232 exam2

Question 1

Describe the structure of the olfactory epithelium

Answer 1

The olfactory epithelium contains the olfactory sensory neurons, supporting cells, and regenerative basal epithelial cells (stem cells). It covers the inferior surface of the cribriform plate, the superior portion of the perpendicular plate, and the superior nasal conchae of the ethmoid. The second layer, the underlying lamina propria, consists of areolar tissue, numerous blood vessels, and nerves.

Question 2

Describe and understand the process of olfactory reception and the pathway to the brain.

Answer 2

Begins with afferent fibers leaving the olfactory epithelium that collect into 20 or more bundles. These bundles penetrate the cribrifome plate of the ethmoid bone to reach the olfactory bulbs, where the first synapse occurs. Efferent fibers from the nuclei elsewhere in the brain also innervate neurons of the olfactory bulbs. Leave the olfactory bulb to the olfactory cortex of the cerebral hemispheres, the hypothalamus, and portions of the limbic system.

Question 3

Describe the structure of taste buds and taste receptors

Answer 3

inside the folds of the 3/4 papillae contain taste buds. The taste pore receives the molecule of food particle where it lands on the taste hairs or microvilli of the gustatory epithelial cell. In between the gustatory epithelial cells is the transitional cells. Basal epithelial cells are in the beach ball structure as stem cells if the gustatory epithelial cells are damaged or needs to be replaced.

Question 4

Describe and locate the four types of lingual papillae

Answer 4

filiform papillae
fungiform papillae
vallate papillae
foliate papillae

Question 5

Describe the gustatory pathways, including which cranial nerves innervate which lingual papillae

Answer 5

The gustatory pathway starts with taste buds, which are innervated by cranial nerves VII (facial), IX (glossopharyngeal), and X (vagus).

Question 6

Describe the four primary and two lesser known taste sensations

Answer 6

Primary taste sensation: sweet, salty, sour, bitter
The two lesser known taste sensations: umami and water

Question 7

Identify the accessory structures of the eye and explain their functions.

Answer 7

eyelids, palpebral fissure, medial angle, lateral angle, eyelashes, tarsal glands, lacrimal caruncle, conjunctiva, palpebral conjunctiva, bulbar conjunctiva, lacrimal apparatus, fornix, lacrimal gland, lacrimal puncta, lacrimal canaliculi, nasolacrimal duct

Question 8

the internal structures of the eye

Answer 8

Fibrous layer:
Sclera - covers most of the ocular surface. Consists of a dense fibrous connective tissue containing both collagen and elastic fibers. thickest over the posterior surface and thinnest over the anterior surface. Six extrinsic eye muscles insert on the sclera, blending their collagen fibers with those of the fibrous layer.
Cornea - Structurally continuous with the sclera. the border between the two is called the corneoscleral junction (corneal limbus).

Question 9

Describe the internal structures of the eye in the fibrous layer and explain their functions

Answer 9

Sclera - covers most of the ocular surface. Consists of a dense fibrous connective tissue containing both collagen and elastic fibers. thickest over the posterior surface and thinnest over the anterior surface. Six extrinsic eye muscles insert on the sclera, blending their collagen fibers with those of the fibrous layer.
Cornea - Structurally continuous with the sclera. the border between the two is called the corneoscleral junction (corneal limbus). Consists of primarily of a dense matrix containing multiple layers of collagen fibers, organized so as not to interfere with the passage of light. no blood vessels. obtain oxygen and nutrients by diffusion from the tears. has numerous free nerve endings.

Question 10

Describe the internal structures of the eye in the Vascular layer and explain their functions

Answer 10

Iris - is a pigmented, flattened ring structure, that is visible through the transparent corneal surface. Contains blood vessels, pigment cells (melanocytes), and two layers of smooth muscle (pupillary muscles). When the muscles contract it changes the diameter of the pupil. The two muscles are: Dilator pupillae and sphincter pupillae. The muscles are controlled by the autonomic nervous system. Sympathetic activation causes the pupils to dialate and Parasympathetic causes it to constrict.
Ciliary body - where the iris attaches on the periphery at the anterior portion to the ciliary body. Which is a thickened region that begins deep to the corneoscleral junction. It extends posteriorly to the level of the ora serrata (the serrated anterior edge of the neural layer of the retina). Mainly consists of ciliary muscles (a ring of smooth musclesthat projects into the interior of the eye.epithelium covers the muscle which has numerous folds called ciliary processes. ciliary zonule is a ring of fibers that attaches the lens to the ciliary processes. This holds the lens posterior to the iris allowing any light passing through the pupil also passes through the lens.
Choroid - is a vascular layer that separates the fibrous layer and the inner layer posterior to the ora serrata. It is covered by the sclera and attached to the outermost layer of the retina.

Question 11

Describe the internal structures of the eye in the Inner layer and explain their functions

Answer 11

Pigmented layer of the retina - absorbs light that passes through the neural layer, preventing light from bouncing back through the neural layer and producing visual “echoes.”
Neural layer - Cellular organization: several layers of cells. The inner layer of the retina contains supporting cells and neurons that do preliminary processing and integration of visual information. The outermost part, closest to the pigmented layer of the retina, contains photoreceptors (the cells that detect light). The photoreceptors are rods and cones. Rods do not discriminate among colors of light. Highly sensitive to light, they enable us to see in dimly lit spaces. Cones give us sharper, clearer, color vision.
Optic disc: part of the neural layer goes to optic nerve (II). Has no photoreceptors.

Question 12

Describe and understand the organization of the retina

Answer 12

The retina is what is considered the inner layer. it consists of the pigmented layer which has the cells that prevent light from bouncing through the neural layer. Cellular organization is the photoreceptors which is the rod and the cones. These converge to the bipolar cells which then in turn converge to the ganglion cells to send back to brain for processing and interpretation.

Question 13

Understand the relationship between ciliary muscle contraction/relaxation and lens shape in reference to focal distance.

Answer 13

The lens is held in place by the ciliary zonule that originates at the ciliary body. Smooth muscle fibers in the ciliary body act like sphincter muscles. When the ciliary muscle contracts, the ciliary body moves toward the lens, thereby reducing the tension in the ciliary zonule. The elastic capsule then pulls the lens into a rounder shape that increases the refractive (bending) power of the lens. This enables it to bring light from nearby objects into focus on the retina. When the ciliary muscle relaxes, the ciliary zonule pulls at the circumference of the lens, making the lens flatter.

Question 14

Understand visual acuity (normal vs. abnormal vision)

Answer 14

is rated by comparison to a “normal” standard. The standard vision rating of 20/20 is defined as the level of detail seen at a distance of 20 feet by a person with normal vision. That is, a person with a visual acuity of 20/20 sees clearly at 20 feet what should normally be seen at 20 feet. Vision rated as 20/15 is better than average, because at 20 feet the person is able to see details that would be clear to a normal eye only at a distance of 15 feet. Conversely, a person with 20/30 vision must be 20 feet from an object to discern details that a person with normal vision could make out at a distance of 30 feet.

Question 15

Describe the anatomy of rods and cones

Answer 15

Rods do not discriminate among colors of light. Highly sensitive to light, they enable us to see in dimly lit rooms, at twilight, and in pale moonlight. Rods have a rod shape the inside the the top of the ride is pancake shaped lipid bilayer. Cones give us color vision. Cones give us sharper, clearer images than rods do, but cones require more intense light. Similar to the rod the cones has a shaped top, but is shaped cone like. Inside the cone is a wave back and forth of lipid bilayer.

Question 16

Understand the activities of the dark current

Answer 16

Sodium entry though gated channels produces dark current.
The plasma membrane in the outer segment of the photoreceptor contains chemically gated sodium ion channels. In darkness these gated channels are kept open in the presence of cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate), a derivative of high-energy compound guanosine triphosphate (GTP). Because the channels are open, the membrane potential is approximately -40mV, rather than -70mV (which is the typical resting state of neurons). At the -40mV membrane potential, the photoreceptor is continuously releasing neurotransmitters (in this case, glutamate) across synapses at the inner segment. the inner segment also continuously pumps sodium ions out the cytosol.

Question 17

Describe and understand the steps in photoreception

Answer 17

Photoreception is the ability to absorb photons.
When it is dark and the eyes are closed the rods and cones are creating an inhibiting current to the bipolar cells. This is with a chemically gated channel with cGMP. When the light hits the rod or cone the organelle of Rhodopsin which has a protein called opsin bound to the pigment retinal. The 11-cis retinal changes shape in light to 11-trans retinal. The opsin activates and in turn activates transducin then phosphodiesterase. The phosphodiestrase breaks down the cGMP to CMP removing the chemical keeping the sodium gated channel open. This inactivates the rods and cones allowing the bipolar neuron to activate and send a signal.

Question 18

Describe and understand the process of bleaching and regeneration.

Answer 18

1) On absorbing light, retinal changes to a more linear shape. This change activates the opsin molecule.
2) Opsin activation changes the Na+ permeability of the outer segment, and this changes the rate of neurotransmitter release by the inner segment at its synapse with a bipolar cell.
3) Changes in bipolar cell activity are detected by one or more ganglion cells. The location of the stimulated ganglion cell indicates the specific portion of the retina stimulated by the arriving photons.
4) After absorbing a photon, the rhodopsin molecule begins to break down into retinal and opsin. This is know as bleaching.
5) The retinal is converted to its original shape. This conversion requires energy in the form of ATP.
6) Once the retinal has been converted, it can recombine with opsin. The rhodopsin molecule is now ready to repeat the cycle. The regeneration process takes time. After exposure to very bright light, photoreceptors are inactivated while pigment regeneration is under way.

Question 19

Understand the phenomenon of color vision

Answer 19

An object appears to have a particular color when it reflects photons from one portion of the visible spectrum and absorbs the rest. Color discrimination takes place through the integration of information arriving from all three types of cones: Blue, Green, and Red. We also perceive black and white through the rods that can only detect light and dark.

Question 20

Understand how vision changes in dark and light adapted states

Answer 20

Dark-adapted state is a state in which the pigments are fully receptive to stimulation and almost all the visual pigments will have recovered from photobleaching. Think when the coming in from outside on a bright day and not being able to see very well since everything seems so dark.
Light-adapted state when the rate of bleaching is balanced by the rate at which the visual pigment reassemble. Think going from a dark room to bright outside, where it is unbearably bright.

Question 21

Describe and understand the monitoring of rods by M-cells and cones by P-cells

Answer 21

M cells are the fairly large ganglion cells that monitor rods. They provide information about the general form of an object, motion, and shadows in dim lighting. Since there is so much convergence occurring the activation of an M cell indicates that light has arrived in a general area rather than at a specific location.
P cells is the ganglion cells that monitor cones. The process of visual stimuli from cones is different because of their lack of convergence. In the fovea centralis, the ratio of cones to ganglion cells is 1:1.

Question 22

Describe and follow the pathways of impulses of the optic nerve to the visual cortex (including all stops along the way)

Answer 22

Question 23

Describe the structures of the external and middle ears and explain how they function

Answer 23

External ear consists of auricle or pinna that surrounds the passageway of the external acoustic meatus, or auditory canal. Along the acoustic meatus are cerminous glands that are integumentary glands that secrete a waxy material called cerumen (or earwax). The auditory canal ends with the tympanic membrane.
The middle ear or tympanic cavity is an air-filled chamber separated from the external acoustic meatus and the tympanic membrane. The middle ear communicates with both the nasopharynx and the auditory tube. The middle ear contains the auditory ossicles. These three bones are the malleus, the incus, and stapes. Also the middle ear contains the tensor tympani which is a short ribbon of muscle originating on the petrous part of the temporal bone and the auditory tube, and inserting on the “handle” of the malleus (which is controlled by trigeminal nerve V). Also the Stapedius muscle is innervated by the facial nerve VII. Contractions of the stapedius pulls on the stapes, reducing its movement at the oval window.

Question 24

Describe and understand the relationship of the bony labyrinth, perilymph, membranous labyrinth, and endolymph

Answer 24

bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph, which inside the perilymph is the membranous labyrinth. Inside the membranous labyrinth is filled with the endolymph.

Question 25

Describe what components of the inner ear make up the vestibular complex

Answer 25

The vestibular complex provides with equilibrium sensations. It is the semicircular canals (anterior, lateral, and posterior), the ampullary crest with amullae, maculae, endolympatic sac, and vestibule (which contains the utricle and saccule). The semicircular ducts and the vestibule have receptors called hair cells.

Question 26

Describe the structure of the cochlea

Answer 26

The cochlear duct or scala media, lies between a pair of perilyphatic chambers, or scalae: the scala vestibuli (or vestibular duct) and the scala tympani (or tympanic duct). These three ducts are encased by the bony labyrinth everywhere except the oval window and the round window. These ducts are a continous spiral tubes. The hair cells are loctaed in the an structure called the spiral organ (organ of Corti). The sensory structure sits at the basilar membrane (separates the chochlear duct from the scala tympani. The hair cells are arranged in a series of longitudinal rows. Their sterocilia are in contact with the overlying tectorial membrane. This membrane is firmly attached to the inner wall of the cochlear duct.

Question 27

Describe and understand the relationship of the semicircular canals, ampulla, endolymph, cupula, and the sense of three-dimensional movement of the head.

Answer 27

The semicircular canals are arranged to be able to sense gravity and movement in the three directions and a combination of the three. Each simicircular duct contains an ampula, an expanded region that contains the receptors. The region in the wall of the ampulla that contains the hair cells is the ampullary crest. And each cell is bound to an amupllary cupla (a gelatinous structure that extends the full width of the smulla. The endolymph flows through the membranous labyrinth moving the cupula allowing the sense of three-dimensional movement of the head.

Question 28

Describe and understand the relationship of the utricle, saccule, otolith, and the sense of gravitational pull and linear acceleration.

Answer 28

The vestibule contains the utricle and saccule. The hair cells of this area provide position and linear movement sensations. There are densley packed calcium carbonate crystals called otolith. When they move over the cluster of hair cells in the utricle and saccule called maculae, can sense gravity and movement. Depending if the crystals are together pressing down on the maculae or moving across it (sensing movement). and the sense of gravitational pull and linear acceleration

Question 29

Describe the pathway for equilibrium sensations

Answer 29

Hair cells of the vestibule and semicircular ducts are monitored by sensory neurons located in adjacent vestibular ganglia. Sensory fibers from these ganglia form the vestibular nerve, a division of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII). These fibers innervate neurons within the pair of vestibular nuclei at the boundary between the pons and the medulla oblongata. The reflexive motor commands issued by the vestibular nuclei are distributed to the motor nuclei for cranial nerves involved with eye, head, and neck movements (CN III, IV, VI, and XI). Instructions descending in the vestibulospinal tracts of the spinal cord adjust peripheral muscle tone and complement the reflexive movements of the head or neck

Question 30

Describe and understand the structure of the spiral organ and how it relates to hearing

Answer 30

The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the spiral organ. The spiral organ is the spiral-shaped cochlea. This sensory structure sits on the basilar membrane. The hair cells are arranged in a series of longitudinal rows. They lack kinocilia, and their sterocilia are in contact with the overlying tectorial membrane. This membrane is firmly attached to the inner wall of the cochlear duct. As the basilar membrane moves the hair cells move over the tectorial membrane causing stimulus that is sent to the nerve fibers.

Question 31

Describe and understand the processes involved in hearing

Answer 31

1) Sound waves arrive at tympanic membrane. 2) Movement of the tympanic membrane displaces the auditory ossicles. 3) Movement of the stapes at the oval window produces pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli. 4) The pressure waves distort the basilar membrane on their way to the round window of the scala tympani. 5)Vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells against the tectorial membrane. 6) Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is relayed to the CNS over the cochlear nerve.

Question 32

Describe the pathway of hearing sensations.

Answer 32

1) Stimulation of hair cells at the specific location along the basilar membrane activates sensory neurons. 2) Sensory neurons carry the auditory information in the cochlear nerve to the cochlear nucleus on that side. 3)Information ascends from each cochlear nucleus to the superior olivary nuclei of the pons and the inferior colliculi of the midbrain. 4) The inferior collciculi direct a variety of unconscious motor responses to sounds. 5) Ascending auditory information goes to the medial geniculate body. 6) Projection fibers then deliver the information to specific locations within the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe.

Question 33

Describe and understand the four types of intercellular communication and give examples

Answer 33

Direct Communication occurs between two cells of the same type, and the cells must be in extensive physical contact. Paracrine Communication is when communication between cells involve the release and receipt of chemical messages within a single tissue. Autocrine communication occurs when the messages affect the same cells that secrete them, and the chemicals involved are autocrines. (ei prostaglandins secreted by smooth muscle cells to cause contraction of those cells.) Endocrine Communication occurs when the endocrine system uses chemical messengers called hormones to relay information and instructions between cells in distant portions of the body. endocrine cells release these hormones in one tissue, and they are then transported in the bloodstream and distributed throughout the body to their target cells.

Question 34

Identify the major organs/tissues of the endocrine system

Answer 34

Hypothalamus Pituitary Gland Thyroid gland Adrenal glands Pancreas (Pancreatic Islets) Pineal gland Parathyroid Glands

Question 35

Identify the 3 classes of hormones

Answer 35

Amino acid derivatives (biogenic amines) Peptide hormones - glycoproteins, and short polypeptides and small proteins. Lipid derivatives - eicosanoids and steroid hormones

Question 36

Describe and understand the mechanisms of hormone action (extracellular receptors and intracellular receptors [steroid and thyroid hormones])

Answer 36

Amino acid derivatives and peptide hormones are hydrophilic and use second messengers with extracellular receptors. Lipid derivatives are hydrophobic and has intercellular receptors for gene activation.

Question 37

Understand the mechanisms of down-regulation and up-regulation

Answer 37

Down-regulation is a process in which the presence of a hormone triggers a decrease in the number of hormone receptors Up-regulation is a process in which the absence of a hormone triggers an increase in the number of hormone receptors.

Question 38

Describe and understand the three ways endocrine reflexes can be triggered, provide examples for each.

Answer 38

Humoral stimuli is the changes in the composition of the extracellular fluid. Example is pancrease when the blood glucose levels are increased or decreased the pancreatic islets secrete insulin or glucagon respectively. Hormonal stimuli is the arrival or removal of a specific hormone. Example growth hormone causing cells to respond and allow the child to grow. Neural stimuli is the arrival of neurotransmitter. Example is the hypothalamus and the release of hormones secretion of neural excretion since it provides the highest level of endocrine control.

Question 39

Discuss the difference between simple and complex endocrine reflexes

Answer 39

Simple endocrine reflexes involve only one hormone. The regulation of blood calcium by parathyroid hormone and the regulation of blood glucose by insulin are two examples of simple endocrine reflexes. Complex endocrine reflexes involves two or more hormones and has intermediate steps to regulation. In complex endocrine reflexes one organ typically releases hormones that control the release of additional hormones from another part of the body. Example: the hypothalamus (releasing hormone) and pituitary gland (TSH) to the thyroid (T4 and T3).

Question 40

Discuss the three mechanisms of hypothalamus control of endocrine functions

Answer 40

The three mechanisms of hypothalamic integration of neural and endocrine function are (1) The hypothalamus itself acts as an endocrine organ: secretion of antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin, (2) secretion of regulatory hormones that control activity of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, and (3) neural (sympathetic) control over the endocrine cells for the adrenal medullae.

Question 41

Describe the major parts and regions of the pituitary gland

Answer 41

Anterior lobe: pas tuberalis ( the largest and most anterior portion of the pituitary gland), pars distalis (which wraps around that adjacent portion of the infundibulum) and pars intermedia (a narrow band bordering the posterior lobe). They receive RH or IH from the hypothalamus to release the hormone it needs to release. posterior lobe (neurohypophysis) contains axons of the hypothalamic neurons.

Question 42

Describe the function and importance of the hypophyseal portal system.

Answer 42

This is a capillary network where the hypothalmic hormones can enter the portal vessel travel downstream directly to the anterior pituitary gland with out it being diluted by being sent through the entire circulatory system before ending back at the pituitary gland.

Question 43

Discuss and understand the general pattern of hypothalamic control of the anterior lobe (IH’s and RH’s)

Answer 43

These are regulatory hormones. A releasing hormone (RH) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of one or more hormones at the anterior lobe. Where the inhibiting hormone (IH) prevents the synthesis and secretion of hormones from the anterior lobe. These RH, IH or a combination of the two control the endocrine cells in the anterior lobe.

Question 44

Identify the hormones produced and secreted by the anterior lobe, along with their target organ, effects, and any hypothalamic control.

Answer 44

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) Adrenocroticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Gonadotropins: Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH) Prolactin (PRL) Growth Hormone (GH) Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

Question 45

Identify the hormones secreted from the posterior lobe, along with their target organ, effects, and location in hypothalamus where produced.

Answer 45

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) Oxytocin (OXT)

Question 46

Describe the structure and location of the thyroid gland

Answer 46

Butterfly shape, with two lobs and the isthmus in the middle. Contains large numbers of thyroid follicles, which are hollow spheres lined by a simple cuboidal epithelium. This is located on the anterior surface of the trachea just inferior to the thyroid cartilage, which forms most of the anterior surface of the larynx.

Question 47

Identify the hormones of the thyroid gland, along with their target organ/tissue/cells, effects, and regulatory control.

Answer 47

T4 - thyroxine T3 - triiodothyronine

Question 48

Describe the structure and location of the parathyroid glands

Answer 48

The parathyroid is four jelly beans on the posterior side of the thyroid.

Question 49

Identify the hormone of the parathyroid gland, along with its target organ/tissue/cells, effects, and regulatory control.

Answer 49

Parathyroid hormone - PTH

Question 50

Describe the structure and location of the suprarenal glands (Adrenal Glands)

Answer 50

Sits on the superior border of each kidney. Each lies near the level of the 12th rib. Surrounded by the adrenal capsule. Next lies the Adrenal cortex which has 3 layers. Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis. Within the cortex is the Adrenal medulla

Question 51

Identify the hormones of the suprarenal glands, along with their target organ/tissue/cells, effects, and regulatory control

Answer 51

Mineralcorticoids (Aldosterone) Glucocorticoids (cortisol, hydrocortisone, corticosterone) Androgens (small amounts of hormone after puberty)

Question 52

Describe the location of the pineal gland.

Answer 52

Pineal gland is the main part of the epithalamus, which lies in the posterior portion of the roof of the third ventricle.

Question 53

Identify the hormone of the pineal gland, along with its target organ/tissue/cells and effects.

Answer 53

Melatonin

Question 54

Describe the location and structure of the pancreas

Answer 54

The Pancreas is a large gland located within the first fold of the small intestine (duodenum), close to the stomach. As an exocrine organ, it secretes digestive enzymes into the duodenum. Embedded in the pancreas are endocrine cells that secrete two hormones. The endocrine clusters are known as pancreatic islets (only about 1% of the pancreas)

Question 55

Identify the hormones of the pancreas, along with their target organ/tissue/cells, effects, and regulatory control.

Answer 55

Glucagon Insulin

Question 56

Describe functions of the hormones produced by the kidneys, heart, thymus, gonads, and adipose tissue.

Answer 56

kidneys - Erythropoietin (EPO) and Calcitriol heart - Natruretic peptirdes (ANP and BNP) thymus - Thymosins gonads - Testes: androgens (interstitial endocrine cells) and inhibin (nurse cells); ovaries: estrogens and inhibin (follicular cells) and progesterone (corpus luteum) adipose tissue - Leptin

Question 57

Discuss and understand the renin-angiotensin system for regulating blood pressure and blood volume.

Answer 57

RAAS

Question 58

Describe how hormones interact to coordinate physiological responses

Answer 58

-Two hormones arrive that have synergistic (additive) effects, adding together to get a greater than normal effect. -The two hormones cancel each other out. -One hormone arrives at the receptor and cannot work without the other being present, having a normal effect. -The hormones integrate, producing different, but complementary effects on tissue.

Question 59

Identify the hormones needed for normal growth

Answer 59

GH, thyroid hormones, insulin, PTH, calcitriol, and reproductive hormones

Question 60

Describe and understand hormonal responses to stress (GAS)

Answer 60

Alarm phase - is an immediate response to the stress occurs. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system directs this response. Epinephrine and norepinephrine. Resistance phase - if stress lasts longer than a few hours. Growth hormone, glucagon, acth, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids (with ADH), and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Exhaustion phase - The body's lipid reserves are sufficient to maintain the resistance phase for weeks or even months. collapse of vital systems.

Question 61

Discuss how hormones can effect behavior

Answer 61

Hormones circulate and levels can cause behavioral changes. Like precocious (premature) puberty, sex hormones are produced can be attributed to hormones or peer pressure.

Question 62

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 62

Abbr. - TSH Target - Thyroid gland Function - secretion of thyroid hormones Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus: thyrotropin-releasing hormone

Question 63

Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 63

Abbr. - ACTH Target - adrenal cortex (zona fasciculata) Function - secretion of glucocorticoids (cortisol, corticosterone, and cortisone) Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus.

Question 64

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (gonadotropin) (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 64

Abbr. - FSH Target - follicle cells of ovaries; nurse cells of testes Function - secretion of estrogen, follicle development; stimulation of sperm maturation Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus.

Question 65

Luteinizing Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 65

Abbr. - LH Target - follicle cells of ovaries; interstitial endocrine cells of testes Function - Ovulation, formation of corpus luteum, secretion of progesterone; secretion of testerone Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus.

Question 66

Prolactin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 66

Abbr. - PRL Target - Mammary glands Function - Production of milk Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus: prolactin-releasing factor (PRF) and Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

Question 67

Growth Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 67

Abbr. - GH Target - All cells Function - growth, protein synthesis, lipid mobilization and catabolism Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus: Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GH-RH); Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GH-IH)

Question 68

Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 68

Abbr. - MSH Target - melanocytes Function - increased melanin synthesis in epidermis Regulation - hormonal regulation from the hypothalamus: melanocyte-stimulating hormone-inhibiting hormone (MSH-IH)

Question 69

Antidiuretic Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 69

Abbr. - ADH Target - Kidneys Function - reabsorption of water, elevation of blood volume and pressure Regulation - none; transported along axons from supra-optic nucleus to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Question 70

Oxytocin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 70

Abbr. - OXT Target - uterus, mammary glands (females); ductus deferens and prostate gland (males) Function - labor contrations, milk ejection (females); contraction of ductus deferens and prostate gland (males) Regulation - none; transported along axons from paraventricular nucleus to the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Question 71

Thyroxine/Triiodothryine (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 71

Abbr. - T4 and T3 Target - most cells Function - increases energy utilization, oxygen consumption, growth, and development. Regulation - stimulated by TSH from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Question 72

Calcitonin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 72

Abbr. - CT Target - Kidneys, digestive tract Function - increased excretion of calcium by kidneys; decreased calcitriol production by kidneys decreases Ca2+ absorption by digestive tract Regulation - decreased blood calcium levels

Question 73

Parathyroid Hormone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 73

Abbr. - PTH Target - Kidneys, bone, digestive tract Function - increased reabsorption of calcium by kidneys; calcium release from bone; increased calcitriol production by kidneys causes Ca2+ absorption by digestive tract. Regulation - Stimulated by low blood Ca2+ levels; PTH effects enhanced by calcitriol and opposed by calcitonin

Question 74

Mineralcorticoids (Aldosterone) (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 74

Zona glomerulosa Abbr. - Target - Kidneys Function - increase renal reabsorption of Na+ and water (especially in the presence of ADH), and accelerate urinary loss of K+ Regulation - stimulated by angiotensin II, elevated blood K+ or fall in blood Na+; inhibited by ANP and BNP

Question 75

Glucocorticoids (cortisol, hydrocortisone, corticosterone) (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 75

Zona fasciculata Abbr. - Target - most cells Function - increase rates of glucose and glycogen formation by the liver; release of amino acids from skeletal muscles and lipids from adipose tissues; promote peripheral utilization of lipids; anti-inflammatory effects Regulation - stimulated by ACTH from theanterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Question 76

Epinephrine/Noepinephrine (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 76

Adrenal medulla Abbr. - E/NE Target - Most cells Function - increases cardiac activity, blood pressure, glycogen breakdown, blood glugcose levels; releases lipids by adipose tissue Regulation - stimulated by sympathetic preganglionic fibers

Question 77

Melatonin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 77

Abbr. - Target - pituitary gland, gonads Function - sleep/wake cycle Regulation - sound, light stimulus.

Question 78

Insulin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 78

Abbr. - Target - most cells Function - facilitates uptake of glucose by target cells; stimulates formation and storage of lipids and glycogen Regulation -stimulated by high blood glucose concentrations, parasympathetic stimulation, and high levels of some amino acids; inhibited by GH-IH from delta cells and by sympathetic activation

Question 79

Glucagon (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 79

Abbr. - Target - liver, adipose tissue Function - mobilizes lipid reserves; promotes glucose synthesis and glycogen breakdown in liver; elevates blood glucose concentration Regulation - stimulated by low blood glucose concentrations; inhibited by GH-IH from delta cells

Question 80

Calcitrol (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 80

Abbr. - Target - intestingal lining, bone, kidneys Function - stimulates calcium and phosphate absortion; stimulates Ca2+ release from bone; inhibits PTH secretion Regulation - increased levels of Ca2+ in the blood

Question 81

Erythropoietin (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 81

Abbr. - EPO Target - red bone marrow Function - stimulates red blood cell production Regulation - increased red blood cell volume and increase in blood pressure and blood volume

Question 82

Renin/Angiotensin I+II (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 82

Abbr. - Target - Function - Regulation -

Question 83

Natriuretic Peptides (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 83

Abbr. - ANP and BNP Target - kidneys, hypothalamus, adrenal gland Function - increase water and salt loss at kidneys' decrease thirst; suppress secretion of ADH and aldosterone Regulation -

Question 84

Thymosins (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 84

Abbr. - many Target - lympocytes and other cells of the immune response Function - coordinate and regulate immune response Regulation -

Question 85

Androgens (testerone) (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 85

Abbr. - Target - most cells Function - supprt functional maturation of sper, protein synthesis in skeletal muscles, male secondary sex characteristics, and associated behaviors Regulation - stimulated by LH from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

Question 86

Estrogens/Progestrone (Abbr, Target, Function, Regulation)

Answer 86

Abbr. - Target - most cells Function - support follicle maturation, female secondary sex characteristics, and associated behaviors. Regulation - stimulated by FSH and LF from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland