4/31-5/1 Flashcards

1
Q

Important AE of buproprion

A

Decreases seizure threshold

esp Anorexia pt’s with electrolyte abnormalities

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2
Q

Acute glaucoma drugs

A

Mannitol, acetazolamide, pilocarpine, or timolol

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3
Q

MCC of aortic dissection

A

Hypertension

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4
Q

Marfan’s mutation

A

Fibrillin

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5
Q

How high can the diaphragm go during expiration

A

As high as 4th thoracic dermatome on right and 5th on the left (nipples)

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6
Q

Lithium tx timeline guidlines

A

1 year after first episode of Bipolar

If more than two consider years, if not lifetime

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7
Q

How is a complete mole formed

A

When 2 sperm fertilize an ovum lacking genetic material –> no fetal tissue

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8
Q

How can a molar pregnancy use bilateral ovarian enlargement

A

2/2 hyperstimulation and ovarian cyst formation (theca lutein cysts)

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9
Q

Type 2 DM dx criteria

A
  • FPG > 126 x2
  • A1C > 6.5%
  • 2 hr OGTT > 200
  • Random plasma glucose > 200
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10
Q

Acid-Base status of hypertrophic pyloric stneosis

A

Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis

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11
Q

Vitamin that helps with measles

A

Vitamin A

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12
Q

Why make sure you give iron with Epo

A

Epo-induced surge in RBC production can precipitate an iron-deficient state

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13
Q

Posterior vermis syndrome main feature

A

Truncal dystaxia

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14
Q

OA features on hand

A

Prominent osteophytes at DIP (heberden nodes) and PIP (bouchard nodes)

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15
Q

Why no furosemide for kidney stones

A

Can promote calciuria

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16
Q

When does tamsulosin act

A

On the distal ureter, lowering muscle tone and reducing reflex ureteral spasm

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17
Q

Most distinguishing feature of bath salt use

A

Prolonged duration of the effect

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18
Q

What is interstitial cystitis

A

“Painful bladder syndrome” –> worse by bladder filling and relieved by voiding
will also see urinary urgency, frequency, and chronic pelvic pain

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19
Q

MCC of cor pulomale (besides left heart failure)

A

COPD

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20
Q

CXR of cor pulmonale

A

Enlarged central pulmonary arteries and loss of retrosternal air space due to RVH

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21
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus

A

> 10 mm Hg decrease in systemic blood pressure with inspiration

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22
Q

2 major products of fires in closed spaces

A

Hydrogen cyanide and carbon monoxide

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23
Q

Cyanide tox tx

A

Hydroxocobalmin or sodium thiosulfate

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24
Q

What causes methemoglobinemia

A

Exposure to oxidizing agents (dapsone, nitrates, topical/local anesthetics)

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25
Q

Biopsy of UC shows

A

Mucosal inflammation and crypt abscesses

26
Q

Also suspect tropical sprue in what patients

A

Living in tropical areas and having diarrhea for more than one month

27
Q

Biopsy of tropical sprue

A

Blunting of villi with chronic inflammatory cells (lymphocytes, plasma cells, and eosinophils)

28
Q

What is Rotor’s syndrome

A

Chronic hyperbilirubinemia due to a defect in hepatic secretion of conjugated bill into biliary system

29
Q

Tx for premature atrial contractions (symptomatic)

A

Beta blockers

30
Q

Positive bronchodilator response criteria

A

> 12% increase in FEV1

31
Q

Suspect hUS in who

A

A child who has recently recovered from a diarrheal illness and presents with acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fever, thrombocytopenia and smear with schistocytes

32
Q

McCune-Albright features

A

Precocious puberty, cafe au last spots and multiple bone defects (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)

33
Q

Puetz-Jeghers featuers

A

GI tract polyposis and mucocutaneous pigmentation

can have estrogen secreting tumor

34
Q

Suspect what in basilar prominent COPD

A

Alpha-1 antitrypsin disease

35
Q

What do statins dec that may lead to myopathy

A

Coenzyme Q10 synthesis

36
Q

Cauda equina vs Conus medullarus syndrome

A

Cauda: all lower motor neuron signs
Conus: Upper and lower motor neuron signs

37
Q

How can GERD make asthma worse

A

Exacerbates airflow obstruction through increased vagal tone, heightened bronchial reactivity, and micro aspiration of gastric contents into upper airway

38
Q

Osteomyelitis + Sickle Cell

A

Salmonella

39
Q

Pelvis US of septic abortion

A

Retained products of conception, increased vascularity, echogenic material in the cavity, and thick endometrial stripe

40
Q

What causes placenta accreta

A

When uterine villi attach directly to the myometrium instead of the decidua

41
Q

Placenta accreta risk factors

A
  1. Prior C-sectio
  2. Hx of d/c
  3. Age >35
42
Q

US of placenta accreta

A

Intraplacental villous lakes and absence of placental-myometrial interface

43
Q

COC prevent what cancers

A

Endometrial and ovarian

Also decrease risk of benign breast disease

44
Q

Tamoxifen MOA

A

Estrogen antagonist in breast

Agonist at uterus and bone

45
Q

C1 inhibitor def leads toe elevated levels of

A

C2b and bradykinin

46
Q

Janeway lesions vs Osler nodes

A

Janeway - non-tender on palms and soles

Osler- painful and purple on fingertips and toes

47
Q

Cat scratch disease tx

A

Oral azithromycin

48
Q

Most common predisposing factor to orbital cellulitis

A

Bacterial sinusitis

49
Q

DM + Odd eye infection

A

Rhizopus causing mucormycosis

50
Q

Most common congenital cyanotic heart disease? Characteristic findings?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

Findings: single S2 and narrow mediastinum (egg on a string)

51
Q

Pagets tx

A

Bisphosphonates: inhibit osteoclasts to suppress bone turnover

52
Q

Metabolic syndrome risks with what anti-psychotics

A

Olanzapine and clozapine

do routine fasting glucose and lipids

53
Q

MEN 2A vs 2B

A

2A: Medullary TC, Pheo, PTH hyperplasia
2B: MTC, Pheo, and mucosal/interstinal neuromas and marfinoid habitus

54
Q

A-a gradient

A

P(A)O2- P(a) O2

55
Q

Class 1C drugs and features

A

Flecanide and propafenone (a-fib drugs)

In patients with faster HR, have “use dependence”, where QRS is widened

56
Q

Digoxin MOA

A

Inhibits ATP-ase and inc intracellular Na, causing inc Ca

Also enhances vagal tone

57
Q

Cause of coarctation of the aorta

A

Thickening of the tunica media near the junction of ductus arterioles and aortic arch

58
Q

When can you hear an S4

A

Pt’s with decreased LV compliance

59
Q

Why can O2 make COPD worse

A

Increased dead space perfusion causing V/Q mismatch, decreasing affinity of oxyhemoglobin for CO2, and reduced alveolar ventilation

60
Q

TF, breath sounds and percussion on PE patient

A

TF decreased
BS decreased
Percussion dull

61
Q

CXR of pneumonia vs effusion

A

PNA would not cause blinding of the costophrenic angles

62
Q

Analgesic nephropathy types

A

MC papillary necrosis and chronic tubulointersitial nephritis