2nd Half quizes Flashcards

0
Q
A liver-specific enzyme that can be used to evaluate liver function in horses is 
a sorbitol dehydrogenase 
b amylase
c lipase 
d creatine kinase
A

sorbitol dehydrogenase

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1
Q

A/G ratio refers to

a alpha/gamma proteins
b albumin/glucose
c albumin/globulin
d ALT/GGT

A

Albumin/globulin

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2
Q

The enzyme that can be used to evaluate muscular damage is

a sorbitol dehydrogenase
b amylase
c lipase
d creatine kinase

A

creatine kinase

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3
Q

For which of the following animals would bile acid testing not be useful

a horse
b cow
c dog
d cat

A

cow

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4
Q

The most commonly used tests of kidney function in dogs are

a AST and ALT
b amylase and lipase
c BUN and creatinine
d sodium and potassium

A

BUN and creatinine

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5
Q

A by-product of muscle metabolism that may be used to evaluate kidney function is

a inorganic phosphorus
b uric acid
c creatine kinase
d creatinine

A

creatinine

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6
Q

A useful test to detect ketoacidosis is

a trypsin
b glucagon tolerance
c B-hydroxy-butyrate
d insulin/glucose ratio

A

B-hydroxy-butyrate

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7
Q

The primary extracellular cation commonly measured in veterinary species is

a calcium
b potassium
c sodium
d bicarbonate

A

sodium

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8
Q

The primary intracellular cation commonly measured in veterinary species is

a calcium
b potassium
c sodium
d bicarbonate

A

potassium

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9
Q

The routine chemistry panes is typically run on

a plasma
b mucus swab samples
c serum
d urine first; then blood

A

serum

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10
Q

Serial sampling with a chemistry panel is not a direct measure of

a progression of disease
b response to therapy
c response to potential adverse drug reactions
d individual organ or cellular function

A

individual organ or cellular functions

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11
Q

Serum enzymes cannot be used to detect

a drug overdose
b hepatocellular injury
c cholestasis
d muscle damage

A

drug overdose

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12
Q

A cat’s serum sample is orange in color, indicating the presence of

a normal serum
b in vitro hemolysis
c lipemia
d bilirubin

A

bilirubin

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13
Q

crystalluria is often

a associated with risk of urolithiasis
b indicative of abnormal metabolism of a substance
c of no clinical significance
d all the above

A

all the above

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14
Q

Calculation and measurement of SG in urine includes

a refractometric measures of the bending of light as it passes through a solution
b measuring the concentration of hydrogen ions
c reference intervals
d both A and B

A

refractometric measures of the bending of light as it passes through a solution

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15
Q

________ occurs with metabolic diseases involving increased lipid or impaired carbohydrate metabolism

a Hyperbilirubinemia
b Ketonuria
c Glucosuria
d Hematuria

A

Ketonuria

16
Q

Define the following terms: pollakiuria, polyuria, oliguria, and anuria

A
pollakiuria= abnormal frequent urination
polyuria= increased volume of urine
oliguria= scant urination
anuria= without urine production
17
Q

What is the normal clarity of canine urine

A

clear

18
Q

Define urine specific gravity

A

density of urine when compared to distilled water

19
Q

When is a sulfasalicylic acid trubidity test required

A

when protein is high

20
Q

What is the purpose

A

Aids in accurate measurement of protein loss with low SG

21
Q

The most appropriate specimens for bacterial culture are collected

a by the client
b from the ear canal
c from sites that are normally free of bacteria
d from open lesions

A

from sites that are normally free of bacteria

22
Q

Acid-fast stain is used to identify

a Mycobacterium and Nocardia
b Bacillus anthracis
c Legionella and Pseudomonas
d Borrelia anserina

A

Mycobacterium and Nocardia

23
Q

Organisms that exhibit a Gram variable reaction should be evaluated by the

a oxidase test
b coadulase test
c KOH test
d Enterotube test

A

KOH test

24
Q

A bacterial colony count may be useful in the evaluation of

a dermatophyte infection
b contamination level of specimen
c gastrointestinal disease
d urinary tract infection

A

urinary tract infection

25
Q

To collect specimens at optimal times, it would be best ot sample them

a early in the course of the disease
b at midpoint of the disease
c after administration of antimicrobials
d after the death of the animal

A

early in the course of the disease

26
Q

______ is the best way to collect bacterial culture from urine

a scraping of the urethral wall
b test strips dipped in urine
c cystocentesis
d free-catch sampling

A

cystocentesis

27
Q

MacConkey agar is selective for bacteria that can grow in the presence of bile salts which is similar to the environment found in

a the skin
b deep wounds
c the stomach
d the intestines

A

the intestines

28
Q

Inoculated media plates are incubated in an inverted position to

a encourage growth of all bacteria present
b prevent condensation of water on the lid
c prevent isolated growth of pathogens
d decrease humidity in the media

A

prevent condensation of water on the lid

29
Q

A positive result for the ______ test results in bubbles of oxygen produced on a slide when bacteria are introduced into a drop of hydrogen peroxide

a coagulase
b indole
c catalase
d oxidase

A

catalase

30
Q

Where are members of the Enterobacteriaceae family commonly found

a Brain
b Skin
c Liver
d Intestines

A

Intestines

31
Q

The most important member of the Bacillus family is

a Streptococcus
b Bacillus anthracis
c Staphylococcus
d aeromonas

A

Bacillus antracis

32
Q

Sample ______ systems are designed to maintain the bacteria without promoting their growth or allowing them to die

a enrichment
b migratory
c stable
d transport

A

transport

33
Q

list at least six terms for describing colony morphologic characteristics related to elevation

A

Flat, raised, convex, pulvinate, umbonate, circular

34
Q

Describe the procedure for inoculating both the butt and slant section of an agar slant tube

A

butt= straight in and out stab into the media

slant= straight stab into the media and when retracting make a squiggly motion at the surface of the media