3. Musculo-Skeletal Flashcards

1
Q

kypho-

A

hump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

3 types of muscle

A

Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Specifications of Skeletal Muscle

A

Striated and attached to the skeleton by tendons; voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Specifications of Cardiac Muscle

A

Interlocking striated muscle; involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specifications of Smooth Muscle

A

Found in the walls of all the hollow organs; involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Deltoid muscle

A

This triangular muscle covering should joint. Flexes the arm away (abduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of Tendon

A

Connect muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition of Ligament

A

Connect bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of facia

A

A thin casing of connective tissue. Fascia creates bundles of muscles into groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Extensor tendons

A

Allow a joint to open or straighten; found in arms, legs, hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Flexor tendons

A

Allow a joint to close or contract; present in arms. legs, hands, feet and hips

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(4) Ligaments of the knee

A

Anterior cruciate ligament
Posterior cruciate ligament
Medial collateral ligament
Lateral collateral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(2) divisions of Skeletal system

A

Appendicular: shoulders, pelvic, arms, legs, hands, and feet
Axial; Skull, hyoid, ribs, sternum, vertebrae, sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Foramen of Magnum

A

Where the spinal cord exits the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(8) Bones of the skull

A

Frontal
Occipital
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
(2) Parietal
(2)Temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(12) Facial Bones

A

Maxilla
(2) Zygomatic
Mandible
Nasal
(2) Palatine
(2) Inferior Nasal Concha
(2) Lacrimal
Vomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(6) Bones of the Auditory System

A

(2) Incudes
(2) Mallei
(2) Stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(25) Bones of the Thorax

A

(24) Ribs
(1) Sternum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(25) Bones of the Spinal Column

A

(7) Cervical
(12) Thoracic
(5) Lumbar
Sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Number of bones in the Axial Skeleton

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Number of bones in the Appendicular

A

126

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(4) Bones of the shoulder girdle

A

(2) Clavicles
(2) Scapulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(2) Bones of the Pelvic Girdle

A

(2) Hip Bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(60) Bones of the Upper Extremities

A

(2) Humeri
(2) Radii
(2) Ulnae
(16) Carpals
(10) Metacarpals
(28) Phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(60) Bones of the Lower Extrmities

A

(2) Femurs
(2) Tibiae
(2) Fibulae
(2) Patellae
(14) Tarsals
(10) Metatarsals
(28) Phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(5) Bone Shapes

A

Long; Tubular
Short; Cuboidal
Sesamoid
Flat
Irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Chondrocyte

A

Cell responsible for cartilage formation. Play a critical role in fracture repari

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Myoma

A

A tumor composed of muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Myel-

A

Bone Marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tuberosity

A

Large Prominence on bone for the attachment of muscle or ligaments

31
Q

Lordosis

A

Abnormal anterior curvature of the spine usually lumbar

32
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

Incomplete fracture most often seen in children; slow to heal

33
Q

Spiral Fracture

A

Caused by a twisting force; also know as a torsion fracture.

34
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

Bone fragments into several pieces; crush injuries; seen in the elderly

35
Q

Transverse Fracture

A

Fracture at right angle to the bone’s axis from a direct blow or heavy, repetitive action

36
Q

Compound Fracture

A

Bone fragment protrude through an open wound in the skin.

37
Q

Cartilage

A

Non-vascular, filled with chondrocytes, collagen and glycosylated protein

38
Q

Three types of joints

A

Fibrous, cartilagenous, synovial

39
Q

ORIF

A

Open Reduction Internal Fixation

40
Q

Approach of Henry

A

Surgical exposure in an open procedure. The length of the incision depends on the extend of the exposure needed.

41
Q

Reduction

A

Putting the bony ends back into place or anatomical alignment.

42
Q

Colles’ Fracture

A

Occurs near the wrist, affecting the distal radius bone

43
Q

Epiphyseal fracture

A

Occurs when matrix is calcifying and chondrocytes are dying; usually seen in children

44
Q

Chondrosis

A

Cartilage breaks down or deteriorates

45
Q

Chondritis

A

Inflammation of the cartilage

46
Q

Chondromalacia

A

Cartilage becomes soft; usually seen in the knee joint at the patella

47
Q

Salter-Harris Fractures

A

Fractures through the growth plates (epiphyseal plates)

48
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type 1

A

A fracture that occurs through the growth plate

49
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type 2

A

Most common; it occurs through both the metaphysis and the growth plate

50
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type 3

A

Fracture in the joint (intra-articular fracture) extending through the growth plate and epiphysis. Commonly found at the distal end of the tibia

51
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type 4

A

Fracture extends through the growth plate, the epiphysis and the metaphysis

52
Q

Salter Harris Fracture Type 5

A

Crushing or compression injury of the growth plate; poor prognosis resulting in bone growth arrest.

53
Q

(3) Vertebral Components

A

Vertebral Body
Vertebral Arch
Transverse Processes

54
Q

Ankylosis

A

Stiffening of a joint

55
Q

Osteopenia

A

Lower than average bone density, precursor to osteoporosis

56
Q

Periostium

A

A dense layer of vasular conective tissue surround bones that does not extend into the surfaces of the joint

57
Q

-clasis

A

Surgical break or fracture

58
Q

-orraphy

A

Surgical suture

59
Q

-lysis

A

To free up

60
Q

-pexy

A

Surgical fixation

61
Q

Arthrogram

A

imaging of the inside of a joint using contrast dyeDu

62
Q

Dual-energy X-Ray Absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

A

Measures density and mass of structures in the body

63
Q

Electromyography (EMG)

A

Measures the eletrical activity of muscle

64
Q

FABER Test

A

Positive sign identifies sacroiliac disyfunction

65
Q

Finkelstein test

A

Positive sign identifies de Quervains tenosynovistis as the cause of wrist pain

66
Q

Homan’s Test

A

Positive sign indicates possible DVT

67
Q

MRI

A

Uses radio waves and magnetic fields to capture soft tissue or joint damage

68
Q

Thompson Test

A

Test of Achilles tendon rupture

69
Q

Tinel’s sign

A

Positive sign indicates carpal tunnel syndrome

70
Q

Hallux

A

Refers to the big toe

71
Q

Hallus valgus

A

bunion

72
Q

Hammer Toe

A

Toe or Toes curl downward due to arthritis

73
Q
A