312 LEC PRELIM EXAMINATION Flashcards

1
Q

Assessment shows client had Post-MI syndrome (Dressler’s syndrome). Where patient experiences fever, pericardial & pleural effusion 1-12 weeks after Myocardial Infarction. This disorder is called?

A

Pericarditis

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2
Q

Inflammation of the pericardium caused by Infective organisms (bacteria, viruses, fungi)

A

Pericarditis

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3
Q

fibrous thickening of the pericardium

A

“Chronic Constrictive Pericarditis

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4
Q

Patients verbalize pain radiating to the neck, shoulder & back. The pain is aggravated by inspiration, coughing & swallowing and feels worst in supine position. Thus, pain is relieved by sitting up & leaning forward.

A

Pericarditis

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5
Q

Assessment found scratchy high pitch sound called “Friction rub”, increase WBC count, and Atrial fibrillation/irregular and often very rapid heart rhythm

A

Pericarditis

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6
Q

A patient with pericarditis who undergo Echocardiography and CT scan will have a finding of _ of pericardium

A

thickening

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7
Q

Intervention for patient with uremic pericarditis

A

Hemodialysis

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8
Q

Intervention for patient with chronic constrictive pericarditis

A

Pericardiectomy

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9
Q

complications to monitor in patient with pericarditis

A

pericardial effusion

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10
Q

buildup of too much fluid in the double-layered, saclike structure around the heart (pericardium). The space between these layers typically contains a thin layer of fluid.

A

pericardial effusion

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11
Q

medical emergency that takes place when abnormal amounts of fluid accumulate in the pericardial sac compressing the heart leads to increased pressure, impairing ventricular filling and, and leading to a decrease in cardiac output and shock

A

cardiac tamponade

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12
Q

Patient assessment findings show Jugular distention/bulging of the major veins in your neck and muffled heart sounds

A

pericardial effusion 🡪 cardiac tamponade

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13
Q

Patient assessment findings show an abnormal drop in systolic blood pressure during inspiration. This means there is a decrease in cardiac output and a possible circulatory collapse

A

pericardial effusion 🡪 cardiac tamponade

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14
Q

Drainage procedures or surgery or emergency care to treat pericardial effusion

A

pericardiocentesis

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15
Q

A patient with pericardial effusion has a paradoxical pulse of systolic BP higher or more on expiration than on inspiration. How many mmHg?

A

10mmHg

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16
Q

the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside your lungs.

A

pleural effusion

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17
Q

buildup of fluid in the space around your heart.

A

pericardial effusion

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18
Q

A build-up of blood or other fluid in the pericardial sac puts pressure on the heart, which may prevent it from pumping effectively.

A

cardiac tamponade

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19
Q

Assessment found elevated WBC count, c-reactive protein (CRP), and cardiac isoenzymes

A

myocarditis

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20
Q

bulimic patients/eating disorder (bulimia) are taking what to facilitate purging that causes myocardial damage

A

ipecac syrup

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21
Q

this condition is caused by Viral, bacterial, fungal & parasitic infection,
Radiation therapy, and
Autoimmune disorders/immune system attacks own healthy tissues

A

Myocarditis

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22
Q

patients who induced in Chronic alcohol & cocaine abuse might develop what condition

A

myocarditis

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23
Q

Bulimic patients taking ipecac syrup to facilitate purging excessively may cause damage leading to

A

Myocarditis

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24
Q

due to inflammation, abnormal function includes ⭣ cardiac output, impaired blood circulation, and predispose client to Congestive Heart Failure (CHF). this condition is

A

Myocarditis

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25
Q

Myocarditis can occur because of ischemia/inadequate blood supply to an organ or part of the body. Myocarditis due to ischemia can cause

A

tachycardia, dysrhythmias

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26
Q

aside from Congestive Heart Failure (CHF), myocarditis can be associated to a chronic disease of the heart muscle known as

A

Cardiomyopathy

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27
Q

patient’s assessment findings show PAIN, Fever, Tachycardia, Dysrhythmias, Dyspnea, Malaise, Fatigue, Anorexia, Pale or cyanotic skin, signs of RSHF

A

Myocarditis

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28
Q

Echocardiography and CT scan used in assessment of pericarditis. in myocarditis, abnormal result is found using

A

chest radiography and echocardiography

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29
Q

Aside from antibiotic given as Treatment of underlying cause of Myocarditis. what other drugs are prescribed used to treat congestive heart failure (CHF) and heart rhythm problems (atrial arrhythmias)

A

cardiotonic drugs (digitalis)

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30
Q

aside from cardiopulmonary status (vs, dependent edema, etc), what complication is monitored to a patient with myocarditis

A

CHF, dysrhythmias

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31
Q

Sodium/Na+-restricted diet for patients with what condition

A

Myocarditis

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32
Q

A systemic inflammatory disease that usually develops after an URTI

A

Rheumatic Fever

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33
Q

bacteria causing Rheumatic fever

A

group A ß-hemolytic streptococci

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34
Q

patient assessment show major symptoms including Carditis, Polyarthritis, Subcutaneous nodules, and Erythema marginatum

A

Rheumatic Carditis/ Endocarditis

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35
Q

Endocarditis or Rheumatic Carditis is associated with Sydenham’s chorea also known as

A

St. Vitu’s dance

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36
Q

this major/classic symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by formation of Aschoff’s bodies, Murmur (valve damage), pericardial friction rub (pericarditis), and CHF

A

Carditis

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37
Q

this major/classic symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by Swelling of several joints (knees, ankle, hips, shoulders) that is warm, red and painful

A

Polyarthritis

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38
Q

this major/classic symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by Involuntary grimacing & inability to use skeletal muscles in a coordinated manner and Involvement of central nervous system

A

Chorea (Sydenham’s chorea, St. Vitu’s dance)

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39
Q

this major/classic symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by Sometimes marble-sized nodules appear around the joints

A

Subcutaneous nodules

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40
Q

this major/classic symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by Red, spotty rashes on the trunk that disappears rapidly leaving irregular circles on the skin

A

Erythema marginatum

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41
Q

this minor symptom of endocarditis is Characterized by pain in one or more joints without evidence of inflammation, tenderness, or limited movement

A

Arthralgia

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42
Q

a history of Rheumatic Fever or evidence of pre-existing rheumatic heart disease is a minor symptom of

A

Rheumatic Carditis/ Endocarditis

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43
Q

a fever of __ is a minor symptom of endocarditis

A

38.9 - 40°C or 101 - 104°F

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44
Q

a patient with Endocarditis will have ECG changes result of

A

prolonged P-R interval

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45
Q

Diagnostic tests shows 🡩 in erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and ASO titer (antibodies have been found. This means that you may have had a recent strep infection), and (+) C- reactive protein

A

Rheumatic Carditis/ Endocarditis

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46
Q

Rheumatic Carditis/ Endocarditis is Diagnosed clinically through the use of the

A

JONES criteria

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47
Q

JONES criteria must show presence of

A

2 major manifestation or
1 major + 2 minors with supporting evidence of a recent streptococcal infection

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48
Q

patient is experiencing 38.9 - 40°C or 101 - 104°F fever accompanied with chills, sudden on sent of sore throat, and diffuse redness of throat with exudates on oropharynx

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

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49
Q

a child patient complaint having Abdominal pain, has Enlarge & tender lymph nodes, and Acute sinusitis & acute otitis media

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

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50
Q

Infectious Disorders

A

Pericarditis, Myocarditis, Endocarditis, RHD

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51
Q

adequate treatment of streptococcal infection would prevent rheumatic carditis. this bacteria is known as

A

streptococcal pharyngitis

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52
Q

to control blood clot formation around the valves in endocarditis, what medication is given

A

Aspirin

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53
Q

for fever in endocarditis, what management is given

A

antipyretics, hydration

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54
Q

to prevent recurrence
in endocarditis, what medication is given

A

Antibiotic prophylaxis

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55
Q

An infection of the innermost layers of the heart. It may occur in people with congenital and valvular diseases.

A

Endocarditis

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56
Q

Inflammatory symptoms = induced by antibodies originally formed to destroy the group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal microorganisms.
INSTEAD
the antibodies mistakenly cross-react against the proteins in the connective tissue of the heart, joints, skin and nervous system

cross reaction causes = valvular damage OR a condition where there is an inflammation of the entire heart: the pericardium, myocardium, and endocardium.

A

Pancarditis

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57
Q

A child was assessed and findings found a major symptom of Polyarthritis (client complain of warm, red, and painful knees) and minor symptom of Arthralgia (pain in shoulders without evidence of inflammation)

A

Rheumatic Carditis/Endocarditis

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58
Q

inadequacy of the heart to pump blood throughout the body

A

Pump failure

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59
Q

accumulation of blood & fluid in organs & tissues due to impaired circulation

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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60
Q

This condition might be a result of a damage to muscular wall (M.I.) due to heart attack, Cardiomyopathy (Any disorder that affects the heart muscle), Coronary artery disease (CAD), or Valvular defects

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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61
Q

Types of Heart Failure

A

◼ Left-sided heart failure
◼ Right-sided heart failure

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62
Q

What condition indicates if diagnostic findings are:

Chest x-rays reveals cardiomegaly
(hypertrophy)

ECG reveals ventricular
hypertrophy and dysrhythmias

Echocardiography reveals cardiac
valvular changes and
chamber enlargement

A

Heart Failure

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63
Q

Multigraded angiographic (MUGA)
scans shows information about ejection
fraction. The condition could be?

A

Heart Failure

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64
Q

A patient with heart failure is given what diet

A

Low-sodium diet, fluid restriction

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65
Q

loss of apetite, nausea and vomiting, rapid, slow, irregular heart rate, disturbance in color vision are signs of

A

DIGITALIS toxicity

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66
Q

Digitalis, Diuretics, Vasodilators, ACE inhibitors, are medications given to patient with what condition

A

Heart Failure

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67
Q

Dopamine and Dobutamine exert positive inotropic effects in patients with

A

heart failure

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68
Q

Digoxin (Lanoxin) is an Inotropic Agent that decreases:
A) contractility
B) heart rate
C) conduction
D) it increases all

A

decreases:
A) contractility
B) heart rate
C) conduction

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69
Q

Which of the following statements about Digoxin is true?
A) It has negative sympa. Activity
B) It has positive parasympa. Activity
C) It has negative positive sympa. Activity
D) It is the generic name for Lanoxin.
E) It is a Digitalis

A

A) It has negative sympa. Activity

B) It has positive parasympa. Activity

D) It is the generic name for Lanoxin.

E) It is a Digitalis.

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70
Q

Which of the following medications is a Diuretic?
- Furosemide (Lasix)
- Digoxin (Lanoxin)
- Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
- Nitroglycerin
- Captopril

A
  • Furosemide (Lasix)
  • Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
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71
Q

assessment in patient with heart failure can be done by thinking __ are similar to what you hear when blowing back through a straw in a can of soda because Fluid backs up into here.

A

Lung sounds

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72
Q

Heart sounds of a patient in __ will resemble that of a Galloping Horse and feel like they are drowning

A

CHF

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73
Q

Congestion of Peripheral Tissues ->
Dependent edema and action
GI tract congestion -> Anorexia, GI distress, weight loss
Liver congestion -> signs related to impair liver function

are complications associated with what type of heart failure

A

RIGHT-SIDED HEART FAILURE

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74
Q

Decreased cardiac output -> activity intolerance and signs of decreased tissue perfusion
Pulmonary congestion
-> impaired gas exchange -> cyanosis and signs of hypoxia
-> Pulmonary Edema -> Cough with frothy sputum, Orthopnea, Paroxysmal Nocturnal Dyspnea

are complications associated with what type of heart failure

A

LEFT-SIDED HEART FAILURE

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75
Q

three main forms of arteriosclerosis

A

Atherosclerosis, Mönckeberg’s arteriosclerosis/medial calcific
sclerosis, Arteriolar sclerosis/arteriolosclerosis

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76
Q

the most common type of arteriosclerosis which is the leading contributor to
coronary artery and
cerebrovascular disease

A

Atherosclerosis

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77
Q

a specific type of
arteriosclerosis in which plaques (chiefly composed of
cholesterol) of fatty deposits form in the inner layer (tunica
intima) of the arteries w/c can restrict
blood flow

A

atherosclerosis

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78
Q

type of arteriosclerosis, in which there is an involvement of the middle layer
(tunica media) of the arteries, where there is
destruction of muscle and elastic fibers and formation of calcium deposits

A

Mönckeberg’s arteriosclerosis/medial calcific sclerosis

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79
Q

type of arteriosclerosis which is marked
by thickening of the walls of arterioles/hardening of
the arterial wall

A

Arteriolar sclerosis/arteriolosclerosis

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80
Q

The process of Atherosclerosis begins with Damage to the vascular system -> Fatty Streak development in the __ layer -> Plaque formation, leading to partial or complete occlusion of blood flow

A

intimal

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81
Q

partial or complete occlusion of blood flow because of plaque can lead to which complications

A
  • Calcifications
  • Ulceration
  • Thrombosis
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82
Q

what forms of arteriosclerosis the male gender is at risk of having

A

atherosclerosis

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83
Q

a client with “type A” personality, Postmenopausal Estrogen Deficiency, has
High Carbohydrate Intake is at risk of

A

atherosclerosis

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84
Q

a client with atherosclerosis might experience

Hyperlipidemia
hypolipidemia
Hypertension
hypotension
Lipoprotein Lp(a)

A

Lipoprotein Lp(a)
Hardened (trans)unsaturated fat intake
Hyperlipidemia
Hypertension

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85
Q

The nicotinic acid in tobacco triggers the release of __, which raise the heart
rate and blood pressure. Nicotinic acid can also cause the coronary arteries to constrict.
Smokers have an increased risk of CAD and sudden cardiac death. The increase in
_ may be a factor in sudden cardiac death.

A

catecholamines

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86
Q

Which of the following substances in tobacco triggers the release of catecholamines?
A. Nicotine
B. Nicotinic acid
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Tar

A

Nicotinic acid

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87
Q

What effect does the increased blood carbon monoxide level, due to cigarette smoking, have on hemoglobin?
A. Decreases the amount of oxygen that hemoglobin can carry.
B. Increases the amount of oxygen that hemoglobin can carry.
C. Has no effect on the amount of oxygen that hemoglobin can carry.
D. Enhances the ability of the heart to pump blood.

A

Decreases the amount of oxygen that hemoglobin can carry, may decrease the heart’s ability to
pump.

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88
Q
  • Use of __ adversely affects the vascular endothelium, resulting in increased platelet adhesion and leading to a higher probability of thrombus formation.
A

tobacco

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89
Q

High blood pressure whether it is genetic or caused by bad eating
habits can cause heart disease. A high intake of _ leads to
hypertension which allows plaque to stick to the insides of arteries.

A

sodium

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90
Q

Diabetes can cause __ because it causes increased amount of blood sugar which leads to premature cell death and slowed blood flow.

A

atherosclerosis

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91
Q

Alcohol consumption: You have probably heard that an occasional
glass of red wine is “good for the heart”. This is true if it is done in moderation and small amounts. However, too much of wine, or any
other alcoholic beverage can cause LDL levels to increase by as
much as _%. This also leads to plaque buildup in arteries.

A

40%

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92
Q

What effects do estrogen deficiency have on metabolic syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. Hypertriglyceridemia, reduced HDL, and increased small dense LDL particles, insulin resistance, hypertension, increased central fat, reduction in lean body mass, and reduction in lean body mass.
B. Hypertriglyceridemia, increased HDL, and increased large LDL particles, insulin resistance, hypertension, increased central fat, and reduction in lean body mass.
C. Normal triglyceride levels, increased HDL, normal or slightly increased LDL levels, increased insulin sensitivity, normal blood pressure, increased peripheral fat, and increased lean body mass.

A

A. Hypertriglyceridemia (high blood triglyceride levels), reduced HDL (high-density lipoprotein, or ‘good’ cholesterol), and increased small dense LDL (low-density lipoprotein, or ‘bad’ cholesterol) particles, insulin resistance, hypertension (high blood pressure), increased central fat (fat deposited around the abdomen) and reduction in lean body mass (loss of muscle tissue) are all effects of estrogen deficiency in postmenopausal women.

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93
Q

many features of the
metabolic syndrome exhibit Hypertension, Dyslipidemia, Insulin resistance, Increased central fat and reduction in lean body mass, and Increased hypercoagulability and pro-inflammatory state. shown in which kind of patients

A

postmenopausal women with estrogen deficiency

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94
Q

hypertriglyceridemia (too many triglycerides/fat in your blood), reduced HDL, and
increased small dense LDL particles are under what condition where one has unhealthy levels of one or more kinds of lipid (fat) in blood.

A

Dyslipidemia

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95
Q

What conditions are used to assess the risk of developing atherosclerosis?
A. Hypertension, high cholesterol and triglycerides, abdominal obesity, elevated fasting blood sugar (FBS), and elevated homocysteine.
B. Low blood pressure, low cholesterol and triglycerides, peripheral obesity (fat deposited around the hips, buttocks, and thighs), low fasting blood sugar, and low homocysteine.
C. Optimal blood pressure, normal cholesterol and triglycerides, excess peripheral fat, optimal fasting blood sugar, and optimal homocysteine.

A

A. Hypertension (high blood pressure), high cholesterol and triglycerides, abdominal obesity, elevated fasting blood sugar, and elevated homocysteine are all used as risk factors to assess the likelihood of developing atherosclerosis.

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96
Q

Elevated homocysteine levels can have which of the following effects on the endothelium?

a. increase the production of nitric oxide
b. block the production of nitric oxide
c. have no effect on the production of nitric oxide
d. promote the breakdown of nitric oxide

A

blocks the production of nitric oxide on the endothelium making cell wall less elastic &
permitting plaque to build up

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97
Q

Based on the homocysteine test result, what is the borderline risk?

a. levels between 9-12 mol/L
b. levels between 12 and 15 mol/L
c. levels greater than 15 mol/L

A

levels between 12 and 15 mol/L

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98
Q

to lower homocysteine level, a diet of what is recommended

A

B-complex vitamin rich diet (folic acid)

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99
Q

Cholesterol screening, Smoking cessation, and HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors “Statins” are medical interventions for?

A

atherosclerosis

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100
Q

What is the role of cholesterol in the formation of arterial plaques?

  • Cholesterol is converted into chylomicrons by the liver and then reprocessed by the gastrointestinal tract as lipoproteins.
  • Cholesterol is converted into chylomicrons by the gastrointestinal tract and then reprocessed by the liver as lipoproteins.
A

Cholesterol is converted into chylomicrons by the gastrointestinal tract and then reprocessed by the liver as lipoproteins.

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101
Q

supplies blood and oxygen to heart muscle

A

coronary artery

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102
Q

bacteria associated with atherosclerosis

A

chlamydia pneumoniae

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103
Q

In postmenopausal women, many features of the
metabolic syndrome emerge with estrogen deficiency.
It exhibit a condition that refers to unhealthy levels of one or more kinds of lipid (fat) in your blood

A

Dyslipidemia

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104
Q

Elevated __ blocks the production of nitric
oxide on the endothelium making cell wall less elastic &
permitting plaque to build up

A

homocysteine

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105
Q

high density lipoproteins are what kind of cholesterol

A

good cholesterol

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106
Q

low density lipoproteins are what kind of cholesterol

A

bad cholesterol

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107
Q

Cholesterol is processed by
the gastrointestinal tract into
lipoprotein globules called

A

chylomicrons

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108
Q

Cholesterol is processed by
the gastrointestinal tract into
lipoprotein globules called
chylomicrons. These are
reprocessed by the liver as

A

lipoproteins

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109
Q

patient’s assessment found Elevated cholesterol &
triglycerides, Elevated FBS, and Elevated homocysteine. patient has

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS

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110
Q

patient assessment findings shows hypertension, abdominal obesity and homocysteine test results are interpreted as greater than 15 mol/L. patient has signs of

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS

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111
Q

aside from alcohol, another unhealthy habit is a major risk factor for atherosclerosis

A

cigarette smoking

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112
Q

the excess of lipids or fats in your blood also known as high cholesterol

A

hyperlipidemia

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113
Q

Hardened (trans)unsaturated fat intake, obesity, diabetes, and high carbohydrate intake are risk factors for which condition

A

atherosclerosis

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114
Q

Lipoprotein(a), or Lp(a), is an established and genetically determined risk factor for

A

atherosclerosis

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115
Q

Use of tobacco adversely affects the vascular endothelium, resulting in increased platelet adhesion and leading to a higher probability of __. A person at increased risk for heart disease is encouraged to stop tobacco use through any means possible: educational programs, counseling, consistent motivation and
reinforcement messages, support groups, and medications.

A

thrombus formation

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116
Q

ANGINA PECTORIS of cardiac origin

A

“Chest pain”

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117
Q

Sudden coronary obstruction caused
by thrombus formation over a
ruptured or ulcerated plaque

A

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION

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118
Q

most common clinical
manifestation of myocardial
ischemia

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

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119
Q

the cause is insufficient
coronary blood flow,
resulting in a decreased
oxygen supply when there is
increased myocardial
demand for oxygen in
response to physical exertion
or emotional stress. ‘the need for oxygen
exceeds the supply’.

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

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120
Q

occurs as a result of sustained
ischemia, causing irreversible cellular
damage.

A

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION

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121
Q

Types of Angina

A

Stable, Unstable, Variant (Prinzmetal’s)

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122
Q

type of angina which 75% coronary occlusion accompanies
exertion, Elevated HR or BP, and pt Eating a large meal

A

Stable Angina

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123
Q

type of angina with Arterial spasm in normal
or diseased coronary artery

A

Variant (Prinzmetal’s)

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124
Q

Unstable Angina is the Progressive worsening of stable angina with __% coronary occlusion

A

> 90%

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125
Q

type of angina where Chest pain of increased
frequency, severity & duration poorly relieved
by rest or oral nitrates

A

Unstable Angina

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126
Q

Stable Angina has Similar pain severity, frequency & duration with each episode. Chest pain may radiate for how long

A

15mins or less

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127
Q

Variant Angina chest pain occurs
at rest usually between what time

A

12am & 8am

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128
Q

chest pain that occurs at rest (usually bet.
12am & 8am), sporadic over _ mos &
diminishes over time (ECG: ST – elevation)

A

3-6

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129
Q

supply ischemia

A

unstable angina and printzmetal’s variant angina

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130
Q

demand ischemia

A

chronic stable angina

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131
Q

PRIMARY FACTOR of Myocardial Infarction

A

Atherosclerosis

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132
Q

Modifiable risk factors of ?

  • Elevated serum cholesterol levels
  • CIGARETTE SMOKING!!!
  • Hypertension
  • Hypotension
  • Impaired glucose tolerance
  • Obesity
  • Physical inactivity
  • Stress
A

Myocardial Infarction

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133
Q

an area of the myocardium is permanently
destroyed, typically because plaque rupture and
subsequent thrombus formation result in complete
occlusion of the artery.

A

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION

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134
Q

Condition where Pain varies from a feeling of indigestion to a choking or heavy sensation in the upper
chest ranging from discomfort to agonizing
pain.

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

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135
Q

In __, Discomfort is poorly localized and may radiate to the aspect of the left upper arms

A

Angina Pectoris

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136
Q

The pain in Angina Pectoris is usually retrosternal, deep in the chest behind the

A

upper or middle third of the sternum

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137
Q

A feeling of weakness or numbness in the
arms, wrists, and hands, as well as shortness
of breath, pallor, diaphoresis, dizziness or
lightheadedness, and nausea and vomiting,
may accompany the pain. Anxiety may also occur.

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

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138
Q

An important characteristic of anginal pain is that it subsides when the precipitating cause
is removed or with __.

A

nitroglycerin

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139
Q

Positioning for Myocardial Infarction

A

semi Fowler’s

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140
Q

Oxygen must be given to patient with Myocardial Infarction by _/min through nasal cannula

A

2-4L/min

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141
Q

Diagnosis of this condition shows Elevated myoglobin Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) , aspartate aminotransferase (AST), WBC, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) .

A

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION

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142
Q

In myocardial infarction, Troponin I increases __ the onset of pain.

A

7-14 hrs after

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143
Q

In myocardial infarction, Troponin T
increases within __ the onset of pain.

A

3-6 hrs after

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144
Q

Elevated serum creatine kinase isoenzyme (CK-MB) is primarily found in cardiac muscle in Myocardial Infarction. Which increase how many hours after the onset of chest pain

A

3-6 hrs

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145
Q

What changes occur in the ECG readings of a patient experiencing a myocardial infarction, in what order do these changes occur?

a) Changes occur first in the ST
segment then the T wave and finally the
Q wave. As the myocardium heals the ST
and T waves return to normal but the Q
wave changes persist.

b) Changes occur first in the T
segment then the ST wave and finally the
Q wave. As the myocardium heals the ST
and T waves return to normal but the Q
wave changes persist.

A

a) Changes occur first in the ST
segment then the T wave and finally the
Q wave. As the myocardium heals the ST
and T waves return to normal but the Q
wave changes persist.

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146
Q

involves the entire thickness of the myocardium

A

Transmural MI

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147
Q

damage has not penetrated through the entire thickness

A

Subendocardial MI

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148
Q

the plaque rupture and thrombus formation causes partial occlusion to the vessel that results in injury and infarct to the subendocardial myocardium

A

NSTEMI

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149
Q

characterized by complete occlusion of the blood vessel lumen. resulting in transmural injury and infarct to the myocardium, which is reflected by ECG changes and a rise in troponins

A

STEMI

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150
Q

thrombus angina also known as supply ischemia

A

Unstable angina

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151
Q

Fixed stenosis also known as demand ischemia

A

stable angina

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152
Q

The objectives of the medical management of angina

a) to increase the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply.
b) to decrease the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply.

A

b) to decrease the oxygen
demand of the myocardium and to increase the oxygen supply.

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153
Q

what is the result after Sudden coronary obstruction caused by thrombus formation over a ruptured or ulcerated plaque

A

acute coronary syndrome

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154
Q

The pain in __ is usually retrosternal, deep in the chest behind the upper or middle third of the sternum

A

Angina Pectoris

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155
Q

An important characteristic of __ is that it subsides when the precipitating cause
is removed or with nitroglycerin

A

anginal pain

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156
Q

primarily found in cardiac muscle in Myocardial Infarction

A

Elevated serum creatine kinase isoenzyme (CK-MB)

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157
Q

Patient is given Nitrates, Beta Blockers, Calcium Channel Blockers, Thrombolytics/ Fibrinolytics. The condition patient has

A

Myocardial Infarction

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158
Q

For pain management of Myocardial Infarction, patient is given MONA which means

A

Morphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin

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159
Q

For pain management of Myocardial Infarction, patient is given how many mg of Morphine

A

2- to 10-mg IV q

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160
Q

For pain management of Myocardial Infarction, patient is given 2- to 10-mg IV Morphine for how many minutes

A

q 5-15 minutes

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161
Q

Ischemia causes inversion of the __ because of altered repolarization

A

T wave

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162
Q

cardiac muscle injury causes elevation of the

A

ST segment

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163
Q

__ waves develop because of the absence of depolarization current from the necrotic issues and opposing current from other parts of the heart

A

Q waves

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164
Q

chest pain or discomfort not relieved by rest or nitroglycerin palpitations is a sign of

A

myocardial infarction

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165
Q

heart sounds include S3, S4 and new onset of a murmur is a sign of

A

myocardial infarction

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166
Q

fear with feeling of impending doom or denial that anything is wrong and increased jugular venous distention may be seen if the __ has caused heart failure

A

myocardial infarction

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167
Q

a cardiovascular sign where in addition to st-segment and t-wave changes, ECG may show tachycardia, bradycardia, or other dysrhythmias

A

myocardial infarction

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168
Q

shortness of breath, dyspnea, tachypnea, pulmonary edema, and crackles if myocardial infarction has caused what condition

A

pulmonary congestion

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169
Q

decreased urinary output and cool, clammy, diaphoretic, and pale appearance due to pathetic stimulation in myocardial infraction may indicate

A

cardiogenic shock

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170
Q

aside to cardiogenic shock - anxiety, restlessness, and lightheadness may indicate

a) increased sympathetic stimulation or a decrease in contractility and cerebral oxygenation
b) decrease sympathetic stimulation or a increase in contractility and cerebral oxygenation

A

a) increased sympathetic stimulation or a decrease in contractility and cerebral oxygenation

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171
Q

most patients with angina pectoris must self administer what on an as-needed basis

A

nitroglycerin

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172
Q

in taking sublingual nitroglycerin instruct the patient to

i. make sure the mouth is dry
i.i make sure the mouth is moist
ii. the tongue is still
iii. saliva is not swallowed until the nitroglycerin tablet dissolves
iv. if pain is severe, patient can crush the tablet between the teeth
iv.o if pain is severe, patient can not crush the tablet between the teeth
v. carried in original container (capped dark glass bottle)
vi. tablets should never be moved and stored in metal/plastic pillboxes

A

i.i make sure the mouth is moist
ii. the tongue is still
iii. saliva is not swallowed until the nitroglycerin tablet dissolves
iv. if pain is severe, patient can crush the tablet between the teeth
v. carried in original container (capped dark glass bottle)
vi. tablets should never be moved and stored in metal/plastic pillboxes

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173
Q

explain to patient that nitroglycerin is volatile and is inactivated by heat moisture air light & time. instruct the pt to renew the nitroglycerin supply every

A

6 months

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174
Q

in taking sublingual nurse must

i. inform the pt that medication should be taken in anticipation of any activity that may produce pain because nitroglycerin increases tolerance for exercise & stress when taken prophylactically
ii. advise pt if pain persists after taking 3 sublingual tablets at 5 minutes, emergency medical service should be called
iii. discuss possible side effects: flushing, throbbing headache, tachycardia
iii. advise pt to sit down to avoid hypertension & syncope
iv. advise pt to sit down to avoid hypotension & syncope

A

i. inform the pt that medication should be taken in anticipation of any activity that may produce pain because nitroglycerin increases tolerance for exercise & stress when taken prophylactically
ii. advise pt if pain persists after taking 3 sublingual tablets at 5 minutes, emergency medical service should be called
iii. discuss possible side effects: flushing, throbbing headache, hypotension, tachycardia
iv. advise pt to sit down to avoid hypotension & syncope

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175
Q

cardiogenic shock, pulmonary edema, mitral regurgitation, left ventricular failure, right ventricular failure, pulmonary emboli, papillary muscle rupture, systemic emboli, dysrhythmias, cardiac rupture, pericarditis, septal rupture, and mural thrombi are complications of

A

myocardial infarction

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176
Q

COPD A group of chronic
(obstructive) lung diseases
includes:

A

Emphysema
Chronic Bronchitis

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177
Q

Chronic Airflow Limitations
(CAL)

A

COPD, Bronchial Asthma, Bronchiectasis

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178
Q

Most important risk
factor for COPD

A

SMOKING!!!

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179
Q

Tobacco smoke triggers the
release of EXCESSIVE amounts
of __ that
breaks down elastin which is a major component of alveoli
o Impairs & inhibits the action of cilia

A

elastase protease

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180
Q

ACTIVE smokers – 100%
PASSIVE smokers –

A

80%

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181
Q

Clinical Manifestations

-General appearance
-Cyanosis, Clubbing of fingers
-Presence of “Barrel chest”
-Manifestations of RSHF/right sided heart failure
(dependent edema)

A

COPD

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182
Q

RR of COPD patient

A

40-50 breaths/min

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183
Q

Laboratory assessment
o Abnormal ABG results in COPD patient

A

hypoxemia, hypercarbia

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184
Q

COPD

Airway maintenance:
o Keep the client’s - in
alignment

A

head, neck and chest

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185
Q

assisst clients with __ to liquefy secretions and clear the airway

A

COPD

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186
Q

COPD

Airway maintenance:
Controlled coughing
o advise client to cough on

A

arising on the morning, before
mealtimes, before bedtimes

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187
Q

Proper instruction for
Controlled coughing.

the client sits in a chair or on the side of a bed with feet placed firmly on the floor. to cough effectively, Instruct the client to

turn the shoulders __ and to bend the head slightly downward hugging a pillow against the stomach.

A

inward

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188
Q

to do Controlled coughing for patients with COPD

Insturct the patient that After the _ deep breath/pursed-lip breathing, the client will bend forward slowly

A

3rd to 5th

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189
Q

O2
Therapy COPD

o Assess COPD client at least q2°
o Assess COPD client at least q4°
o usually, 2-4 L/min or even 1-2 L/min via nasal
cannula
o usually, 3-4 L/min or even 1-2 L/min via nasal
cannula
o up to 30% via venturi mask
o up to 40% via venturi mask

A

o Assess COPD client at least q2°
o usually, 2-4 L/min or even 1-2 L/min via nasal
cannula
o up to 40% via venturi mask

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190
Q

COPD client’s primary
drive for breathing

A

Low-flow O2/low arterial
oxygen level

191
Q

mucolytics such as acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) and
Guaifenesin are drug therapy for

A

COPD

192
Q

o one of the most common complications of COPD

A

PNEUMONIA

193
Q

Teach clients to avoid large crowds and stress the
importance of receiving a pneumonia vaccination and a
yearly influenza vaccine

A

“flu shot”

194
Q

o Hypoxemia & acidosis
o Respiratory Infections
o Cardiac Dysrhythmias
o Cor Pulmonale

are complications of

A

COPD

195
Q

due to impaired exchange
of gases

A

Hypoxemia & acidosis

196
Q

respiratory infection is a complication of COPD due to ⭡ mucus & poor
oxygenation. most common bacteria are S. pneumoniae, H.
influenzae, and

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

197
Q

due to _, COPD manifestations worsens
due to increasing inflammation & mucus
production

A

Respiratory Infections

198
Q

results from ⭡O2 supply to
the ⭡, other cardiac disease, drug effects, or
acidosis

A

Cardiac Dysrhythmias

199
Q

RSHF caused by pulmonary disease

A

Cor Pulmonale

200
Q

A chronic disease characterized by loss of lung
elasticity & hyperinflation of the lung

A

Emphysema

201
Q

most common COPD

A

Emphysema

202
Q

Emphysema Major cause:

A

Smoking

203
Q

risks of these conditions involved smoking, alpha antitrypsin deficiency (AAT), and air pollution

A

Emphysema

204
Q

Alpha1 – Antitrypsin Deficiency (AAT) is made by the _ and is normally present in the
lungs

A

liver

205
Q

regulates proteases from working on lung
structures

A

Alpha1 – Antitrypsin Deficiency (AAT)

206
Q

If _ is deficient, COPD develops even if the person is
not exposed to cigarette smoke or other irritants

A

Alpha1 – Antitrypsin Deficiency (AAT)

207
Q

emphysema classification

destruction of
the entire
alveolus
uniformly; diffuse
& more severe in
the lower lung
areas

A

Panlobar or
panacinar

208
Q

emphysema classification

openings occur in the
bronchioles and allow
spaces to develop as
tissue walls breakdown;
upper lung sections

A

Centrilobular or centriacinar

209
Q

emphysema classification

only the alveolar ducts
and alveolar sacs are
affected; upper half of the
lung

A

Paraseptal or distal acinar

210
Q

1st symptom Emphysema
shortness of breath with minimal activity

A

Exertional dyspnea

211
Q

o Chronic productive cough with mucopurulent sputum
o Decreased breath sounds, wheezing, crackles
o “Barrel shaped chest”
o Use of accessory muscle of respiration
o Toxic CO2

levels⭡ Lethargy, stupor, coma (carbon dioxide

narcosis)

A

Emphysema

212
Q

Meds: Bronchodilators, mucolytics, antibiotics,
corticosteroids (limited basis to assist with
broncho dilation & removal of secretions)

A

Emphysema

213
Q

Emphysema Administer O2
via nasal cannula (_ L/min)

A

2-3

214
Q

Prolonged inflammation of the bronchi accompanied by a
chronic cough & excessive production of mucus for at least 3
months each year for 2 consecutive years

A

Chronic Bronchitis

215
Q

Etiology:
o CIGARETTE SMOKING
o Long history of bronchial asthma, RTI, air pollution

A

Chronic Bronchitis

216
Q

thick white mucus (earliest
symptom) ⭡ yellow, purulent, copious, blood streaked sputum

A

Chronic productive cough

217
Q

Bronchospasm, Acute respiratory infections, cyanosis, DOE
(dyspnea on exertion), RSHF (cor pulmonale)

A

Chronic Bronchitis

218
Q

Medical Management
SMOKING CESSATION
Bronchodilators, ⭡fluid intake, Well-balanced diet, Postural
drainage, Steroid therapy, Antibiotic therapy

A

Chronic Bronchitis

219
Q

Chronic Bronchitis
Focus: educating clients in managing their disease
Smoking cessation, occupational counseling, monitoring air quality
& pollution levels, avoiding cold air & wind exposure (triggers

A

bronchospasm)

220
Q

Typically begins as an URTI (viruses, bacteria)

H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, M. pneumoniae

o Chemical irritants (noxious fumes, gases, air contaminants)

A

Acute Bronchitis

221
Q

Assessment Findings:
o Fever, chills, malaise, headache, dry irritating nonproductive
cough (initial) ⭡ mucopurulent sputum

A

Acute Bronchitis

222
Q

Medical Management:
o Usually self-limiting
o Bedrest, antipyretics, expectorants,
antitussives, ⭡fluids, humidifiers, antibiotics

A

Acute Bronchitis

223
Q

Intermittent & reversible airflow obstruction
affecting the lower airway.

A

Bronchial Asthma

224
Q

Obstruction is due to:
Inflammation
Airway hyper-responsiveness (bronchospasm)
Constriction of bronchial smooth muscle due to
stimulation of the nerve fibers

A

Bronchial Asthma

225
Q

Etiology:
allergens, cold air, dry air, airborne particles, microorganism, aspirin ⭡ inflammation
exercise, upper respiratory illness (viruses), unknown reasons ⭡ bronchospasm

A

Bronchial Asthma

226
Q

Physical assessment findings:
Audible wheezing & ⭡RR (acute episode)
Wheezing is louder during exhalation
Dyspnea, cough, use of accessory muscle of
respiration, barrel chest (chronic severe asthma)
Cyanosis, poor O2 saturation (pulse oximetry)
Change of LOC & tachycardia due to
hypoxemia

A

Bronchial Asthma

227
Q

most accurate test for asthma

A

PuLmOnArY fUnCtiOn teSts

228
Q

volume of air exhaled from full inhalation to full exhalation

A

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

229
Q

volume of air blown out as hard and fast as possible
during the first second of the most forceful exhalation after the greatest full inhalation

A

Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV1

230
Q

fastest airflow rate reached at any time during
exhalation

A

Peak Expiratory Rate Flow (PERF)

231
Q

Methacholine is inhaled (induces bronchospasm) & then FVC, FEV1 & PERF is measured
then brochodilators will be given ⭡ an ⭡ 12% of values:

A

asthma

232
Q

Normal (effortless breathing),
volume of air inspired and expired with each
breath during normal breathing

A

Tidal Volume

233
Q

Tidal Volume

A

500 mL

234
Q

how much can be exhaled

A

Vital Capacity

235
Q

Vital Capacity

A

(about 4,800)

236
Q

Total Lung Capacity

A

up to 6,000

237
Q

how much remains in the
lungs after exhalation (about 1, 200)

A

Residual volume

238
Q

Bronchial Asthma

Client Education Guide
Use bronchodilator __ exercise
to prevent or reduce exercise-induced asthma

A

30 minutes before

239
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin), Bitolterol, Pirbuterol,
Salmeterol, Formoterol

A

β2 agonist Bronchodilators:

240
Q

Theophylline, Aminophylline, Oxtriphylline]

A

Methylxanthines

241
Q

Cholinergic antagonist

A

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

242
Q

Bronchial Asthma

Anti-inflammatory Agents:

A

Corticosteroids
Mast cell stabilizer
Monoclonal antibodies

243
Q

helps prevent atopic asthma
attacks (prevent mast cell membranes from opening when
an allergen binds to IgE) but are not useful during an acute
episode

A

Cromolyn sodium (Intal)

244
Q

binds to IgE
receptor sites on mast cells & basophils preventing the
release of chemical mediators for inflammation

A

Omalizumab (Xolair)

245
Q

Accumulation of air
in the pleural space
it can lead to partial or complete collapse of the
lung

A

Pneumothorax

246
Q

Most common type of closed
pneumothorax

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

247
Q

Air accumulates within the
pleural space without an
obvious cause (no antecedent
trauma to thorax)

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

248
Q

Rupture of a small bleb on the visceral
pleura most frequently produces this type
of pneumothorax

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

249
Q

usually caused by stabbing or gunshot wound

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

250
Q

● causes ⭣ intra- thoracic pressure & shifting of the mediastinal contents to the unaffected side (mediastinal shift)

A

tension pneumothorax

251
Q

pressure in the pleural space is POSITIVE throughout the
respiratory cycle

A

Tension pneumothorax

252
Q

occurs in mechanical ventilation or resuscitation

A

Tension pneumothorax

253
Q

air enters the pleural space with each inspiration but
cannot escape

A

Tension pneumothorax

254
Q

● causes ⭣ intra-
thoracic pressure
& shifting of the
mediastinal
contents to the
unaffected side
(mediastinal shift)

A

Tension pneumothorax

255
Q

Accumulation of BLOOD
in the pleural space

A

Hemothorax

256
Q

frequently found w/ an
open pneumothorax
resulting in a
hemopneumothorax

A

Hemothorax

257
Q

Assessment findings:
* PAIN, Dyspnea
* Diminished/absent breath
sounds on affected side
* ⭣respiratory excursion on
affected side
* Hyper resonance on
percussion

A

Pneumothorax/ Hemothorax

258
Q
  • Tracheal shift to the
    opposite side (tension
    pneumothorax
    accompanied by
    mediastinal shift)
  • Weak, rapid pulse; anxiety;
    diaphoresis
A

Pneumothorax/ Hemothorax

259
Q

● Microcytic, Hypochromic anemia
caused by:
● Inadequate intake of iron
● Decreased absorption of iron in GIT
● Excessive loss of iron (excessive bleeding or blood
loss)

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

260
Q

● Assessment Findings:
● Reduced energy, Cold sensitivity, Fatigue, DOE
● ⭣HR even at rest
● decreased CBC, Hgb, Hct, serum Fe
● Blood smear reveals microcytic & hypochromic RBCs

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

261
Q

● Oral iron supplements for mild iron losses (FeSO4)

● prophylactic use:

A

300-325mg

262
Q

● Oral iron supplements for mild iron losses (FeSO4)

therapeutic use __mg daily in divided dose

A

600-1200mg

263
Q

● Use the - technique to
prevent leakage into tissues

A

Z-track injection

264
Q

foods high in iron

● Liver especially -
● Red meat, Organ meats, Kidney beans
● Whole-wheat breads and cereals
● Leafy green vegetables
● Carrots, Egg yolk, Raisins

A

pork & lamb

265
Q

Encourage ingestion of - and increase fluid
intake to prevent constipation if oral iron preparations
are being taken

A

roughage

266
Q

best source of iron

A

red meat

267
Q

● Caused by a deficiency of intrinsic factor (substance
normally secreted by the gastric mucosa)
● Intrinsic Factor is necessary for absorption of
Vitamin B12
● Vitamin B12 is needed for the maturation of
erythrocytes

A

Pernicious Anemia

268
Q

without Vitamin -
● precursor cells undergo improper DNA synthesis
(few are released from the bone marrow)
● increased in size: MEGALOBLASTIC or
MACROCYTIC cells
● Paresthesia: Vitamin - is needed for normal
nerve function

A

B12

269
Q

● Usually seen in elderly (production of intrinsic
factor decreases with age & gastric mucosal
atrophy) & in clients w/ history of surgical
removal of stomach, bowel resection (ileum)
● Stomatitis, glossitis (a smooth, beefy-red
tongue)
● Pallor, fatigue, Dyspnea on exertion

A

Pernicious Anemia

270
Q

severe case of this anemia can cause jaundice, irritability, confusion

Numbness & tingling in the arms & legs &
difficulty with gait (walking) or balance (neurologic
involvement)

A

Pernicious Anemia

271
Q

● measures absorption of radioactive Vitamin B 12 before and after parenteral administration of intrinsic factor
● Definitive test for pernicious anemia
● used to detect lack of intrinsic factor

A

Schilling test

272
Q

The Schilling test is performed by administering
__Co-labeled __ and collecting urine for 24 h and is dependent upon normal renal and bladder function. As a consequence, __ absorption may be
abnormal in Pernicious anemia

A

58, cobalamin

273
Q

The - is performed to evaluate vitamin B12 absorption.

A

Schilling test

274
Q
  • helps in the formation of red blood cells, the maintenance of the
    central nervous system, and is important for metabolism.
A

B12

275
Q

● Medical Management:
● Administration of Vitamin B12 (IM) weekly & monthly
for maintenance
● Nursing Management:
● Provide a Vitamin B12-rich diet
● Liver, Organ meats, Dried beans, Nuts, Green leafy
vegetables, Citrus fruit, Brewer’s yeast

A

Pernicious Anemia

276
Q

Avoid highly seasoned, coarse, or very hot foods if
client has

A

stomatitis & glossitis

277
Q

Dilated tortuous veins

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

278
Q

commonly affected in Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

A

saphenous leg
veins

279
Q

commonly affected:
● saphenous leg
veins (lack support
from surrounding
muscles)
● also occurs in
● Rectum
Hemorrhoids
● Esophagus
Esophageal varices

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

280
Q

constricts
or interferes with
venous return (venous
congestion or pooling)
● prolonged standing,
obesity, pregnancy,
abdominal tumor

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

281
Q

etiology: Thrombophlebitis (a condition that causes a blood clot to form and block one or more veins, often in the legs)

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

282
Q

● ASSESSMENT FINDINGS:
● Legs feel heavy & tired particularly after
prolonged standing (patient will say that
activity or elevation of the legs relieves the
discomfort)
● Leg veins look distended & tortuous seen
under the skin as dark blue or purple,
snakelike elevations
● Feet, ankles, legs may appear swollen

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

283
Q

● client lie flat & elevates the affected leg to empty veins, tourniquet is then applied to
the upper thigh, & the client is ask to stand

A

Brodie-Trendelenburg test

284
Q

● if blood flows from upper part of the leg into the superficial veins while doing Brodie-Trendelenburg test it indicates

A

INCOMPETENT valves

285
Q

DIAGNOSTIC FINDINGS:
● Brodie-Trendelenburg test
● Ultrasonography
● Venography

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

286
Q

if blood flows from upper part of the leg
into the superficial veins

A

INCOMPETENT valves

287
Q

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT:
● exercise (walking, swimming)
● losing weight
● wearing elastic support stockings
● avoidance of prolonged sitting &
standing

A

MILD varicose veins

288
Q

MEDICAL MANAGEMENT:
● Surgery
-Vein ligation
-Vein stripping

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

289
Q

type of surgery for severe or multiple varicose veins where veins are tied off above & below the area of incompetent valves, but the dysfunctional
vein remains

A

Vein ligation

290
Q

type of surgery for varicose veins where ligated veins are severed & removed

A

Vein stripping

291
Q

assess for skin, distal circulation ( flow of blood occurring in the areas furthest away from the central body), peripheral
edema (swelling in your lower legs or hands)

NURSING MANAGEMENT for __

A

Varicose Veins (Varicosities)

292
Q

post operative period nursing management for patient with varicosities

nurse elevates the foot of the bed to aid venous circulation to the heart & reminds the client to alternately __ the lower leg muscles

A

contract & relax

293
Q

● Deficiency of circulating RBCs usually accompanied by leukopenia & thrombocytopenia

A

Aplastic Anemia

294
Q

There is PANCYTOPENIA (lower-than-normal number of red and white blood cells and platelets in the blood) in

A

aplastic anemia

295
Q

Failure of the bone marrow to produce cells

A

(pluripotent stem cell injury)

296
Q

(pluripotent stem cell injury)
● Long-term exposure to toxic agents (drugs,
chemical)
● ionizing radiation
● viral infection
● autoimmune
● 50% of cases UNKNOWN???

A

Aplastic Anemia

297
Q

Weakness & fatigue (typical for any type of

A

anemia

298
Q

● Frequent opportunistic infections
● Coagulation abnormalities (unusual bleeding, petechiae &
ecchymoses “bruises”)
● Splenomegaly

A

Aplastic Anemia

299
Q

● accumulation of client’s blood cells destroyed by lymphocytes that failed to recognize them as normal cells

A

Splenomegaly

300
Q

● BM aspiration/ biopsy =definitive test ;
Result: Low primitive cells
Most Common Site: Iliac Crest

A

Aplastic Anemia

301
Q

● New classification(2003) “Normal adult BP”:

A

● <120mmHg systolic
● <80mmHg diastolic

302
Q

Prehypertension:

A

● 120-139/80-89mmHg

303
Q

Stage 1 hypertension:

A

140-159/90-99mmHg

304
Q

Stage 2 hypertension:

A

> 160/>100mmHg

305
Q

● most clients have no symptoms; however, they may experience headaches, dizziness, fainting

A

Hypertension

306
Q

decrease in BP of 20mmHg systolic &/or 10mmHg diastolic when the client
changes position from lying to sitting in 2 minutes interval

A

Orthostatic hypotension

307
Q

Hypertension
Interventions:
Lifestyle modifications
● Sodium restriction – ↓ sodium intake from the
average of 150mEq/L to

A

<100mEq/L

308
Q

depress Na+ reabsorption in
the ascending loop of henle & promote K+ excretion (ex;
Lasix)

A

Loop (high-ceiling) diuretics

309
Q

prevent Na+ & water
reabsorption in the distal tubules while promoting K+
excretion

A

● Thiazide (low-ceiling) diuretics

310
Q

inhibits reabsorption of Na+ in DCT
in exchange for K+, thereby retaining K+ [Spironolactone
(aldactone)]

A

K+-sparing diuretics

311
Q

Lower Bp by interfering with transmembrane flux of Ca++
ion resulting to vasodilation & subsequent ↓ in BP
(Verapamil, Amlodipine, Diltiazem)

A

Calcium channel blocking agents

312
Q

inhibits conversion of angiotensin I
to II, one of the most powerful vasoconstrictors in
the body (Captopril, Enalapril, Lisinopril)

A

ACE inhibitors

313
Q

(Candesartan,
Losartan, Telmisartan)

A

Angiotensin II receptor blockers

314
Q

DOC for hypertensive clients with
ischemic heart disease because the heart is the most
common target of end-organ damage w/
hypertension

A

Beta blockers

315
Q

Hypertension
Interventions: Drug therapy

A

Calcium channel blocking agents
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin II receptor blockers
Aldosterone receptor antagonist
Beta blockers

316
Q

chronic partial or total arterial occlusion resulting from systemic - leading to deprivation of O2 & nutrients

A

atherosclerosis

317
Q

chronic partial or total ARTERIAL OCCLUSION resulting
from systemic atherosclerosis
(thickening or hardening of the arteries) leading to
deprivation of O2 & nutrients

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease

318
Q

Peripheral Arterial Disease of lower extremities is also called

A

“Lower Extremity Arterial Disease” (LEAD)

319
Q

involves the distal end of
the aorta & the common,
internal, external iliac
arteries (located above
the inguinal ligament)

A

Inflow obstruction

320
Q

involves femoral, popliteal
& tibial arteries (below the
superficial femoral artery)

A

Outflow obstruction

321
Q

most common
cause of Peripheral Arterial Disease

A

Atherosclerosis

322
Q

Risk factor for?

hypertension
hyperlipedimia
DM
CIGARETTE SMOKING
obesity
familial predisposition

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease

323
Q

Clients with Peripheral Arterial Disease initially seek treatment for a characteristic
leg pain known as -
(usually they can walk only a certain distance
before a cramping, burning muscle discomfort or
pain forces them to stop)

A

intermittent claudication

324
Q

presence of – numbness or burning sensation often describe as a feeling like a toothache, that is severe enough to awaken clients at night located in the distal portion of the
extremities (heal, toes)

A

Rest Pain

325
Q

discomfort in the lower back,
buttocks or thighs

A

Inflow disease

326
Q

burning or cramping in the
calves, ankles, feet & toes

A

Outflow disease

327
Q

Assessment Findings of?
intermittent claudication: cramping
rest Pain: numbness or burning sensation
Inflow disease: lower back, buttocks or thighs
Outflow disease: calves, ankles, feet & toes
● Loss of hair on the lower calf, ankle & foot
thickened toenails

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease

328
Q

dry, scaly, dusky, pale or mottled skin

● Cold extremity & cyanotic;
pallor occurs when the
extremity is elevated

A

Peripheral Arterial Disease

329
Q

most sensitive &
specific indicator of arterial function is the
quality/absence/not palpable -

A

posterior tibial pulse

330
Q

in Peripheral Arterial Disease, what early sign you must note

A

ulcer

331
Q

(pedal pulse)

place the fingers just lateral to the extensor tendon of the great toe

A

dorsalis pedis

332
Q

(pedal pulse)

place fingers just behind and slightly below the medial malleolus

A

posterior tibial

333
Q

Ankle-Brachial Index an ABI of - in either leg is diagnostic of PAD (derived by dividing the ankle BP by the
brachial BP)

A

<0.9

334
Q

not commonly performed today because this
procedure involves injecting contrast medium into the
arterial system and can have risks which include
hemorrhage, thrombosis, embolus & death

A

Arteriography

335
Q

Done by stress test or treadmill and gives valuable
information about claudication (muscle pain)
without rest pain

A

Exercise Tolerance Testing

336
Q

Normally, BP readings in the __ are higher than
those in the upper extremities; with the presence of arterial
disease, these pressures are LOWER than the brachial
pressure

A

thigh and calf

337
Q

people with
severe rest pain,
venous ulcers or
gangrene should not
participate in

A

Exercise

338
Q

nicotine causes
vasoconstriction (1 cigarette = -
hour vasoconstriction)

A

1

339
Q
A
340
Q

↑ flexibility of
RBCs; ↓ blood viscosity by inhibiting
platelet aggregation & ↓ fibrinogen thus
increasing blood flow to the extremities

A

Pentoxifylline (Trental)

341
Q

Invasive procedure; arteries are dilated with a
balloon catheter advanced through a cannula, which is inserted into or above an occluded or stenosed artery

A

Percutaneous Transluminal Angioplasty (PTA)

342
Q

Reserved for clients with
smaller occlusions in the distal
superficial femoral, proximal
popliteal & common iliac
arteries

A

Laser-Assisted Angioplasty

343
Q

most commonly
performed procedure that ↑ arterial blood flow in an
affected limb

A

Arterial revascularization

344
Q

o Proper technique & correct use of metered
dose inhalers for patients with

A

Bronchial Asthma

345
Q

– reveals increased size of bronchioles,
atelectasis & changes in the pulmonary tissues

A

CXR & bronchoscopy

346
Q

– Reflection of turbulence of blood
flow through the normal or
abnormal valves

A

Murmurs

347
Q

Murmur (valve damage) Assessment findings in

A

Carditis

348
Q

Pulmonary embolism complication of

A

Pleural E󰇗usion

349
Q

Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis/
Thrombosis (DVT)
● affects the
deep vein of
the lower
extremities
which presents
a greater risk
for

A

pulmonary
embolism

350
Q
A
351
Q

complication of chest trauma
occurring when 2 or more adjacent
ribs are fractured at two or more
sites, resulting in free-floating rib
segments

A

Flail Chest

352
Q

Invasive procedure; laser probe
is advanced through a cannula
similar to that used for PTA

A

Laser-Assisted Angioplasty

353
Q

cone-shaped
hollow muscular
organ located in the
mediastinum
between the lungs

A

Heart

354
Q

Heart Pumps about

A

60ml/beat or
5L/min

355
Q

Pharmacologic Therapy for
* Nitrates, the mainstay of therapy (nitroglycerin)
* Beta-adrenergic blockers (metoprolol and atenolol)
* Calcium channel blockers/calcium ion antagonists (amlodipine and diltiazem)
*Antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications (aspirin, clopidogrel, heparin,
glycoprotein [GP]
* Oxygen therapy

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

356
Q

Medications for _

o Nitrates
-Nitroglycerine, Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil),
Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur)
o Beta Blockers
o Calcium Channel Blockers
o Thrombolytics/ Fibrinolytics

A

Myocardial Infarction

357
Q

Medical management for
o Meds: Bronchodilators, mucolytics, antibiotics, corticosteroids (limited basis to assist with broncho dilation & removal of secretions)

A

Emphysema

358
Q

Medical Management for _
o Usually self-limiting
o Bedrest, antipyretics, expectorants,
antitussives, ⭡fluids, humidifiers, antibiotics

A

Acute Bronchitis

359
Q

Bronchodilators for _
β2 agonist
Methylxanthines
Cholinergic antagonist

A

Bronchial Asthma

360
Q

Medical Management for __
Drainage of purulent material from the bronchi
Antibiotics
Bronchodilators
Mucolytics
Humidification
Surgery removal of bronchiectasis if confined to a
small area

A

Bronchiectasis

361
Q

Caused by vasospasm of the arterioles and arteries of the upper & lower extremities

A

Raynaud’s Disease

362
Q

Raynaud’s syndrome usually occurs with people __
years of age

A

older than 30

363
Q

Raynaud’s syndrome usually occurs with people older than 30
years of age; but can occur between the ages of __ years of age

A

17 & 50

364
Q

Raynaud’s Disease is more common in what gender

A

women

365
Q

Raynaud’s Phenomenon Assessment shows that as a result of vasospasm, the
cutaneous vessels are
constricted & __ of the extremities, followed by cyanosis

A

blanching

366
Q

Aside from the cutaneous vessels constricting and blanching, other assessment findings of __ are Numbness, coldness, pain swelling, and ulcers

A

Raynaud’s Phenomenon

367
Q

the constriction of vessels decreases blood supply to fingers, causing them to turn pale. This is shown in what phenomenon

A

Raynaud’s Phenomenon

368
Q

Management/treatment in Raynaud’s disease involves relieving or preventing the __
by drug therapy

A

vasoconstriction

369
Q

For severe symptoms not
relieved by drug in Raynaud’s Disease: __ is performed

A

Lumbar sympathectomy

370
Q

In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, there is Diffuse __ deposition within arterioles and
capillaries

A

fibrin

371
Q

In Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, there is Diffuse fibrin deposition within arterioles and
capillaries with widespread coagulation all over the
body and subsequent depletion of

A

clotting factors

372
Q

this condition might cause hemorrhage in kidneys, brain, adrenals, heart, and
other organs and may be linked with entry of thromboplastic
substances into the blood

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

373
Q

Assessment Findings:
● Petechiae and ecchymoses on the skin, mucous membranes, heart, lungs, and other
organs

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

374
Q

● Severe and uncontrollable hemorrhage
during childbirth or surgical procedures
● Oliguria and acute renal failure
● Convulsions,coma, death

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

375
Q

● Avoid IM injections
● Apply pressure to bleeding sites
● Provide frequent nontraumatic mouth care (soft
toothbrush or gauze sponge)

for patient with

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

376
Q

wirelike devices that may be used along with the PTA to help keep the vessel open

A

Stents

377
Q

Heat from the laser vaporizes
the arteriosclerotic plaque to
open the occluded or stenosed
artery

A

Laser-Assisted Angioplasty

378
Q

grafts preferred are
saphenous vein, cephalic or basilic arm veins,
synthetic materials such as polytetrafluoroethylene,
Gore-Tex & Dacron

A

Bypass procedures

379
Q

needed for RBC
Production in Aplastic anemia

A

Bone marrow

380
Q

diet to help reduce incidence of infection in aplastic anemia

A

high-protein, high-Vitamin diet

381
Q

● Use a soft toothbrush and electric razor
● Avoid IM injection
● Check for occult blood in urine and stool
(Hematest)
● Observe for oozing from gums, petechiae, or
ecchymoses.

Nursing Management for

A

Aplastic Anemia

382
Q

needed for RBC Production in Pernicious anemia

A

Intrinsic factor

383
Q

● Produced by gastric mucosa
● Needed for absorption of Vit
B12

A

Pernicious anemia

384
Q

● Needed for maturation of RBC
● Extrinsic facto

A

Folic acid

385
Q

needed for the maturation of erythrocytes

A

Vitamin B12

386
Q

Normally, ingested vitamin B12 combines with intrinsic factor, which is
produced by cells in the __.

A

stomach

387
Q

Intrinsic factor is necessary for vitamin B12 to be absorbed in the __. Certain diseases, such as pernicious anemia, can result when
absorption of vitamin B12 is inadequate.

A

small intestine

388
Q

Medical Management for Pernicious Anemia
● Administration of Vitamin B12 via weekly & monthly for maintenance

A

IM

389
Q

Liver, Organ meats, dried beans, Nuts, Green leafy
vegetables, Citrus fruit, Brewer’s yeast, eggs, meat, poultry, shellfish, milk & milk products.

diet for pt with

A

pernicious anemia

390
Q

Take iron with or immediately after a meal to avoid GI upset
● Take with __
(⭣ absorption)
● Use straw (elixir preparations) to prevent staining of
teeth

A

orange juice or vitamin C source

391
Q

● Expect iron to color stool __
● Causes constipation

A

dark green or black

392
Q

● Liver especially pork & lamb
● Red meat, Organ meats, Kidney beans
● Whole-wheat breads and cereals
● Leafy green vegetables
● Carrots, Egg yolk, Raisins

diet for pt with

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

393
Q

primary/essential: genetic & lifestyle
above 60
excess cal
inactivity
hyperlipidemia (high choles)
african-american
high intake of caffeine/salt
reduce intake of k/potassium, Calcium, Mg
obesity
smoling
stress

are primary causes of

A

hypertension

394
Q

tachycardia, sweating & pallor in hypertension suggest a

A

pheochromocytoma
or adrenal medulla tumor

395
Q

more than 1 once of ethanol and less than 100meq/L sodium intake is a lifestyle modification for

A

hypertension

396
Q

medication for hypertensive clients who have
asthma, chronic airway limitation (CAL) & chronic
renal disease

A

DIURETICS

397
Q

most common target of end-organ damage w/ hypertension

A

heart

398
Q

An umbrella term for hypoxemic,
respiratory failure; acute respiratory distress syndrome is a
severe form of acute lung injury

A

Acute lung injury

399
Q

nonspecific
pulmonary response to a variety of pulmonary and
nonpulmonary insults to the lung; characterized by
interstitial infiltrates, alveolar hemorrhage, atelectasis,
decreased compliance, and refractory hypoxemia.

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

400
Q

-thorancntesis
-sunction
-ctt
* Provide relief/control of pain.
– Administer narcotics/ analgesics/
sedatives as ordered and monitor
effects
– Position client in high-Fowler’s
position.

for patient with

A

Pneumothorax/ Hemothorax

401
Q

Aims to restore negative pressure of the pleural
cavity and drain collected fluid/blood

A

CHEST TUBES AND DRAINAGE SYSTEM

402
Q

Components of CHEST TUBES AND DRAINAGE SYSTEM

A

■ Suction control chamber
■ Water seal chamber
■ Closed collection chamber

403
Q

Serum lipids

A

Cholesterol, Triglycerides, High density lipoprotein, low density lipoprotein

404
Q

(⭣40-160⭣35-135mg/dl)

A

triglycerides

405
Q

(122-200mg/dl),

A

Cholesterol

406
Q

low density lipoprotein

A

(⭣⭣60-180mg/dl)

407
Q

high density lipoprotein

A

(⭣45-50 ⭣55-60mg/dl),

408
Q

HDL:p LDL ratio

A

(3:1)

409
Q

C-Reactive Protein

A

(<1.0mg/dl)

410
Q

Determine the size, silhouette &
position of the heart

A

Chest
radiography

411
Q

● Invasive procedure involving
fluoroscopy & the use of contrast
media

The beating heart and its
surrounding blood vessels can be watched and
recorded in extraordinary detail as a catheter injects
a contrast dye into a patient’s coronary arteries

A

Angiography
(arteriography)

412
Q

● Most definitive, most
invasive test used in
the diagnosis of heart
disease

A

Cardiac
catheterization

413
Q

– Technique is the same for
left-sided heart catheterization
– Complications: MI, Stroke,
Arterial bleeding,
Thromboembolism, Lethal
dysrhythmias, Death

A

Coronary arteriography

414
Q

– Catheter with miniature
transducer (soundwaves) at the
distal tip to visualize the
coronary arteries

A

● Intravascular ultrasonography
(IVUS)

415
Q

– graphically measures & records
the electrical current traveling
through the conduction system
generated by the heart
– measured by electrodes placed
on the skin & connected to an
amplifier & strip chart recorder
– in a standard 12-lead ECG:
● five electrodes attached to the arms,
legs, & chest
● measures electrical current from 12
different views or leads

A

Electrocardiography (ECG)

416
Q

Bipolar limb leads

A

– Lead I
– Lead II
– Lead III

417
Q

– aVR
– aVL
– aVF

A

Unipolar augmented leads

418
Q

– V1
– V2
– V3
– V4
– V5
– V6

A

Unipolar precordial leads

419
Q

additional sounds generated by
turbulent blood flow in the heart and blood
vessels. Murmurs may be systolic, diastolic or
continuous.

A

MURMUR

420
Q

The most common types of murmurs in
children and based on their timing within
systole, they are classified into:

A

Systolic Murmurs

421
Q

(SEM, crescendo-
decrescendo) result from turbulent blood flow

due to obstruction (actual or relative) across
the semilunar valves, outflow tracts or arteries.
The murmur is heard shortly after S1 (pulse).

A

a) Systolic ejection murmurs

422
Q

start at
the beginning of S1 (pulse) and continue to S2.
Examples: ventricular septal defect (VSD),
mitral and tricuspid valve regurgitation.

A

Holosystolic (regurgitant) murmurs

423
Q

is a subtype
of holosystolic murmur that may be heard in
patients with small VSDs. In the latter part of
systole, the small VSD may close or become so
small to not allow discernible flow through and
the murmur is no longer audible.

A

Decrescendo systolic murmur

424
Q

murmurs immediately follow S2.
Examples: aortic and pulmonary
regurgitation.

A

Early diastolic murmurs

425
Q

(rumble) are due to
increased flow (relative stenosis) through the
mitral (VSD) or the tricuspid valves (ASD).

A

Mid-diastolic murmurs

426
Q

due to
pathological narrowing of the AV valves.
Example: rheumatic mitral stenosis. Tricuspid
stenosis is very rare in children.

A

Late diastolic murmurs

427
Q

Usually abnormal, and may be early, mid or
late diastolic.

A

Diastolic Murmurs

428
Q

Heard during both systole and diastole. They
occur when there is a constant shunt between
a high and low pressure blood vessel.

A

Continuous Murmurs

429
Q

Common in children and have the following
characteristics:
 Grade III or less in intensity
 An otherwise a normal cardiac
examination and normal heart sounds
 No associated cardiac symptoms
 Change in intensity with body position
(e.g. louder in supine position)

A

Innocent Murmurs

430
Q

Electrocardiogram (ECG) Strip: each small
block measures 1 mm in height & width
 Standard Speed:

A

25mm/sec

431
Q

Represents atrial depolarization

A

P WAVE

432
Q

Represents the time required for the
impulse to travel through the AV node,
where it is delayed, and through the
Bundle of His, Bundle branches, & Purkinje
fiber network, just before ventricular
depolarization

A

PR SEGMENT

433
Q

 Represents the time required for atrial
depolarization as well as impulse travel
through the conduction system and
Purkinje fiber network, inclusive of the P
wave and PR segment
 It is measured from the beginning of the P
wave to the end of the PR segment (0.12-
0.20 sec)

A

PR INTERVAL

434
Q

 Represents ventricular depolarization and
is measured from the beginning of the Q
(or R) wave to the end of the S wave (0.04
- 0.10 sec)

A

QRS COMPLEX

435
Q

 Represents early ventricular repolarization

A

ST SEGMENT

436
Q

 Represents ventricular repolarization

A

T WAVE

437
Q

 Represents late ventricular repolarization

A

U WAVE

438
Q

 Represents the total time required for
ventricular depolarization and
repolarization and is measured from the
beginning of the QRS complex to the end
of the T wave

A

QT INTERVAL

439
Q

HR

A

60-100 bpm

440
Q

found BEFORE the QRS
complex

A

P waves

441
Q

Adhering to the epicardium

A

Visceral Pericardium

442
Q

 Enveloping the visceral pericardium
 A tough fibrous tissue that attaches to
the great vessels, diaphragm, sternum,
and vertebral column and supports the
heart in the mediastinum

A

Parietal Pericardium

443
Q

(0-5 mmHg)

A

Right atrium

444
Q

(25 mmHg)

A

Right Ventricle

445
Q

 (Also known as blood thinners.)
o Decreases the clotting
(coagulating) ability of the blood.

A

Anticoagulants

446
Q

o Keeps blood clots from forming by
preventing blood platelets from
sticking together.

A

Antiplatelet Agents & Dual Antiplatelet

Therapy (DAPT)

447
Q

o Lowers blood pressure by
widening blood vessels. This
reduces the workload of the
heart.
o Reason for medication
o Used to treat or improve
symptoms of cardiovascular
conditions including high blood
pressure and heart failure.
o They also provide health benefit

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE)

Inhibitors

448
Q

o Slows the heart rate and force of
contraction, which lowers blood
pressure and makes the heart
beat more slowly and with less
force.

A

Beta Blockers

449
Q

o Amlodipine (Norvasc)
o Diltiazem (Cardizem, Tiazac)
o Felodipine (Plendil)
o Nifedipine (Adalat, Procardia)
o Nimodipine (Nimotop)
o Nisoldipine (Sular)
o Verapamil (Calan, Verelan)

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

450
Q

 Also known as water pills
o Causes the body to rid itself of
excess fluids and sodium through
urination.

A

Diuretics

451
Q
A
452
Q

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for PAIN
– if not infectious: Corticosteroids
– Antibiotics: for bacterial infection
– Radiation or chemotherapy if caused by malignancy (cancerous cells)

A

PERICARDITIS

453
Q

Intervention:
– Treatment of underlying cause (antibiotic)
– Na+-restricted diet: Too much salt can cause fluid to build up around the heart
-cardiotonic drugs (digitalis): to remove excess extracellular fluid

A

MYOCARDITIS

454
Q

Intervention:
– Antibiotic: DOC
– penicillin: bacterial infections
– Aspirin (control blood clot formation around the valves)
– Steroids (ANTI INFLAMMATORY:suppresses inflammation)
– Fever (antipyretics, hydration)
– Antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent recurrence

A

Rheumatic Carditis/ Endocarditis

455
Q

Intervention:
» Inotropic agents
change the force of your heart’s contractions
– Digitalis~!
to treat congestive heart failure (CHF) BUT too much digitalis: DIGITALIS TOXICITY ->
loss of apetite
N&V
rapid or slow/irregular heart rate
disturbance in color vision
DDD: fail
A. Digoxin (Lanoxin) : di la decrease everything
⭣ contractility, ⭣ HR, ⭣ conduction (AV node)
(-) sympa. activity, (+) parasympa. Activity
B. Dopamine (Intropin): do in(side)
C. Dobutamine (Dobutrex):dodo
» Diuretics flx
FL CD
help reduce fluid buildup in the body
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Chlorothiazide (Diuril)
» Vasodilators
enhance blood flow
NA
A. Nitroglycerin
B. ACE inhibitors (pril)
april
ace

A

HEART FAILURE/Rheumatic heart disease

456
Q

Intervention:
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors “Statins”
reduces cholesterol production

A

ATHEROSCLEROSIS

457
Q

Intervention:
1.Nitrates, the mainstay of therapy (nitroglycerin)
2.Beta-adrenergic blockers
metoprolol
atenolol
3. Calcium channel blockers/calcium ion antagonists
diltiazem
amlodipine
4. Antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications
clopidogrel
heparin
glycoprotein [GP]
aspirin

A

ANGINA PECTORIS

458
Q

Intervention:
Pain management: MONA
Morphine: 2- to 10-mg IV q 5-15 minutes. AE: respiratory depression, hypotension, bradycardia, severe vomiting. Antidote: Naloxone (Narcan) 0.2 – 0.8 mg IV
Oxygen: 2-4L/min by nasal cannula
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin

o Nitrates (NII)
-Nitroglycerine
-Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)
-Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur)
o Beta Blockers
o Calcium Channel Blockers
o Thrombolytics/ Fibrinolytics

A

Myocardial Infarction

459
Q

Intervention:
2-4 L/min or even 1-2 L/min via nasal cannula or

up to 40% via venturi mask

oLow-flow O2 because low arterial oxygen level is the COPD client’s primary drive for breathing

mucolytics
acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
Guaifenesin

A

COPD

460
Q

Intervention:
o Meds:
Bronchodilators
mucolytics
antibiotics
corticosteroids (limited basis to assist with
broncho dilation & removal of secretions)
o Administer O2
via nasal cannula (2-3 L/min)

A

Emphysema

461
Q

Intervention:
Bronchodilators:
β2 agonist: Albuterol (Ventolin), Bitolterol, Pirbuterol, Salmeterol, Formoterol
Methylxanthines: Theophylline, Aminophylline, Oxtriphylline
Monitor for SE: excessive cardiac & CNS stimulation (check pulse & BP)
Cholinergic antagonist Ipratropium (Atrovent)

Anti-inflammatory Agents:
Corticosteroids
oral – Prednisolone, Prednisone
inhaler – Budesonide, Fluticasone, Beclomethasone, Triamcinolone, Flunisolide
Mast cell stabilizer
Cromolyn sodium (Intal); helps prevent atopic asthma attacks (prevent mast cell membranes from opening when an allergen binds to IgE) but are not useful during an acute episode
Monoclonal antibodies
Omalizumab (Xolair), approved in 2003 only – binds to IgE receptor sites on mast cells & basophils preventing the release of chemical mediators for inflammation

A

Bronchial Asthma

462
Q

Intervention:
Drainage of purulent material from the bronchi
Antibiotics
Bronchodilators
Mucolytics
Humidification
Surgery removal of bronchiectasis if confined to a smal

A

Bronchiectasis

463
Q

Involves placing a hollow plastic tube
between the ribs and into the chest to drain
fluid or air from around the lungs. The tube is
often hooked up to a suction machine to help
with drainage.

A

CHEST TUBE THORACOSTOMY (CTT)

464
Q

Measure lung volumes, ventilator
function, and mechanics of
breathing,diffusion, and gas exchange

A

Pulmonary Function Test

465
Q

Checks respiratory function in terms of
oxygenating the blood and maintaining
acid- base balance.

A

Arterial Blood Gas Analysis

465
Q

Checks the causative agent for
infectious lung disease
■ STERILE container is used for culture

A

Sputum Analysis/Culture

466
Q

■ (+) consent form
■ NPO for 6 hrs before the procedure
■ Remove dentures/oral prosthesis
■ Topical anesthetic (lidocaine) spray to
suppress cough reflex
■ NPO post-procedure until gag reflex
returns

A

Bronchoscopy

466
Q

Non-invasive device that estimates a
client’s arterial blood oxygen saturation
and pulsations

A

Pulse Oximeter

467
Q

0.12-0.20 secs

A

PR Interval

467
Q

0.08-0.10s

A

pwave

468
Q

0.06-0.10

A

QRS

469
Q

Use to assess the volume & pressure of blood in the heart &
vascular system by means of a surgically inserted catheter

A

Hemodynamic Monitoring

470
Q
A