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*** OCCUPATIONAL REFERENCES - SEPT 2014 *** > ***2019*** BUMEDINST 6440.5c HSAP > Flashcards

***2019*** BUMEDINST 6440.5c HSAP Flashcards

1
Q

What instruction is Health Service Augmentation Program (HSAP)?

A

BUMEDINST 6440.5C

Jar Rash.hive-c

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2
Q

Who validates, approves, and maintains a current account of Budget Submitting Office (BSO) 18 Augmentation requirements reflected in the Navy’s official manpower data system?

A

BUMED

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3
Q

BUMED will task what level echelon commander for execution of official Navy message taskers from higher authority (CNO)?

A

3

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4
Q

Who will BUMED provide input regarding augmentation platform personnel fill rates/ training readiness and in which report?

A

Surgeon General of the Navy (N093), Joint Quarterly readiness report

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5
Q

Who provides recommendations for nominations for CO, XOs, and command master chiefs for Navy Medical Platforms?

A

BUMED

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6
Q

Who appoints in writing a CRO or POMI officer?

A

CO

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7
Q

Who appoints in writing an Operational Support Officer (OSO)?

A

CO

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8
Q

Who monitors the capability of sourcing commands to meet augmentation requirements, gender ratios, and training status via Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation and Training System?

A

Navy Medicine Regions (NAVMED East, West, National Capital area, and Navy medicine Support Command.

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9
Q

Who conducts quaterly readiness reviews using EMPARTS or the Navy’s official manpower data system to verify HSAP compliance?

A

Navy Medicine Regions

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10
Q

Who establishes DSC and develops policy and procedures manual for implementation of the DSC and execution of the HSAP?

A

CRO

Command readiness officer

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11
Q

Deployable personnel will be notified by who and complete administrative requirement within how many working days of reporting?

A

CRO, 30 Days

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12
Q

Budgets/executes a plan to obtain clothing and equipment required to support augmentees and to coordinate readiness training?

A

CRO

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13
Q

Updates EMPARTS of the Navy’s official manpower data system to maintain readiness status of HSAP personnel?

A

CRO

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14
Q

Who will be ready to assume readiness officer of POMI officer functional responsibilities, including HSAP responsibilities for sourcing commands?

A

OSO

Operational support officer

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15
Q

Ensures that the deployment history for all Active Components personnel is entered into EMPARTS and Individual Personnel Tempo (ITEMPO) data system?

A

OSO

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16
Q

Who advises the CO regarding Reserve Issues?

A

OSO

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17
Q

Personnel who have a past deployment history will not deploy for a minimum of how many days following the end of their last deployment?

A

180 days or 6 months

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18
Q

Personnel will not deploy earlier than ____ months from their report date/PCS/separation/retirement?

A

6 months (may train 60 days out)

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19
Q

Who must commands get approval from to deploy personnel outside the normal restrictions?

A

Regional Commander

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20
Q

HSAP personnel are identified/prepared for deployment within how many days of reporting to command and by who?

A

30 days, CRO

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21
Q

Conducts entry and exit level interviews for staff personnel executing PCS orders?

A

CRO

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22
Q

What is the manning priority based on contingency support requirements?

A
  • Marine Forces MARFOR
  • Casualty Receiving and Tx. Ships (CRTS)
  • Forward Deployed PMU
  • Expeditionary Medical Facility (EMF)
  • Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)
  • Hospital Ship (T-AH)
  • OCONUS MTF
  • Blood Processing Unit
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23
Q

When does the CRO provide a Letter of Assignment to the Command?

A

10 days

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24
Q

What level health service support is the MARFOR and what manning levels at peace and wartime?

A

Level 2, 80 Percent peacetime

95 Percent wartime

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25
Q

What level Health Service Support is the CRTS and how many personnel are assigned to the platforms?

A

Level 2, 84 personnel

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26
Q

What level support are the Construction Battalion Units?

A

Level 1

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27
Q

Expeditionary Medical Facility is what level HSS and who designated the EMF CO’s?

A

Level 3 HSS, BUMED

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28
Q

Hospital Ships (T-AH) are what level HSS and the ships are owned by who?

A

Level 3, MSC

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29
Q

Who designates the Forward Deployed Preventive Medicine Unit OIC?

A

CO, Navy Environmental Health Center

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30
Q

Personnel will report to their gaining commands with what administrative items?

A

ID Tags, CAC, DD 2766 (Deployment medical record), Navpers 1070/604 (Enlisted qual. history), 1070/602W (Dep. application/record of emergency data worksheet), SGLI Certification, PHS 731, 1740/6 Family Care Cert

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31
Q

Routine Deployable?

A

Forward deployed crisis response forces that are mission capable and ready to deploy within 5 days.

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32
Q

Surge Ready?

A

Capable of mobilizing and deploying within 30 days

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33
Q

Emergency Surge?

A

Additional forces designated for further follow-on stages that are ready and capable of deploying within 120 days.

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34
Q

SORTS

A

Status of Resources and Training System

35
Q

C1

A

Capable of undertaking the FULL wartime mission it was organized and designed for.

36
Q

C2

A

The unit is capable of undertaking the BULK of its wartime mission. It is considered substantially combat ready with only minor deficiencies reported.

37
Q

C3

A

The unit is capable of undertaking a MAJOR PORTION of its wartime mission. Major deficiencies, it can still perform its assigned mission.

38
Q

C4

A

The unit is UNABLE to perform its wartime mission unless it is provided additional resources of training. If situation warrants, the unit may still be required to perform portions of its mission using its existing resources?

39
Q

C5

A

The unit is NOT ABLE to perform its wartime mission and is not mission capable. Routinely this status is assigned to ships in major overhauls, which cannot be deployed because of the need for substantial maintenance.

40
Q

T-AH that are routine deployable will be able to support how many bed configuration?

A

250 ~ Routine deployable, ready “within days”
500 ~ Surge ready, 30 days
1000 ~ Emergency Surge, 120 days

41
Q

EMF routine deployable will be able to support detachments with how many beds?

A

500 ~ Routine deployable, ready “within days”
500 ~ Surge ready, 30 days
500 ~ Emergency Surge, 120 days

42
Q

Who establishes a Deployment Support Center (DSC)?

A

The Command Readiness Officer (CRO)

43
Q

HSAP personnel are identified, notified and prepared within how many days of reporting to the command?

44
Q

Who advises and supports the commanding officer regarding Reserve issues in the event of implementation of the HSAP?

A

The Operational Support Officer (OSO)

45
Q

Who is responsible for being familiar with the policies and procedures governing the HSAP, DSC and local readiness programs?

A

The Operational Support Officer (OSO)

46
Q

Within how many days must the CRO (Command Readiness Officer) provide a Letter of Assignment to all CUIC personnel reporting to the command?

47
Q

Who updates the Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation, Readiness and Training System (EMPARTS)?

48
Q

Which platform has the second priority in manning levels?

A

Casualty Receiving and Treatment Ships (CRTS)

49
Q

How many personnel are assigned to CRTS?

50
Q

Which platform has the third manning priority?

A

Forward Deployed Preventative Medicine (FDPMU)

51
Q

Who designates the Officer in Charge (OIC) for FDPMU?

A

The CO of the Navy Environmental Health Center

52
Q

Which platform has the fourth manning priority?

A

Expeditionary Medicine Facility

53
Q

Who designates the EMF CO’s?

54
Q

Which platform has the fifth manning priority?

A

Construction Battalion Unit (CBU)

55
Q

Which platform has the sixth manning priority?

A

Hospital Ships (TA-H)

56
Q

Which platform has the seventh manning priority?

A

Outside Continental United States (OCONUS) MTF

57
Q

Which platform has the last manning priority?

A

Blood Processing Unit

58
Q

Once the mission exceeds the capability of the organic Surgeon staff, who sources further augmentation?

A

Fleet Forces Command

59
Q

Who provides fiscal guidance on issues involving operational readiness and training?

60
Q

Who prescribes personal protective equipment (PPE) and individual protective equipment (IPE)?

A

The Combatant Commander

61
Q

Who is responsible for travel and TAD expenses?

A

The Combatant Commander

62
Q

Who validates the adequacy of medical training against Service standards?

A

Navy Medicine Support Command (NMSC)

63
Q

Who is responsible for promulgating individual and collective training for medical forces supporting the USMC?

A

The Marine Corps Training and Education Command (TECOM)

64
Q

When can personnel begin training?

A

60 days after first reporting

65
Q

If changes to the restrictions concerning deployment must be made, what must be done?

A

The command must seek approval from the Regional Commander

66
Q

If an individual’s projected rotation date (PRD) must be adjusted, who makes the adjustment?

A

Commander, Navy Personnel Command

67
Q

Who has the authority to implement a stop loss policy?

A

The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

68
Q

Who executes validated personnel requirements?

69
Q

What are the three categories of readiness?

A

Routine Deployable, Surge Ready and Emergency Surge

70
Q

Each category must be deployable within how many days?

A

Routine Deployable = 5 days
Surge Ready = 30 days
Emergency Surge = 120 days

71
Q

What are the SORTS categories in reporting operational readiness?

A

C1, C2, C3, C4, C5

72
Q

What does C-Status mean?

A

Classified

73
Q

How many augmentation teams are identified for large deck amphibious ships on CRTS augmentation teams?

74
Q

Under the Routine Deployable readiness category, how many EMF systems are maintained?

75
Q

How many Forward Deployed Preventative Medicine Unit (FDPMU) are maintained in each readiness category (i.e. Routine Deployable, Surge Ready, Emergency Surge)

76
Q

What programmed is used to access key personnel under volunteer recall?

A

The First Call Program

77
Q

When must First Call Program personnel report to their duty stations?

A

Within 72 hours

78
Q

What is the web-based automated information system used to track the readiness status of BSO-18 personnel?

A

Expeditionary Medicine Platform Augmentation, Readiness and Training System (EMPARTS)

79
Q

What code is used for the active duty component of BSO-18 officer and enlisted requirements for those placed in the HSAP, linked to operational platforms and mobilized upon activation of the operational unit?

A

Functional Area Code A (FAC-A)

80
Q

What measures the percentage of administrative items completed?

81
Q

What measures the percentage of operational billets?

82
Q

What measures the overall readiness status of a member based on their training status (T-Status) and platform billet assignment/fill rate in EMPARTS?

83
Q

What tracks and reports deployment days on individuals who are away from their home port or assigned unit?

A

Individual Personal Tempo (ITIEMPO)

*** OCCUPATIONAL REFERENCES - SEPT 2014 *** (32 decks)

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