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Paramedic Class 27 > 2206 Exam > Flashcards

2206 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Prolongs the repolarization and blocks the potassium out of the cells - controls ventricles (vFib/Vtach)

A

Amiodarone

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2
Q

Calcium channel blockers. Blocks calcium from going in (AV node) and out of the cell (SA node). Afib/Aflutter

A

“zem” drugs

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3
Q

Calcium channel blockers that work on the AV node:

A

Cardizem, diltiazem

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4
Q

Blocks sodium in and out of the cell (Fib/Vtach) Controls the ventricles.

A

Lidocaine

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5
Q

Drug that resets the ventricles (ex. torsades)

A

Magnisium Sulfate

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6
Q

Class III potassium channel blocker (for Vfib Vtach)

A

Amiodarone

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7
Q

Class IB sodium channel blocker (for VF/VT)

A

lidocaine.

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8
Q

Calcium channel blocker helps to reset this rhythm:

A

afib/aflutter.

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9
Q

Routes of administration of drugs from fastest to slowest:

A

IV - IM - PO

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10
Q

The only drug carried that requires mixing and is carried as a kit

A

glucagon.

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11
Q

1g = ?mg

A

1000

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12
Q

1mg = ?mcg

A

1000

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13
Q

1 grain = ?mg

A

60 (apothecary system)

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14
Q

15 grains = ?

A

1g

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15
Q

Take an EMS run and decide the best medication and how to ???

A

document it.

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16
Q

If a change is needed in a medication documentation, what should you do?

A

notate the change needed and add initial and date next to it.

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17
Q

Route of administration for glucagon (hypoglycemia)

A

IM

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18
Q

route of administration for Glucose

A

PO

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19
Q

This drug is given for low BP related to shock; vasopressor. Found naturally in the body.

A

dopamine

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20
Q

This drug is given for low BP related to shock; is a vasopressor, but this is a synthetic sympathetic agonist

A

Dobutamine

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21
Q

Sympathetic or parasympathetic? Feeds the immune system, secretion in digestive gland, more fluids to reproductive organs.

A

Parasympathetic.

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22
Q

Symptoms that are associated with the parasympathetic system?

A

(SLUDGE) Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, Emesis, and Muscle Twitching/Miosis (pupillary constriction.

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23
Q

If a patient has SLUDGE, what drug do you administer?

A

Atropine

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24
Q

Needs narcan and may need more than one dose

A

Narcotic/Opioid OD.

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25
Q

Generic name for Atrovent

A

Ipratropium bromide

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26
Q

this drug relaxes the muscles around the airways

A

Atrovent

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27
Q

Ace inhibitor drugs:

A

prils

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28
Q

Calcium channel blocker drugs

A

Zems

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29
Q

Beta Blocker drugs

A

olols

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30
Q

If on-line medical direction orders a drug you know is wrong, you???

A

don’t give it.

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31
Q

Generic name for Alupent

A

Metaproterenol

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32
Q

What is Metaproterenol/Alupent used for?

A

For asthma as a potent bronchodilator; breathing difficulty

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33
Q

Aspirin dose

A

324mg

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34
Q

Narcan dose

A

up to 2mg IV or IN

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35
Q

Albuterol Dose

A

2.5mg in 3ml of NS

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36
Q

Nitro dose

A

.4mg sublingual q 5 min up to three doses.

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37
Q

Answer to number 16 on the test?

A

B or esmolol

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38
Q

Most of our drugs are eliminated/released through ???

A

kidneys/urine

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39
Q

Letter classification in newly released drug will tell its ???

A

treatment potential (number = potential for abuse)

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40
Q

How is adenosine administered?

A

Rapid IV push

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41
Q

Older people have a harder time responding to drug drive due to

A

liver and kidneys/renal system

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42
Q

This drug comes in a dark brown glass to protect it from UV rays:

A

Nitro

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43
Q

What is Meperidine?

A

type of opioid narcotic. causes respiratory depression, bradycardia.

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44
Q

Fluid bolus for adults

A

20ml/kg

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45
Q

Fluid bolus for pedi

A

10ml/kg

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46
Q

How much longer does a drug down the ET tube take compared to a drug administered IV?

A

2-2.5 times longer.

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47
Q

What is a medication combined with alcohol and water solvent?

A

Elixir

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48
Q

Answer to question 26; in the apothecary system, 1 grain = ?

A

60mg

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49
Q

How does Cardizem work?

A

calcium channel blocker that works of the AV node

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50
Q

What is the number one side effect of albuterol?

A

tachycardia

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51
Q

What to give for hydrogen cyanide poisoning?

A

Amyl nitrate

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52
Q

How to amyl nitrate work?

A

binds to hemoglobin and prevents cyanide from bonding, but does not reduce the effects.

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53
Q

How is sodium thiosulfate different from amyl nitrate is how it works agains hydrogen cyanide poisoning?

A

Sodium thiosulfate Converts cyanide and breaks it down to be excreted by the kidneys. Amyl nitrate blocks cyanide from bonding but does nothing to eliminate it.

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54
Q

Answer to question 29

A

Sodium Thiosulfate

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55
Q

Question 30: Opioids have physiological effect; the physical effect binds to pain receptors and suppresses the CNS which depresses everything including respiratory drive causing:

A

bradycardia and hypoxia

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56
Q

Morphine is an ??? that works with opioid receptors to decrease the CNS.

A

agonist

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57
Q

What does atropine do and when do you use it?

A

Bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning (from chemicals/pesticides)

58
Q

What does organophosphate poisoning cause?

A

SLUDGE or increased secretions.

59
Q

This is the term to describe when something decreases the effects the more times it it given

A

Tacheyphylaxis

60
Q

Benzo OD side effects

A

causes everything to slow down/depress.

61
Q

Amphetamine OD side effects

A

causes everything to speed up.

62
Q

Opioid OD side effects

A

Slows things down/depress

63
Q

Barbiturate OD side effects

A

Slow things down/depress

64
Q

This contains opioids/alcohol, ex cough syrups with codeine.

A

Cough suppressants

65
Q

Vasodilators or smooth muscle relaxer (cannot use with nitro)

A

Cildenafil/viagra

66
Q

7 - Slows heart rate down, blocks the influx of calcium.

67
Q

When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the effects of the drugs individually

A

synergism effect

68
Q

_____ Law, Stretch law, pipe law. Ex. Nitro will decrease preload if heart is not stretching and beating as much decreasing 02 demand.

A

Starling’s law

69
Q

Side effects of Morphine

A

respiratory depression and bradycardia

70
Q

If a patient takes valium all the time and a paramedic needs to administer Valium, they would have to increase the dosage due to ____.

A

Cross tolerance.

71
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Sodium channel blockers

72
Q

Class I sodium channel blocker drug, IB

73
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Beta blockers

74
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Potassium channel blockers (Amiodarone)

75
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Calcium channel blockers (Cardizem)

76
Q

Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: miscellaneous (adenosine)

77
Q

____ is an antagonist to opioid receptors.

78
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system responsible for ___.

A

Vasoconstriction

79
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: When BP falls, ____ is released from the adrenal glands

A

epinephrine

80
Q

Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: If Epinephrine does not work to maintain BP, then ____ is released.

A

Angiotensin 1

81
Q

_____: from the kidneys and mixes with rennin to get angiotensin 2.

A

angiotensin 1

82
Q

angiotensin 2 causes

A

vasoconstriction

83
Q

_____: is a “renin blocker”/angiotensin 1 blocker keeps BP down and keeps angiotensin 1 from converting to angiotensin 2.

A

ACE inhibitor.

84
Q

Brand name is the same as ____.

A

trade name

85
Q

Flonase is an example of what kind of drug?

86
Q

This drug is a diuretic that decreases pressure.

A

Furosemide (lassie)

87
Q

These drugs depress/slow the CNS

A

Benzos and barbiturates.

88
Q

_____ means what’s an effective dose vs lethal dose.

A

Therapeutic index

89
Q

The wider the therapeutic index, the ____ the drug

90
Q

What does NSAID stand for?

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

91
Q

What do NSAIDS do?

A

antipyretic, fever reducer.
anti-inflammatory

92
Q

____ time is the time the drug starts to work.

A

Onset time

93
Q

______ (sedatives) are safer than barbiturates (tranquilizer)

A

Benzodiazepines

94
Q

Why are Benzodiazepines safer than barbiturates?

A

milder in their effects.

95
Q

How are drugs made?

A

lab, synthetically, from plants/animals.

96
Q

How many classifications of controlled drugs are there?

A
  1. I, II, III, IV, and V.
97
Q

What is a schedule I drug?

A

Drug that has been determined to have no medical benefit; is illegal. Illicit drugs. Ex. Heroin, LSD, Mescaline.

98
Q

What is a schedule II drug?

A

Drugs that have been determined to have medical benefit but are extremely addictive and have a very high likelihood for abuse. Opiates Ex. Opium, Cocaine, Morphine, Oxycodone.

99
Q

What is a schedule III drug?

A

Limited opioid mixed with non controlled substances. Ex. Tylenol 3 (codeine with acetaminophen)

100
Q

What is a schedule IV drug?

A

Benzodiazepines: Ex. diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital.

101
Q

What is a schedule V drug?

A

Limited amounts of opioids, often used for cough or diarrhea.

102
Q

What drug has the shortest life?

103
Q

NSAID OD or taking too much for too long can cause ____.

A

Peptic ulcers. PUD.

104
Q

The study of how drugs are transported into and out of the body:

A

Pharmacokinetics

105
Q

What is a gelatin container called?

106
Q

Digitalis is not a safe drug because is has a very narrow ____.

A

therapeutic index.

107
Q

How is SLUDGE treated?

A

high doses of atropine or protopam.

108
Q

EPI: Alpha, Beta.

A

Alpha constricts. Beta dilates. 1-2 is heart to lungs.

109
Q

____ will affect pregnant women by development of the fetus.

A

Teratogenic.

110
Q

Analgesic?

A

relieve the sensation of pain.

111
Q

Anesthetic?

A

Absence of all sensation (blocks pain)

112
Q

If the drug ends in ___, it blocks angiotensin 1 form moving to angiotensin 2

113
Q

Drugs that end in “prill” are ____

A

ace inhibitors.

114
Q

What effects do “olol” drugs have on the heart?

115
Q

Chronotropic refers to ___

A

heart rate

116
Q

Side effects of atropine:

A

blurred vision, dry mouth, palpitations, and light sensitivity.

117
Q

Of illicit drugs, ____ causes the least amount of prehospital care.

118
Q

Vomiting increases the risk of ____.

A

Aspiration

119
Q

What is the antidote for tricyclic antidepressants?

A

sodium bicarb.

120
Q

The biggest risk of an OD on Tylenol is:

A

Hepatic necrosis (liver failure) 6-8 hours after OD.

121
Q

Why do you give aspirin?

A

Make the platelets less sticky (inhibits aggregation)

122
Q

For Amphetamine OD, what is the order of operations for vitals going up?

A

first HR, then BP

123
Q

According to Starlings law, what happens when you give nitro?

A

Everything is decreased.
Vasodilation occurs, not as much pressure is coming into the heart
The volume is preload and thus will decrease.
Preload decrease leads to decreased stroke volume.
Decreased work of the heart leads to not needing as much oxygen.

124
Q

Alpha 2 causes

A

Presynaptic terminal inhibition.

125
Q

alpha 1 effects cause:

A

vasoconstriction

126
Q

beta 1 increases

127
Q

Beta 2 causes

A

bronchodilation

128
Q

What is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body?

A

Angiotensin 2

129
Q

What is a gelatin container usually called when it is used to administer a medicine?

130
Q

Drugs that end in ____ are negative chronotropic

131
Q

Alcohol increases likelihood of ___ and _____

A

aspiration and respiratory depression

132
Q

______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.

133
Q

______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.

134
Q

What is an important factor in drug storage?

A

temperature

135
Q

Chemical composition and molecular structure

A

Chemical name

136
Q

This name is suggested by manufacturer

A

generic name

137
Q

This name is listed in the United States pharmacopeia

A

official name

138
Q

Manufacturer gives drug name, always capitalized.

A

Brand name

139
Q

The study of drugs and there interaction in the body

A

Pharmacology

140
Q

Movement of solute in solution

141
Q

Movement of solvent from high to low

Paramedic Class 27 (11 decks)

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