[17] MIDTERMS | PROFILE OF THE NEWBORN Flashcards

1
Q

VITAL STATISTICS

Weight- Average birth weight:

A

2.5 to 3.5 kg (7.7 lbs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

VITAL STATISTICS

Length: The average birth length of a mature female neonate is ____. For male, is ____

A

Length: The average birth length of a mature female neonate is 49 cm (19.2 in). For male, is 50 cm (19.6 in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

VITAL STATISTICS

Head Circumference

A

34-35 cm (13.5-14 in)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

VITAL STATISTICS

Chest Circumference

A

About 2cm less than the head circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VITAL STATISTICS

Abdominal Circumference

A

Same as chest circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

VITAL SIGNS

Temperature

A

37.2 C at birth

Baby is bathed 6 hours after birth (Unang Yakap)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VITAL SIGNS

Pulse

A

Average of 120 to 140 bpm or as low as 90 to 110 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

VITAL SIGNS

Respiration

A

Average of 30-60 breaths per min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VITAL SIGNS

Blood Pressure

A

Approximately 80/46 mmHg at birth.
By the 10th day, it rises to about 100/50 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

  • The peripheral circulation of a newborn remains ____ for at least the first ____ hours after birth
  • Cyanosis in the NB’s feet & hands ( ____ )
  • Feet feel ____ to touch at this time
  • NB’s blood volume is ____ ml per kilogram of bodyweight, or about ____ in total.
A
  • The peripheral circulation of a newborn remains sluggish for at least the first 24 hours after birth
  • Cyanosis in the NB’s feet & hands (acrocyanosis)
  • Feet feel warm to touch at this time
  • NB’s blood volume is 80-110 ml per kilogram of bodyweight, or about 300ml in total.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

  • RBC of ____ million cells/cubic millimeter, Hgb level ave. ____ g/100 ml of blood. Hct count ____
  • Indirect bilirubin level at birth is ____ mg/100ml.
  • WBC count, ____ cells/mm3 at birth
  • Lower than normal level of Vit ____
A
  • RBC of 6 million cells/cubic millimeter, Hgb level ave. 17-18 g/100 ml of blood. Hct count 45%-50%
  • Indirect bilirubin level at birth is 1-4 mg/100ml.
  • WBC count, 15,000-30,000 cells/mm3 at birth
  • Lower than normal level of Vit K
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

  • All NB have ____ in the lungs from intrauterine life
  • A baby born by ____ birth does not have as much lung fluid expelled at birth
  • Premature babies, whose alveoli collapse each time they exhale (lack ____ ) have difficulty establishing effective ____ & respiration.
A
  • All NB have some fluid in the lungs from intrauterine life
  • A baby born by caesarean birth does not have as much lung fluid expelled at birth
  • Premature babies, whose alveoli collapse each time they exhale (lack lung surfactant) have difficulty establishing effective residual capacity & respiration.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM

  • ____ at birth
  • Bacterial source may be ____; vaginal secretions during birth, ____, & from contact at the ____.
  • Accumulation of bacteria in the GIT is necessary for digestion & ____ synthesis.
  • NB stomach holds ____ ml.
A
  • Sterile at birth
  • Bacterial source may be airborne; vaginal secretions during birth, hospital bedding, & from contact at the breast.
  • Accumulation of bacteria in the GIT is necessary for digestion & **vit k **synthesis.
  • NB stomach holds 60-90 ml.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM

  • ____ easily
  • Immature liver function can lead to a tendency toward lowered ____ and ____ levels.
  • ____, first stool usually passed within 24hrs
  • ____ stool, green & loose stool on the 2nd or 3rd day of life.
  • ____ stools are noticed for babies receiving phototherapy. (Treatment for ____ )
A
  • Regurgitates easily
  • Immature liver function can lead to a tendency toward lowered glucose and protein serum levels.
  • Meconium, first stool usually passed within 24hrs
  • Transitional stool, green & loose stool on the 2nd or 3rd day of life.
  • Bright green stools are noticed for babies receiving phototherapy. (Treatment for jaundice)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

URINARY SYSTEM

  • Immature - decreased ability to remove waste products from the blood.
  • NB voids within 24 hrs after birth, ____ & ____. About ____ ml in single voiding.
  • Males should be assessed to void with enough force to produce a small ____; females should produce a ____, not just continuous dribbling.
  • The first voiding may be ____ or ____
  • Specific gravity ranges from ____ to ____.
  • The daily urinary output for the first 1 or 2 days is about ____ to ____ ml total.
  • Diapers can be weighed to determine amount & timings of voiding.
A
  • Immature - decreased ability to remove waste products from the blood.
  • NB voids within 24 hrs after birth, light-colored & odorless. About 15ml in single voiding.
  • Males should be assessed to void with enough force to produce a small projected arc; females should produce a steady stream, not just continuous dribbling.
  • The first voiding may be pink or dusky
  • Specific gravity ranges from 1.008 to 1.010.
  • The daily urinary output for the first 1 or 2 days is about 30 to 60 ml total.
  • Diapers can be weighed to determine amount & timings of voiding.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

IMMUNE SYSTEM

  • With passive antibodies ( ____ ) from mother that crossed the placenta.
  • Difficulty of forming antibodies against invading antigens until about ____ months of age
  • ____ is highly advised.
A
  • With passive antibodies (Immunoglobulin G) from mother that crossed the placenta.
  • Difficulty of forming antibodies against invading antigens until about 2 months of age
  • Breastfeeding is highly advised.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NEUROMUSCULAR SYSTEM

  • Term neonates demonstrate neuromuscular function by moving their extremities attempting to control the ____ movement, exhibiting a strong ____, and demonstrating newborn ____.
  • Limpness or total absence of muscular response to manipulation is never normal & suggests ____, ____ or ____
A
  • Term neonates demonstrate neuromuscular function by moving their extremities attempting to control the head movement, exhibiting a strong cry, and demonstrating newborn reflexes.
  • Limpness or total absence of muscular response to manipulation is never normal & suggests narcosis, shock or cerebral injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

REFLEXES SEEN IN NEWBORNS

  1. R____ reflex
  2. S____ reflex
  3. S____ reflex
  4. E____ reflex
  5. M____ reflex
  6. T____ reflex
  7. P____ reflex
  8. S____ reflex
  9. P____ reflex
  10. B____ reflex
  11. Other reflexes
A
  1. Rooting reflex
  2. Sucking reflex
  3. Swallowing reflex
  4. Extrusion reflex
  5. Moro / Startle reflex
  6. Tonic neck / Fencing reflex
  7. Palmar grasp reflex
  8. Stepping, placing or dancing reflex
  9. Plantar grasp reflex
  10. Babinski reflex
  11. Other reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SENSES

The senses in newborn are ____ at birth.

  • HEARING
  • VISION
  • TOUCH
  • TASTE
  • SMELL
A

The senses in newborn are already developed at birth.

  • HEARING
  • VISION
  • TOUCH
  • TASTE
  • SMELL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS

  • Assess for ____, cyanosis, ____, & jaundice
  • General inspection of a newborn’s skin includes the color, ____, and general appearance
A

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS

  • Assess for pallor, cyanosis, plethora, & jaundice
  • General inspection of a newborn’s skin includes the color, any birthmarks, and general appearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS - FINDINGS

COLOR
* Normal color: cyanosis, acrocyanosis, ____, ____, ____

BIRTHMARKS: - Hemangioas
1. ____ or Port Wine Stain
2. ____ Hemangiomas
3. ____ Heamangiomas
4. ____

A

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS - FINDINGS

COLOR
* Normal color: cyanosis, acrocyanosis, jaundice, pallor, Harlequin sign

BIRTHMARKS: - Hemangiomas
1. Nevus Flammeus or Port Wine Stain
2. Strawberry Hemangiomas
3. Cavernous Heamangiomas
4. Mongolian Spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS - FINDINGS

GENERAL APPEARANCE

VERNIX CASEOSA

  • White, cream cheese-like substance that serves as a ____. Usually, it is noticeable on a term newborn’s skin.
  • Document the color of the vernix because it takes on the color of the ____.
  • ____ vernix indicates meconium was present in the amniotic fluid. ____ vernix implies that the amniotic fluid was ____ from bilirubin.
A

SKIN COLOR & LESIONS - FINDINGS

GENERAL APPEARANCE

VERNIX CASEOSA

  • White, cream cheese-like substance that serves as a skin lubricant. Usually, it is noticeable on a term newborn’s skin.
  • Document the color of the vernix because it takes on the color of the amniotic fluid.
  • Green vernix indicates meconium was present in the amniotic fluid. Yellow vernix implies that the amniotic fluid was yellow from bilirubin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

LANUGO

  • Fine, ____ hair that covers a newborn’s shoulders, back & upper arms.
  • A baby born after ____ wks of gestation has more lanugo than ____ wks AOG.
  • By ____ wks of age it has disappeared
A

LANUGO

  • Fine, downy hair that covers a newborn’s shoulders, back & upper arms.
  • A baby born after 37-39 wks of gestation has more lanugo than 40 wks AOG.
  • By 2 wks of age it has disappeared
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

DESQUAMATION

  • Within ____ hrs after birth, skin of most NB has become extremely dry. Dryness is particularly evident on the ____ & ____.
  • Newborns who are ____ and have suffered ____ may have such extremely dry skin that it has a leathery appearance and there are actual cracks in the skin folds.
  • This should be differentiated from normal desquamation because it helps to diagnose the newborn as ____
A

DESQUAMATION

  • Within 24 hrs after birth, skin of most NB has become extremely dry. Dryness is particularly evident on the palms of the hands & soles of the feet.
  • Newborns who are postterm and have suffered intrauterine malnutrition may have such extremely dry skin that it has a leathery appearance and there are actual cracks in the skin folds.
  • This should be differentiated from normal desquamation because it helps to diagnose the newborn as postterm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

MILIA

  • All NB sebaceous glands are immature. A ____ can be found on the cheek or across the bridge of the nose.
  • Disappear by ____ weeks of age as the sebaceous glands mature and the plugged ones drain.
A

MILIA

  • All NB sebaceous glands are immature. A white pinpoint white papulae can be found on the cheek or across the bridge of the nose.
  • Disappear by 3 to 4 weeks of age as the sebaceous glands mature and the plugged ones drain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ERYTHEMA TOXICUM

  • A newborn rash; usually appears on the ____ day of life, may appear up to ____ weeks of age. Rash has no pattern. It is caused by a NB’s ____ reacting to the environment as the immune system matures.
A

ERYTHEMA TOXICUM

  • A newborn rash; usually appears on the 1st to 4th day of life,may appear up to 2 weeks of age. Rash has no pattern. It is caused by a NB’s eosinophils reacting to the environment as the immune system matures.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

FORCEP MARKS

  • If forceps were used for birth, there maybe a circular or linear contusion matching the rim of the blade of the forceps on the infants’ cheek. Disappear in ____ days, along with the ____ that accompanies it.
A

FORCEP MARKS

  • If forceps were used for birth, there maybe a circular or linear contusion matching the rim of the blade of the forceps on the infants’ cheek. Disappear in 1-2 days, along with the edema that accompanies it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

HEAD

  • Check for ____ sutures, abnormal shape & size of the head, ____ & ____
  • Also measure the head ____. Take note that during infancy the head is the largest area in the body, and it remain disproportionate to the body until ____ years old
A

HEAD

  • Check for overriding sutures, abnormal shape & size of the head, posterior & anterior fontanel
  • Also measure the head circumference. Take note that during infancy the head is the largest area in the body, and it remain disproportionate to the body until 5 years old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

HEAD - FINDINGS

  • appears ____
  • ____ large & prominent
  • ____ appears to be receding
A

HEAD - FINDINGS

  • appears disproportionately large
  • Forehead large & prominent
  • Chin appears to be receding
30
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • spaces or openings where the skull bones join.
    anterior
    posterior
A

FONTANEL

31
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • separates the line of the skull
A

SUTURES

32
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • part of the NB’s head that engages the cervix is molded to fit the cervix contours.
  • appears to be prominent & asymmetric
A

MOLDING

33
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • Edema of the scalp at the presenting part of the head.
  • Absorbs & disappears about the 3rd day.
A

CAPUT SUCCEDANEUM

34
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • collection of blood between the periosteum of a skull bone & itself;
  • caused by rupture of a periostal capillary due to pressure of birth
A

CEPHALHEMATOMA

35
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

  • Localized softening of cranial bones probably caused by pressure of fetal skull against the mother’s pelvic bone in utero.
A

CRANIOTABES

36
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EYES

  • Lay the infant in a ____ position and lift the head.
  • Inspect the eyes color, size, symmetry, ____ and ____.

Application of Terramycin Opthalmic Ointment to avoid Opthalmia Neonatorum

A

EYES

  • Lay the infant in a supine position and lift the head.
  • Inspect the eyes color, size, symmetry, swelling and discharge.
37
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EYES - FINDINGS

  • NB cry ____
  • ____ hemorrhage
  • Irises are usually ____ or ____
A

EYES - FINDINGS

  • NB cry tearlessly
  • Subconjunctival hemorrhage
  • Irises are usually gray or blue
38
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EYES - FINDINGS

  • Sclera maybe ____ due to its thinness.
  • Assume permanent color between ____ & ____ mos of age.
  • Edema often present around the ____ or on the ____.
  • ____ should appear round & proportionate in size.
  • Pupils should be ____
A

EYES - FINDINGS

  • Sclera maybe blue due to its thinness.
  • Assume permanent color between 3 & 12 mos of age.
  • Edema often present around the orbit or on the eyelids.
  • Cornea should appear round & proportionate in size.
  • Pupils should be dark
39
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EARS - FINDINGS

  • Not completely formed
  • ____ tends to bend easily
  • level of the top part of external ear should be on a line drawn from the ____ to the ____ of the eye & back across the side of the head.
  • Visualization of the ____ of the NB is usually not attempted.
  • hearing test is done by ringing a bell held about ____ inches away from each ear
A

EARS - FINDINGS

  • Not completely formed
  • Pinna tends to bend easily
  • level of the top part of external ear should be on a line drawn from the inner canthus to the outer canthus of the eye & back across the side of the head.
  • Visualization of the tympanic membrane of the NB is usually not attempted.
  • hearing test is done by ringing a bell held about 6 inches away from each ear
40
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

NOSE

  • Look for flaring of the ____, which is a sign of increased respiratory effort
  • Check for ____
  • Check for defects such as ____
A

NOSE

  • Look for flaring of the alae nasi, which is a sign of increased respiratory effort
  • Check for choanal atresia
  • Check for defects such as cleft lip & palate
41
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

NOSE - FINDINGS

  • Appear large for the face
  • Note for any discomfort or distress with breathing.
  • Record presence of ____ on the nose.
  • Test for ____ (blockage of the rear of the nose)
  • (+) ____
A

NOSE - FINDINGS

  • Appear large for the face
  • Note for any discomfort or distress with breathing.
  • Record presence of milia on the nose.
  • Test for choanal atresia (blockage of the rear of the nose)
  • (+) cleft lip & palate
42
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

MOUTH

  • Inspect the mouth for size, shape and color
  • Note also if there is a ____ present
  • Inspect the ____ for intactness.
A

MOUTH

  • Inspect the mouth for size, shape and color
  • Note also if there is a tooth/teeth present
  • Inspect the palate for intactness.
43
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

MOUTH - FINDINGS

  • Open evenly when NB cries.
  • Tongue appears large & prominent in the mouth.
  • Tongue is short creating an impression of ____.
  • ____ should be intact.
  • One or two small round glistening, well circumscribed cysts are present on the palate, ____.
  • Sometimes natal teeth will have erupted.
  • ____ can also be seen on the tongue and sides of the cheeks as white or gray patches and requires antifungal treatment.
A

MOUTH - FINDINGS

  • Open evenly when NB cries.
  • Tongue appears large & prominent in the mouth.
  • Tongue is short creating an impression of “tongue tied”.
  • Palate should be intact.
  • One or two small round glistening, well circumscribed cysts are present on the palate, Epstein’s pearls.
  • Sometimes natal teeth will have erupted.
  • Thrush can also be seen on the tongue and sides of the cheeks as white or gray patches and requires antifungal treatment.
44
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

NECK

  • Inspect for symmetry of shape of the neck, its alignment; ____ & possible ____; ____
  • Assess infant’s ability to ____
A

NECK

  • Inspect for symmetry of shape of the neck, its alignment; lumps & possible fracture; lymph nodes
  • Assess infant’s ability to control head
45
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

NECK - FINDINGS

  • Short & often ____, with increased skin folds
  • (-) rigidity of neck ( ____ )
  • Not strong enough to support total weight of head
A

NECK - FINDINGS

  • Short & often chubby, with increased skin folds
  • (-) rigidity of neck (Congenital torticollis)
  • Not strong enough to support total weight of head
46
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

CHEST

  • Assess for the ____ and pattern and observe chest movement for symmetry and ____
  • Inspect the ____ for appearance and presence of symmetry
  • Palpate the ____ for swelling and edema
  • Breast may be slightly ____ secondary to presence of maternal hormones
  • Auscultate for breath sounds, noting the inspiratory to expiratory ratio and the presence of ____
  • ____ is of little clinical benefit and should be avoided especially in low-birth-weight or preterm infants as it may cause injury
A

CHEST

  • Assess for the respiratory rate and pattern and observe chest movement for symmetry and retractions
  • Inspect the clavicles for appearance and presence of symmetry
  • Palpate the breast for swelling and edema
  • Breast may be slightly enlarged secondary to presence of maternal hormones
  • Auscultate for breath sounds, noting the inspiratory to expiratory ratio and the presence of adventitious sounds
  • Percussion is of little clinical benefit and should be avoided especially in low-birth-weight or preterm infants as it may cause injury
47
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

CHEST - FINDINGS

  • Breast maybe engorged.
  • May appear small
  • ____ milk
  • Clavicles should be straight, should appear symmetric side by side
  • RR: ____ bpm
  • (-) chest ____
A

CHEST

  • Breast maybe engorged.
  • May appear small
  • Witch’s milk
  • Clavicles should be straight, should appear symmetric side by side
  • RR: 30-60 bpm
  • (-) chest retractions
48
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ABDOMEN

  • Inspect for the shape; contour & note any abdominal ____, masses, visible peristalsis, ____, & obvious malformations
  • Assess umbilical cord & count the ____; auscultate for bowel sounds.
  • Inspect anal area for patency & for presence of ____ or ____.
  • Palpate for the kidneys
A

ABDOMEN

  • Inspect for the shape; contour & note any abdominal distension, masses, visible peristalsis, diastasis recti, & obvious malformations
  • Assess umbilical cord & count the vessels; auscultate for bowel sounds.
  • Inspect anal area for patency & for presence of fistulas or skin tags.
  • Palpate for the kidneys
49
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ABDOMEN - FINDINGS

  • Looks slightly ____
  • Bowel sound should be present within ____ hr after birth.
  • Edge of the liver should be palpable 1-2 cm below the ____ margin
  • Edge of the spleen should be palpable 1-2 cm below the ____ margin
A

ABDOMEN - FINDINGS

  • Looks slightly protuberant
  • Bowel sound should be present within 1hr after birth.
  • Edge of the liver should be palpable 1-2 cm below the right costal margin
  • Edge of the spleen should be palpable 1-2 cm below the left costal margin
50
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ABDOMEN -FINDINGS

  • Umbilical cord appears bluish white, gelatinous structure; moist; marked with the red & blue streaks of umbilical vein & 2 arteries during the ____ hr.
  • After clamping: begins to dry & appears dull & ____, then turns ____
A

ABDOMEN -FINDINGS

  • Umbilical cord appears bluish white, gelatinous structure; moist; marked with the red & blue streaks of umbilical vein & 2 arteries during the 1st hr.
  • After clamping: begins to dry & appears dull & yellowish brown, then turns greenish black
51
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ABDOMEN - FINDINGS

  • single artery = ____ or ____
  • Hematoma / ____
  • Draining & ____ at the base
A

ABDOMEN - FINDINGS

  • single artery = congenital heart or renal abnormality
  • Hematoma / omphalocele
  • Draining & erythematous at the base
52
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ANOGENITAL AREA

  • ____ anus; not covered by a membrane
  • Check for ____ anus
  • Note for the time after which the infant first passes ____
A

ANOGENITAL AREA

  • Patent anus; not covered by a membrane
  • Check for imperforate anus
  • Note for the time after which the infant first passes meconium
53
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

ANOGENITAL AREA - FINDINGS

  • ____ - The opening to the anus is missing or blocked.
  • ____ may exist wherein stool is evacuated via the vagina, scrotum, or raphe.
A

ANOGENITAL AREA - FINDINGS

  • Imperforate anus - The opening to the anus is missing or blocked.
  • Fistula may exist wherein stool is evacuated via the vagina, scrotum, or raphe.
54
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

MALE GENITALIA

  • Assess any malformation, abnormalities or ____.
  • Inspect glans, urethral opening, foreskin or the prepuce, & the scrotum; palpate for the testes & ensure that both testicles are descended into ____.
  • Elicit ____ reflex by stroking the internal side of the thigh.
A

MALE GENITALIA

  • Assess any malformation, abnormalities or sexual ambiguity.
  • Inspect glans, urethral opening, foreskin or the prepuce, & the scrotum; palpate for the testes & ensure that both testicles are descended into scrotum.
  • Elicit cremasteric reflex by stroking the internal side of the thigh.
55
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

FEMALE GENITALIA

  • Check the labia, clitoris, urethral opening & ____
A

FEMALE GENITALIA

  • Check the labia, clitoris, urethral opening & external vaginal vault
56
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

MALE GENITALIA - FINDINGS

  • Scrotum edematous & has ____
  • Both ____ should be present in the scrotum
  • (+) cremasteric reflex, elicited by stroking ____ of thigh
  • ____ - penis is absent
  • ____ - urethra ends in the upper part of penis
  • ____ - urethra ends in the underside of penis
A

MALE GENITALIA - FINDINGS

  • Scrotum edematous & has rugae
  • Both testes should be present in the scrotum
  • (+) cremasteric reflex, elicited by stroking internal side of thigh
  • Agenesis - penis is absent
  • Epispadias - urethra ends in the upper part of penis
  • Hypospadias - urethra ends on the underside of penis
57
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

FEMALE GENITALIA - FINDINGS

  • Vulva may be ____ (effect of maternal hormones)
  • Sometimes with mucus vaginal secretion, ____ if blood tinged. This ____ is a manifestation of the abrupt decrease in maternal hormones and usually disappears by ____ weeks of age.
A

FEMALE GENITALIA - FINDINGS

  • Vulva may be swollen (effect of maternal hormones)
  • Sometimes with mucus vaginal secretion, pseudomenstruation if blood tinged. This pseudomenstruation is a manifestation of the abrupt decrease in maternal hormones and usually disappears by 2 to 4 weeks of age.
58
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

BACK

  • Inspect the back and base of the newborn’s spine for opening, ____, or ____ in the skin
A

BACK

  • Inspect the back and base of the newborn’s spine for opening, dimpling, or sinus tract in the skin
59
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

BACK - FINDINGS

  • Flat in the ____ & ____ areas.
  • (-) dimpling, (-) sinus tract (suggest ____ )
  • A ____ anywhere along the spine, but most commonly in the sacral area, indicates some type of spina bifida.
  • A ____ may indicate the existence of spina bifida occulta or be a portal of entry into the spinal column.
A

BACK - FINDINGS

  • Flat in the lumbar & sacral areas.
  • (-) dimpling, (-) sinus tract (suggest spinal bifida)
  • A protruding sac anywhere along the spine, but most commonly in the sacral area, indicates some type of spina bifida.
  • A pilonidal cyst may indicate the existence of spina bifida occulta or be a portal of entry into the spinal column.
60
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EXTREMITIES

  • Test the upper extremities for ____
  • Assess shoulder girdle for injury & clavicles for fracture (shoulder ____ ).
  • Assess mobility of the ____ & extension of ____. Inspect ____ for assessment of gestational age & count the fingers.
  • Assess the feet & ankles for deformity, mobility & count the toes.
  • Test for ____
  • Examine the ____ last, using the ____.
  • Check for ____
A

EXTREMITIES

  • Test the upper extremities for muscle tone
  • Assess shoulder girdle for injury & clavicles for fracture (shoulder dystocia).
  • Assess mobility of the shoulder & extension of elbow. Inspect palmar creases for assessment of gestational age & count the fingers.
  • Assess the feet & ankles for deformity, mobility & count the toes.
  • Test for capillary refill
  • Examine the hips last, using the Ortolani-Barlow maneuver.
  • Check for ankle clonus
61
Q

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION

EXTREMITIES - FINDINGS

  • The arms and legs of the newborn appear ____ in proportion to the trunk.
  • The hands seem plump and clenched.
  • Short arms would signify ____
  • ____
  • The legs appear ____ and short
  • The sole of the foot is ____
  • Feet turned in ( ____ deviation).
  • A foot does not align readily or will not turn to midline position ( ____ ).
A

EXTREMITIES - FINDINGS

  • The arms and legs of the newborn appear short in proportion to the trunk.
  • The hands seem plump and clenched.
  • Short arms would signify achondroplasia (dwarfism)
  • Simian crease
  • The legs appear bowed and short
  • The sole of the foot is flat
  • Feet turned in (Varus deviation).
  • A foot does not align readily or will not turn to midline position (clubfoot).
62
Q

BALLARD SCORE

  • Also know as ____
  • It allows clinicians to estimate ____
  • It is based on the neonate’s physical and neuromuscular maturity and can be used up to ____ days after birth
  • The ____ components are more consistent over time because the ____ components mature quickly after birth
A
  • Also know as “Dubowitz”
  • It allows clinicians to estimamate gestational age
  • It is based on the neonate’s physical and neuromuscular maturity and can be used up to 4 days after birth
  • The neuromusuclar components are more consistent over time because the physical components mature quickly after birth
63
Q

BALLARD SCORE

  • Because the Ballard score is accurate only within plus or minus ____ weeks, it should be used to assign gestational age only when there is ____ about the estimated date of confinement or there is a major discrepancy between the obstetrically defined gestational age and the findings on physical examination.
  • Scores from neuromuscular and physical domains are added to obtain total score.
A
  • Because the Ballard score is accurate only within plus or minus 2 weeks, it should be used to assign gestational age only when there is no reliable obstetrical information about the estimated date of confinement or there is a major discrepancy between the obstetrically defined gestational age and the findings on physical examination.
  • Scores from neuromuscular and physical domains are added to obtain total score.
64
Q

BALLARD SCORE

  • Premature: < 34 weeks gestation
  • Late pre-term: 34 to < 37 weeks
  • Early term: 37 0/7 weeks through 38 6/7 weeks
  • Full term: 39 0/7 weeks through 40 6/7 weeks
  • Late term: 41 0/7 weeks through 41 6/7 weeks
  • Post term: 42 0/7 weeks and beyond
  • Postmature: > 42 weeks
A
  • Premature: < 34 weeks gestation
  • Late pre-term: 34 to < 37 weeks
  • Early term: 37 0/7 weeks through 38 6/7 weeks
  • Full term: 39 0/7 weeks through 40 6/7 weeks
  • Late term: 41 0/7 weeks through 41 6/7 weeks
  • Post term: 42 0/7 weeks and beyond
  • Postmature: > 42 weeks
65
Q
  • It is used to assess the degree of respiratory distress in neonates
  • Evaluates five parameters and assigns a numerical score for each parameter.
    -> Chest movement
    -> Intercostal retraction
    -> Xiphoid retraction
    -> Nares dilatation
    -> Expiratory grunt
A

SILVERMAN-ANDERSEN INDEX

66
Q

It is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth

A

APGAR SCORING

67
Q

APGAR SCORING

  • The ____ -minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process.
  • The ____ -minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb.
  • The newborn is considered to be ____ if the initial scores are 7 and above. If the five-minute score is less than 7, scoring is done every ____ minutes thereafter until the score reaches 7.
  • It may be repeated at 10, 15, and 20 minutes if the score is low.
A
  • The 1-minute score determines how well the baby tolerated the birthing process.
  • The 5-minute score tells the health care provider how well the baby is doing outside the mother’s womb.
  • The newborn is considered to be “vigorous” if the initial scores are 7 and above. If the five-minute score is less than 7, scoring is done every five minutes thereafter until the score reaches 7.
  • It may be repeated at 10, 15, and 20 minutes if the score is low.
68
Q

APGAR SCORE

  • ____ (1909-1974) introduced the Apgar score in 1952.
  • It is done by a doctor, midwife, or nurse
  • The provider examines the baby’s:
    -> Respiratory effort
    -> Heart rate
    -> Muscle tone
    -> Reflex Irritability
    -> Skin color
  • Each category is scored with ____, depending on the observed condition.
  • ____ is common in newborns that a score of 1 can be thought as normal.
A
  • Virginia Apgar, MD (1909-1974) introduced the Apgar score in 1952.
  • It is done by a doctor, midwife, or nurse
  • The provider examines the baby’s:
    -> Respiratory effort
    -> Heart rate
    -> Muscle tone
    -> Reflex Irritability
    -> Skin color
  • Each category is scored with 0, 1, or 2, depending on the observed condition.
  • Acrocyanosis is common in newborns that a score of 1 can be thought as normal.
69
Q
  • A - ____
  • P - ____
  • G - ____
  • A - ____
  • R - ____
A
  • A - ACTIVITY
  • P - PULSE
  • G - GRIMACE
  • A - APPEARANCE
  • R - RESPIRATION
70
Q

APGAR SCORE - INTERPRETATION

  • Apgar scores of ____ are critically low, especially in term and late-preterm infants
  • Apgar scores of ____ are below normal, and indicate that the baby likely requires medical intervention
  • Apgar scores of ____ are considered normal (1, 3)

A baby with a low Apgar score may need:
* ____ and clearing out the airway to help with breathing
* ____ to get the heart beating at a healthy rate
* Most of the time, a low score at 1 minute is near-normal by 5 minutes.

A
  • Apgar scores of 0-3 are critically low, especially in term and late-preterm infants
  • Apgar scores of 4-6 are below normal, and indicate that the baby likely requires medical intervention
  • Apgar scores of 7+ are considered normal (1, 3)

A baby with a low Apgar score may need:
* Oxygen and clearing out the airway to help with breathing
* Physical stimulation to get the heart beating at a healthy rate
* Most of the time, a low score at 1 minute is near-normal by 5 minutes.