Q

MCC of CF related pneumonia in infants and young children

A

S. aureus

35
Q

What usually parallels severity of CHF and is an independent predictor of poor outcome

A

Hyponatremia

36
Q

Triad of RCC

A
  1. Flank pain
  2. Hematuria
  3. Palpable abdominal renal mass
37
Q

Why varicoceles in RCC

A

Fail to empty when pt stands due to tumor obstruction of the gonadal vein where it enters the renal vein

38
Q

What rapidly reverses warfarin

A

Prothrombin-complex concentrate

39
Q

First line tx for OCD

A

SSRIs or clomipramine

40
Q

What causes outflow obstruction in HCM

A

Septal hypertrophy and abnormal anterior motion of the mitral valve

41
Q

What is elevated in B12 and folate def

A

Homocysteine

42
Q

What suggests meningioma

A

Extra-axial well circumscribed dural based mass that is partially calcified on imaging

43
Q

Angiodysplasia characterized by

A

Dilated submucosa veins and AV malformations

44
Q

3 Things angiodysplasia is common with

A
  1. Advanced renal dz
  2. WVD
  3. Aortic stenosis
45
Q

Osteoporosis screen

A

DEXA scan in all women above 65

46
Q

How does CMV retinitis present

A

Yellowish-white patches of retinal opacification and retinal hemorrhages

47
Q

Ocular toxo in AIDs pt’s typically

A

Severe necrotizing retinochoroiditis

48
Q

How does HIV retinopathy present

A

Benign, cotton wool spots in the retina which remit spontaneously

49
Q

3 cardinal signs of PD

A

Rest tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia

50
Q

Acute epididymitis in older male likely

A

Gram neg rods (E. coli)

Usually STDs in younger males

51
Q

Hallmark of ichthyosis

A

Dry and rough skin with horny plates over the extensor surfaces of the limbs

52
Q

What is tick borne paralysis characterized by

A

Rapidly ascending paralysis, no fever or sensory abnormalities, and normal CSF exam

53
Q

What is postcholecystecomy syndrome

A

Persistant abdominal pain or dyspepsia months to years after

US followed by ERCP

54
Q

what causes hypotension after an epidural

A

Blood redistribution to the lower extremities and venous pooling from sympathetic blockade

55
Q

Features of low back pain suggesting an inflammatory cuase

A

Gradual onset of pain

Onset at age

56
Q

Complications of cryptorchidism

A
  1. Inguinal hernia
  2. Testicular torsion
  3. Subfertility
  4. Testicular cancer
    (surgery decreases the risk of the last two but doesn’t eliminate)
57
Q

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome dx criteria

A
  1. BMI > 30
  2. Awake daytime PaCO2 > 45
  3. No alternate cause of hypoventilation
58
Q

Drug for intermittent claudication

A

Cilostazol

59
Q

Post seizure anion gap result of?

A

Transient elevation in lactic acid

60
Q

What is considered in hepatic hydrothorax refractory to diureticcs

A

TIPS

61
Q

Hypokalemia EKG

A
  1. U waves
  2. Flat and broad T waves
  3. Premature ventricular beats
62
Q

What is a hordeolum

A

Abscess located over the upper eyelid

63
Q

What is a chalazion

A

Chronic granulomatous inflammation of the meibomian gland that appears as a hard, painless lid nodule

64
Q

What causes pancytopenia in Lupus

A

Peripheral immune mediated destruction of all 3 cell lines

65
Q

How do anticholinergic meds cause urinary retention

A

Failure of detrusor contraction

66
Q

What causes primary dysmenorrhea

A

Increased prostaglandins release from endometrial sloughing during menses

67
Q

Indicators of severe asthma attack

A

Normalizing Pco2
Speech difficulty
Diaphoresis
Altered sensorium, cyanosis, and silent lungs

68
Q

Why won’t atropine inc HR in a patient that is brain dead

A

Vagal control of the heart is lost

69
Q

What may still be functioning in brain death

A

Spinal cord –> may be able to see DTRs

70
Q

What does flattening of the diaphragm do

A

Increase work of breathing

71
Q

How do psoas abscesses commonly present

A

Sub acutely w/ fever and lower abdominal flank pain radiating to the groin

72
Q

What arrhythmia does digitalis cause

A

Atrial tachycardia with AV block (from increased ectopy and increased vagal tone combining)

73
Q

Hypoalbuminemia effect on calcium

A

Calcium decreases by 0.8 for every 1 dec in Albumin

74
Q

Most common malignancy of the lower lip

A

Squamous cell

Basal is upper lip

World week 1 (17 decks)

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