2206 Exam Flashcards
1
Q
Prolongs the repolarization and blocks the potassium out of the cells - controls ventricles (vFib/Vtach)
A
Amiodarone
2
Q
Calcium channel blockers. Blocks calcium from going in (AV node) and out of the cell (SA node). Afib/Aflutter
A
“zem” drugs
3
Q
Calcium channel blockers that work on the AV node:
A
Cardizem, diltiazem
4
Q
Blocks sodium in and out of the cell (Fib/Vtach) Controls the ventricles.
A
Lidocaine
5
Q
Drug that resets the ventricles (ex. torsades)
A
Magnisium Sulfate
6
Q
Class III potassium channel blocker (for Vfib Vtach)
A
Amiodarone
7
Q
Class IB sodium channel blocker (for VF/VT)
A
lidocaine.
8
Q
Calcium channel blocker helps to reset this rhythm:
A
afib/aflutter.
9
Q
Routes of administration of drugs from fastest to slowest:
A
IV - IM - PO
10
Q
The only drug carried that requires mixing and is carried as a kit
A
glucagon.
11
Q
1g = ?mg
A
1000
12
Q
1mg = ?mcg
A
1000
13
Q
1 grain = ?mg
A
60 (apothecary system)
14
Q
15 grains = ?
A
1g
15
Q
Take an EMS run and decide the best medication and how to ???
A
document it.
16
Q
If a change is needed in a medication documentation, what should you do?
A
notate the change needed and add initial and date next to it.
17
Q
Route of administration for glucagon (hypoglycemia)
A
IM
18
Q
route of administration for Glucose
A
PO
19
Q
This drug is given for low BP related to shock; vasopressor. Found naturally in the body.
A
dopamine
20
Q
This drug is given for low BP related to shock; is a vasopressor, but this is a synthetic sympathetic agonist
A
Dobutamine
21
Q
Sympathetic or parasympathetic? Feeds the immune system, secretion in digestive gland, more fluids to reproductive organs.
A
Parasympathetic.
22
Q
Symptoms that are associated with the parasympathetic system?
A
(SLUDGE) Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, GI upset, Emesis, and Muscle Twitching/Miosis (pupillary constriction.
23
Q
If a patient has SLUDGE, what drug do you administer?
A
Atropine
24
Q
Needs narcan and may need more than one dose
A
Narcotic/Opioid OD.
25
Generic name for Atrovent
Ipratropium bromide
26
this drug relaxes the muscles around the airways
Atrovent
27
Ace inhibitor drugs:
prils
28
Calcium channel blocker drugs
Zems
29
Beta Blocker drugs
olols
30
If on-line medical direction orders a drug you know is wrong, you???
don't give it.
31
Generic name for Alupent
Metaproterenol
32
What is Metaproterenol/Alupent used for?
For asthma as a potent bronchodilator; breathing difficulty
33
Aspirin dose
324mg
34
Narcan dose
up to 2mg IV or IN
35
Albuterol Dose
2.5mg in 3ml of NS
36
Nitro dose
.4mg sublingual q 5 min up to three doses.
37
Answer to number 16 on the test?
B or esmolol
38
Most of our drugs are eliminated/released through ???
kidneys/urine
39
Letter classification in newly released drug will tell its ???
treatment potential (number = potential for abuse)
40
How is adenosine administered?
Rapid IV push
41
Older people have a harder time responding to drug drive due to
liver and kidneys/renal system
42
This drug comes in a dark brown glass to protect it from UV rays:
Nitro
43
What is Meperidine?
type of opioid narcotic. causes respiratory depression, bradycardia.
44
Fluid bolus for adults
20ml/kg
45
Fluid bolus for pedi
10ml/kg
46
How much longer does a drug down the ET tube take compared to a drug administered IV?
2-2.5 times longer.
47
What is a medication combined with alcohol and water solvent?
Elixir
48
Answer to question 26; in the apothecary system, 1 grain = ?
60mg
49
How does Cardizem work?
calcium channel blocker that works of the AV node
50
What is the number one side effect of albuterol?
tachycardia
51
What to give for hydrogen cyanide poisoning?
Amyl nitrate
52
How to amyl nitrate work?
binds to hemoglobin and prevents cyanide from bonding, but does not reduce the effects.
53
How is sodium thiosulfate different from amyl nitrate is how it works agains hydrogen cyanide poisoning?
Sodium thiosulfate Converts cyanide and breaks it down to be excreted by the kidneys. Amyl nitrate blocks cyanide from bonding but does nothing to eliminate it.
54
Answer to question 29
Sodium Thiosulfate
55
Question 30: Opioids have physiological effect; the physical effect binds to pain receptors and suppresses the CNS which depresses everything including respiratory drive causing:
bradycardia and hypoxia
56
Morphine is an ??? that works with opioid receptors to decrease the CNS.
agonist
57
What does atropine do and when do you use it?
Bradycardia, organophosphate poisoning (from chemicals/pesticides)
58
What does organophosphate poisoning cause?
SLUDGE or increased secretions.
59
This is the term to describe when something decreases the effects the more times it it given
Tacheyphylaxis
60
Benzo OD side effects
causes everything to slow down/depress.
61
Amphetamine OD side effects
causes everything to speed up.
62
Opioid OD side effects
Slows things down/depress
63
Barbiturate OD side effects
Slow things down/depress
64
This contains opioids/alcohol, ex cough syrups with codeine.
Cough suppressants
65
Vasodilators or smooth muscle relaxer (cannot use with nitro)
Cildenafil/viagra
66
#7 - Slows heart rate down, blocks the influx of calcium.
Esmolol
67
When the combined effect of two drugs is greater than the effects of the drugs individually
synergism effect
68
_____ Law, Stretch law, pipe law. Ex. Nitro will decrease preload if heart is not stretching and beating as much decreasing 02 demand.
Starling's law
69
Side effects of Morphine
respiratory depression and bradycardia
70
If a patient takes valium all the time and a paramedic needs to administer Valium, they would have to increase the dosage due to ____.
Cross tolerance.
71
Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Sodium channel blockers
Class I
72
Class I sodium channel blocker drug, IB
lidocaine
73
Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Beta blockers
Class II
74
Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Potassium channel blockers (Amiodarone)
Class III
75
Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: Calcium channel blockers (Cardizem)
Class IV
76
Von Williams classification of dysrhythmias: miscellaneous (adenosine)
Class V
77
____ is an antagonist to opioid receptors.
Narcan
78
Renin angiotensin aldosterone system responsible for ___.
Vasoconstriction
79
Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: When BP falls, ____ is released from the adrenal glands
epinephrine
80
Renin angiotensin aldosterone system: If Epinephrine does not work to maintain BP, then ____ is released.
Angiotensin 1
81
_____: from the kidneys and mixes with rennin to get angiotensin 2.
angiotensin 1
82
angiotensin 2 causes
vasoconstriction
83
_____: is a "renin blocker"/angiotensin 1 blocker keeps BP down and keeps angiotensin 1 from converting to angiotensin 2.
ACE inhibitor.
84
Brand name is the same as ____.
trade name
85
Flonase is an example of what kind of drug?
OTC
86
This drug is a diuretic that decreases pressure.
Furosemide (lassie)
87
These drugs depress/slow the CNS
Benzos and barbiturates.
88
_____ means what's an effective dose vs lethal dose.
Therapeutic index
89
The wider the therapeutic index, the ____ the drug
safer.
90
What does NSAID stand for?
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
91
What do NSAIDS do?
antipyretic, fever reducer.
anti-inflammatory
92
____ time is the time the drug starts to work.
Onset time
93
______ (sedatives) are safer than barbiturates (tranquilizer)
Benzodiazepines
94
Why are Benzodiazepines safer than barbiturates?
milder in their effects.
95
How are drugs made?
lab, synthetically, from plants/animals.
96
How many classifications of controlled drugs are there?
5. I, II, III, IV, and V.
97
What is a schedule I drug?
Drug that has been determined to have no medical benefit; is illegal. Illicit drugs. Ex. Heroin, LSD, Mescaline.
98
What is a schedule II drug?
Drugs that have been determined to have medical benefit but are extremely addictive and have a very high likelihood for abuse. Opiates Ex. Opium, Cocaine, Morphine, Oxycodone.
99
What is a schedule III drug?
Limited opioid mixed with non controlled substances. Ex. Tylenol 3 (codeine with acetaminophen)
100
What is a schedule IV drug?
Benzodiazepines: Ex. diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital.
101
What is a schedule V drug?
Limited amounts of opioids, often used for cough or diarrhea.
102
What drug has the shortest life?
Adenosine
103
NSAID OD or taking too much for too long can cause ____.
Peptic ulcers. PUD.
104
The study of how drugs are transported into and out of the body:
Pharmacokinetics
105
What is a gelatin container called?
Capsules.
106
Digitalis is not a safe drug because is has a very narrow ____.
therapeutic index.
107
How is SLUDGE treated?
high doses of atropine or protopam.
108
EPI: Alpha, Beta.
Alpha constricts. Beta dilates. 1-2 is heart to lungs.
109
____ will affect pregnant women by development of the fetus.
Teratogenic.
110
Analgesic?
relieve the sensation of pain.
111
Anesthetic?
Absence of all sensation (blocks pain)
112
If the drug ends in ___, it blocks angiotensin 1 form moving to angiotensin 2
prill
113
Drugs that end in "prill" are ____
ace inhibitors.
114
What effects do "olol" drugs have on the heart?
slow HR.
115
Chronotropic refers to ___
heart rate
116
Side effects of atropine:
blurred vision, dry mouth, palpitations, and light sensitivity.
117
Of illicit drugs, ____ causes the least amount of prehospital care.
marijauna
118
Vomiting increases the risk of ____.
Aspiration
119
What is the antidote for tricyclic antidepressants?
sodium bicarb.
120
The biggest risk of an OD on Tylenol is:
Hepatic necrosis (liver failure) 6-8 hours after OD.
121
Why do you give aspirin?
Make the platelets less sticky (inhibits aggregation)
122
For Amphetamine OD, what is the order of operations for vitals going up?
first HR, then BP
123
According to Starlings law, what happens when you give nitro?
Everything is decreased.
Vasodilation occurs, not as much pressure is coming into the heart
The volume is preload and thus will decrease.
Preload decrease leads to decreased stroke volume.
Decreased work of the heart leads to not needing as much oxygen.
124
Alpha 2 causes
Presynaptic terminal inhibition.
125
alpha 1 effects cause:
vasoconstriction
126
beta 1 increases
HR
127
Beta 2 causes
bronchodilation
128
What is the most potent vasoconstrictor in the body?
Angiotensin 2
129
What is a gelatin container usually called when it is used to administer a medicine?
Capsule
130
Drugs that end in ____ are negative chronotropic
olol
131
Alcohol increases likelihood of ___ and _____
aspiration and respiratory depression
132
______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.
SSRI
133
______: antidepressant that slows the HR down and the respiratory drive down.
SSRIs
134
What is an important factor in drug storage?
temperature
135
Chemical composition and molecular structure
Chemical name
136
This name is suggested by manufacturer
generic name
137
This name is listed in the United States pharmacopeia
official name
138
Manufacturer gives drug name, always capitalized.
Brand name
139
The study of drugs and there interaction in the body
Pharmacology
140
Movement of solute in solution
diffusion
141
Movement of solvent from high to low
osmosis
