[15] MIDTERM | INTRAPARTUM PART 3A (STAGES OF LABOR) Flashcards

1
Q
  • regular progression of uterine contractions
  • effacement and progressive dilatation of the cervix
  • progress in descent of the presenting part
A

NORMAL LABOR

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2
Q

1ST STAGE OF LABOR

  • stage of ____
  • begins with the onset of regular ____ and ends with complete ____
  • Factors affecting the length of labor: ____, maternal & fetal position, ____, and level of ____
A
  • stage of dilatation
  • begins with the onset of regular uterine contractions and ends with complete dilation of the cervix
  • Factors affecting the length of labor: analgesia, maternal & fetal position, woman’s body size, and level of physical fitness
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3
Q

1ST STAGE OF LABOR

LATENT PHASE
* Contractions are mild to moderate intensity and short, lasting ____ seconds.

  • may start as mild contractions lasting ____ seconds with a frequency of ____ minutes and progress to moderate lasting ____ seconds with a frequency of ____ minutes
  • w/ effacement & cervix dilates ____ cm
  • Duration: Nullipara: ____ hrs. ; Multipara: ____ hours
  • ____ contractions an hour is considered a meaningful signal that spontaneous birth is beginning or imminent.
  • Prolonged latent phase: exceeding ____ hours in nullipara & ____ hours in multipara
A

LATENT PHASE
* Contractions are mild to moderate intensity and short, lasting 20 to 40 seconds.

  • may start as mild contractions lasting 20 to 30 seconds with a frequency of 10 to 30 minutes and progress to moderate lasting 30 to 40 seconds with a frequency of 5 to 7 minutes
  • w/ effacement & cervix dilates 0-3 cm
  • Duration: Nullipara: 6 hours ; Multipara: 4.5 hours
  • Twelve contractions an hour is considered a meaningful signal that spontaneous birth is beginning or imminent.
  • Prolonged latent phase: exceeding 20 hours in nullipara & 14 hours in multipara
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4
Q

ACTIVE PHASE
* Cervical dilatation occurs more rapidly, increasing from ____ cm ( ____ cm/hr in nulliparas and ____ cm/hr in multiparas)

  • Fetal descent is ____
  • Contractions become more frequent (every ____ minutes) and longer in duration lasting ____ seconds, and are ____ intensity
A

ACTIVE PHASE
* Cervical dilatation occurs more rapidly, increasing from 4 to 7 cm (1.2 cm/hr in nulliparas and 1.5 cm/hr in multiparas)

  • Fetal descent is progressive
  • Contractions become more frequent (every 3-5 minutes) and longer in duration lasting 40 to 60 seconds, and are moderate to strong intensity
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5
Q

ACTIVE PHASE: WHO, 2018
* The duration of active first stage (from ____ cm until full cervical dilatation) usually does not extend beyond ____ hours in first labors, and usually does not extend beyond ____ hours in subsequent labors.

  • A minimum cervical dilatation rate of ____ cm/hour throughout active first stage is unrealistically fast for some women and is therefore not recommended for identification of normal labor progression.
  • A slower than ____ cm/hour cervical dilatation rate alone should not be a routine indication for obstetric intervention.
A

ACTIVE PHASE: WHO, 2018
* The duration of active first stage (from 5 cm until full cervical dilatation) usually does not extend beyond 12 hours in first labors, and usually does not extend beyond 10 hours in subsequent labors.

  • A minimum cervical dilatation rate of 1 cm/hour throughout active first stage is unrealistically fast for some women and is therefore not recommended for identification of normal labor progression.
  • A slower than 1-cm/hour cervical dilatation rate alone should not be a routine indication for obstetric intervention.
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6
Q

ACTIVE PHASE
* Duration: nulliparas ____ hrs and ____ hrs in multiparas

  • Show and perhaps spontaneous ____ may occur
  • By the end of the active phase, contractions have a frequency of ____ min, duration of ____ seconds, and ____ intensity
A

ACTIVE PHASE
* Duration: nulliparas 3 hrs and 2 hrs in multiparas

  • Show and perhaps spontaneous rupture of the membranes may occur
  • By the end of the active phase, contractions have a frequency of 2 -3 min, duration of 60 seconds, and strong intensity
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7
Q

TRANSITION PHASE
* contractions reach their peak of intensity which is ____, occurring every ____ min with duration of ____ seconds and causing maximum dilatation of ____ cm.

  • By the end of this phase, both ____ and complete ____ have occurred
A

TRANSITION PHASE
* contractions reach their peak of intensity which is strong, occurring every 2-3 min with duration of 60-70 seconds and causing maximum dilatation of 8-10 cm.

  • By the end of this phase, both full dilatation (10 cm) and complete cervical effacement (obliteration of the cervix) have occurred
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8
Q

TRANSITION PHASE
* Does not usually last longer than ____ for nulliparas or____; increased by approx. ____ if epidural anesthesia is used

A
  • Does not usually last longer than 3 hours for nulliparas or longer than 1 hour for multiparas; increased by approx. 1 hour if epidural anesthesia is used
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9
Q

TRANSITION PHASE - Characteristics
* Increasing ____
* Hyperventilation
* Generalized discomfort, including ____
* Increased need for partner’s and/or nurse’s presence and support
* Restlessness
* Increased ____
* An inner focusing on her contractions
* A sense of bewilderment, frustration, and anger at the contractions
* Requests for ____
* Hiccupping, belching, nausea, or vomiting
* Beads of perspiration on the upper lip of brow
* Increasing ____

A
  • Increasing bloody show
  • Hyperventilation
  • Generalized discomfort, including low backache, shaking and crampin in legs, and increased sensitivity to touch
  • Increased need for partner’s and/or nurse’s presence and support
  • Restlessness
  • Increased apprehension and irritability
  • An inner focusing on her contractions
  • A sense of bewilderment, frustration, and anger at the contractions
  • Requests for medications
  • Hiccupping, belching, nausea, or vomiting
  • Beads of perspiration on the upper lip of brow
  • Increasing rectal pressure and feeling the urge to bear down
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10
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

INITIAL INTERVIEW AND PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
Obtain information about the following:
* Woman’s name and age
* ____
* Frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
* Amount and character of show
* Whether ____ has occurred
* Vital signs (assessed between contractions)
* Time the woman last ate
* Any known drug allergies
* Past pregnancy and previous pregnancy history
* Her ____ or what ____

A
  • Woman’s name and age
  • LMP and expected date of birth
  • Frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
  • Amount and character of show
  • Whether rupture of membranes has occurred
  • Vital signs (assessed between contractions)
  • Time the woman last ate
  • Any known drug allergies
  • Past pregnancy and previous pregnancy history
  • Her birth plan or what individualized measures she has planned
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11
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

HISTORY
* Physical and psychological events
* ____
* General health
* ____
* Note that all date are necessary to plan nursing care

A
  • Physical and psychological events
  • Review of past pregnancies
  • General health
  • Family medical information
  • Note that all date are necessary to plan nursing care
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12
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

CURRENT PREGNANCY HISTORY
* ____
* A description of this pregnancy
* ____
* Future child care

A
  • OB score
  • A description of this pregnancy
  • Plans for labor
  • Future child care
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13
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

PAST PREGNANCY HISTORY
Document the following: (6)

A
  • Number
  • Dates
  • Types of birth
  • Any complications and outcomes
  • Sex and birth weights of children
  • Current health status of the children
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14
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

PAST HEALTH HISTORY
* Previous surgeries
* ____
* ____
* TB
* Kidney disease or hypertension
* ____
* Woman’s lifestyle

A
  • Previous surgeries
  • Heart disease or diabetes
  • Anemia
  • TB
  • Kidney disease or hypertension
  • STI such as Herpes
  • Woman’s lifestyle
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15
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

FAMILY MEDICAL HISTORY
Ask if any family member is/has: (9)

A
  • Cognitively challeneged
  • Heart disease
  • Blood dyscrasia
  • DM
  • Kidney disease
  • Cancer
  • Allergies
  • Seizures
  • Congenital disorder
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16
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
* Thorough PE, including a pelvic examination, to confirm ____ and ____
* Include inspection, palpation, and auscultation

A
  • Thorough PE, including a pelvic examination, to confirm the presentation and position of the fetus and the stage of cervical dilatation
  • Include inspection, palpation, and auscultation
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17
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

VITAL SIGNS - Temperature
* Obtained ____
* ____ → infection on NPO, ____ → ____
* After rupture of the membranes, temperature should be taken ____

A
  • Obtained q4h
  • >37.2 C (99 F) → infection on NPO, ↑ tempdehydration
  • After rupture of the membranes, temperature should be taken q2h
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18
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

VITAL SIGNS - Pulse and Respiration
* ____
* PR: ____
* PR >100 bpm → tachycardia (dehydration/ hemorrhage)
* RR: 18-20 cpm
* Contractions = ____

A
  • Q4h
  • PR: 70-80bpm
  • PR >100 bpm → tachycardia (dehydration/ hemorrhage)
  • RR: 18-20 cpm
  • Contractions = ↑RR
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19
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

VITAL SIGNS - Blood Pressure
* ____
* During contraction: BP rise ____
* ↑ BP = PIH
* ↓ BP/Pulse Pressure = ____

A
  • Q4h
  • During contraction: BP rise 5-15 mmHg
  • ↑ BP = PIH
  • ↓ BP/Pulse Pressure = hemorrhage
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20
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

ABDOMINAL ASSESSMENT
* Estimate ____
* Presentation and position
* Palpate and percuss ____
* Assess for ____

A
  • Estimate fetal size (fundic height)
  • Presentation and position
  • Palpate and percuss the bladder area
  • Assess for abdominal scars
21
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

VAGINAL ASSESSMENT
* Determine the ____; confirm the ____, position, and ____
* Do not do vaginal exam in the presence of fresh → bleeding may indicate ____

A
  • Determine the extent of cervical effacement and dilatation; confirm the fetal presentation, position, and degree of descent
  • Do not do vaginal exam in the presence of fresh → bleeding may indicate placenta previa
22
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

ASSESSING RUPTURE OF MEMBRANES
Sterile Vaginal Examination
* After vaginal secretions are obtained, test them with a strip of ____
* ____ - Acidic
* ____ - Alkaline

____ (Examination of Vaginal Secretions under a Microscope)
* Amniotic fluid will show a ____ when dried and examined in this way; urine will not

BOW Ruptured at Home - ask mother to describe the color of amniotic fluid
* Should be ____
* ____ - blood incompatibility between mother and fetus
* ____ - meconium staining (in vertex presentation, may indicate fetal anoxia; meconium aspiration)

A

Sterile Vaginal Examination
* After vaginal secretions are obtained, test them with a strip of Nitrazine paper
* Vaginal secretions - Acidic
* Amniotic fluid - Alkaline

Fern Test (Examination of Vaginal Secretions under a Microscope)
* Amniotic fluid will show a fern pattern when dried and examined in this way; urine will not

BOW Ruptured at Home - ask mother to describe the color of amniotic fluid
* Should be as clear as water
* Yellow-stained - blood incompatibility between mother and fetus
* Green Fluid - meconium staining (in vertex presentation, may indicate fetal anoxia; meconium aspiration)

23
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

ASSESSMENT OF PELVIC ADEQUACY
* ____ - not to attempt a home birth
* ____ - to determine how readily the fetal head will born
* ____ to measure the pelvic outlet

A
  • Cephalopelvic disproportion - not to attempt a home birth
  • Estimate suprapubic angle - to determine how readily the fetal head will born
  • Closed fist to measure the pelvic outlet
24
Q

MATERNAL ASSESSMENT

ASSESSMENT OF UTERINE CONTRACTIONS (3)

A
  • Length/duration
  • Intensity
  • Frequency
25
Q

FETAL ASSESSMENT

FETAL POSITION
Determined thru:
* ____ - size and shape, lie: projects up and down (longitudinal lie) or left to right (transverse lie)
* Palpation - ____
* ____ - presenting part
* ____ - used when the fetal position cannot be determined by abdominal palpation

A

Determined thru:
* Inspection - size and shape, lie: projects up and down (longitudinal lie) or left to right (transverse lie)
* Palpation - Leopold’s manuever
* Vaginal Examination - presenting part
* Ultrasound - used when the fetal position cannot be determined by abdominal palpation

26
Q

FETAL ASSESSMENT

FHR - Auscultation of Fetal Heart Sounds
* Transmitted best through the ____
* Use stethoscope or a ____
* ____ – best heard through the fetal back
* ____ – heard most clearly at the woman’s umbilicus or above
* ____ – heard loudest in lower abdomen - ROA – RLQ; LOA - LLQ

A
  • Transmitted best through the convex portion of a fetus
  • Use stethoscope or a fetoscope, doppler unit
  • Vertex or Breech – best heard through the fetal back
  • Breech – heard most clearly at the woman’s umbilicus or above
  • Cephalic – heard loudest in lower abdomen - ROA – RLQ; LOA - LLQ
27
Q

FETAL ASSESSMENT

FHR - Auscultation of Fetal Heart Sounds
____
* Latent Phase - q1h
* Active Phase - q30 minutes
* Second Stage - q15 minutes

A

Low Risk Women
* Latent Phase - q1h
* Active Phase - q30 minutes
* Second Stage - q15 minutes

28
Q

FETAL ASSESSMENT

FHR - Auscultation of Fetal Heart Sounds
____
* Latent Phase - q30 minutes
* Active Phase - q15 minutes
* Second Stage - q5 minutes

A

High Risk Women
* Latent Phase - q30 minutes
* Active Phase - q15 minutes
* Second Stage - q5 minutes

29
Q

FETAL ASSESSMENT

FHR - ____
The monitor is left in place for continuous monitoring on women who are categorized as high risk for any reason or who have oxytocin stimulation.

A

FHR - Electronic Monitoring
The monitor is left in place for continuous monitoring on women who are categorized as high risk for any reason or who have oxytocin stimulation.

30
Q

NURSING DIAGNOSES (3)

A
  • Fear/Anxiety r/t discomfort of labor and unknown labor outcome
  • Acute Pain r/t uterine contractions, cervical dilatation, and fetal descent
  • Deficient Knowledge r/t lack of information about normal labor process and comfort measures
31
Q

PAIN MANAGEMENT

FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE LABOR PAIN
* ____ - pain perception, is the least amount of sensation that a person perceives as painful
* ____ - amount of pain one is willing to endure
* ____ - Occurs in the spinal cord; Pain sensations are transmitted from the periphery of the body along nerve pathways to the brain; Only limited number of sensations can travel these pathways at one time.
* ____ - neurmodulators; also called endorphins or endogenous opiates

A
  • Pain Threshold - pain perception, is the least amount of sensation that a person perceives as painful
  • Pain Tolerance - amount of pain one is willing to endure
  • Gate Control Theory - Occurs in the spinal cord; Pain sensations are transmitted from the periphery of the body along nerve pathways to the brain; Only limited number of sensations can travel these pathways at one time.
  • Chemical Factors - neurmodulators; also called endorphins or endogenous opiates
32
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT (12)

A
  • Cognitive Stimulation Methods
  • Cutaneous Stimulation
  • Thermal Stimulation
  • Breathing Techniques
  • Relaxation
  • Hypnosis
  • Therapeutic Touch
  • Music
  • Aromatherapy
  • Acupressure
  • Acupuncture
  • Prayer
33
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
Cognitive Stimulation Methods
* Mental Stimulation: ____
* Using ____ or focusing on ____ or a ____ may help the woman block out painful sensations

A
  • Mental Stimulation: Imagery
  • Using focal point or focusing on breathing patterns or a spot on the wall may help the woman block out painful sensations
34
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
Cutaneous Stimulation
* Touching, rubbing or massaging (____)
* Counter pressure at the point of back pain (____)

A
  • Touching, rubbing or massaging (rhythmic stroking/effleurage)
  • Counter pressure at the point of back pain (sacral pressure)
35
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
Thermal Stimulation
* ____ - warm bath or shower
* ____ - cool, damp cloth applied to the forehead
* Hot or cold towels applied to the back to relieve mild back presure

A
  • Early Labor - warm bath or shower
  • Later Phases - cool, damp cloth applied to the forehead
  • Hot or cold towels applied to the back to relieve mild back presure
36
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMALOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
* ____ - relaxation of voluntary muscles between contractions
* ____ - safe, without known side effects, and has positive physical and psychologic outcomes

A
  • Relaxation - relaxation of voluntary muscles between contractions
  • Hypnosis - safe, without known side effects, and has positive physical and psychologic outcomes
37
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGIC PAIN MANAGEMENT
Therapeutic Touch
* Use of touch to comfort and relieve pain (____)
* Distraction effleurage, the technique of gentle abdominal massage often taught with ____

A
  • Use of touch to comfort and relieve pain (energy fields)
  • Distraction effleurage, the technique of gentle abdominal massage often taught with Lamaze preparation
38
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMACOLOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
Music
* Decreased ____
* Comforting music promotes ____ (increasing oxygen intake)

A
  • Decreased maternal anxiety
  • Comforting music promotes maternal relaxation (increasing oxygen intake)
39
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

NONPHARMALOGICAL PAIN MANAGEMENT
* ____ - fragrances of rose, lavender, frankincense, and bergamot oils are believed to promote comfort and relaxation and decrease pain
* ____ - Pressure Point (between the first and second metacarpal bones on the back of the hand)
* ____ - activation of the insertion points - release of endorphins

A
  • Aromatherapy - fragrances of rose, lavender, frankincense, and bergamot oils are believed to promote comfort and relaxation and decrease pain
  • Acupressure - Pressure Point (between the first and second metacarpal bones on the back of the hand)
  • Acupuncture - activation of the insertion points - release of endorphins
40
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Systemic Medications
Opioid Analgesics
* Analgesic effect; induces sedation
* Drugs: (4)

A
  • Analgesic effect; induces sedation
  • Drugs: Butorphanol tartrate (Stadol), Nalbuphine hydrochloride (Nubain), Meperidine (Demerol), and Fentanyl (sublimaze)
41
Q

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Systemic Medications
Analgesic Potentiators
* Tranquilizer; decreases anxiety
* Potentiate the effects of opioid analgesics
* Side Effect: sedation
* Drugs: (3)

A
  • Tranquilizer; decreases anxiety
  • Potentiate the effects of opioid analgesics
  • Side Effect: sedation
  • Drugs: Promethazine (Phenergan), Hydroxyzine (Vistaril), and Promazine (Sparine)
42
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
* ____ - temporary loss of sensation of a body part
* ____: epidural, spinal, and combined epidural-spinal blocks
* ____ – used during labor and vaginal birth and CS
* ____ – alter the transmission of impulses to the bladder, ↓ UO; interfere with BP stability and leg movement; slowed descent of fetus; ↑risk of perineal lacerations

A
  • Regional anesthesia - temporary loss of sensation of a body part
  • Regional anesthetic blocks: epidural, spinal, and combined epidural-spinal blocks
  • Epidural blocks – used during labor and vaginal birth and CS
  • Anesthetic agents – alter the transmission of impulses to the bladder, ↓ UO; interfere with BP stability and leg movement; slowed descent of fetus; ↑risk of perineal lacerations
43
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
Nursing Care during Administration of Regional Anesthesia:
* ____ before administration
* Assisting her with positioning during and after the procedure
* Monitoring and assessing VS and respiratory status
* Monitoring ____
* Determine ____

A
  • Helping the woman void before administration
  • Assisting her with positioning during and after the procedure
  • Monitoring and assessing VS and respiratory status
  • Monitoring analgesic effect
  • Determine fetal being
44
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
Types of Local Anesthetic Agents:
* ____ - procaine hydrochloride ( ____ ), chloroprocaine hydrochloride ( ____ )
* ____ – lidocaine hydrochloride ( ____ ), mepivacaine hydrochloride ( ____ )

A
  • Ester - procaine hydrochloride (novocaine), chloroprocaine hydrochloride (nesacaine)
  • Amide – lidocaine hydrochloride (xylocaine), mepivacaine hydrochloride (carbocaine)
45
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
Adverse Maternal Reactions to Anesthetic Agents:
* ____: palpitations, tinnitus, apprehension, confusion, and metallic taste in mouth.
* ____: more severe degrees of mild symptoms plus nausea and vomiting, hypotension, and muscle twitching, which may progress to convulsion.
* ____: sudden loss of consciousness, coma, severe hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest.

A
  • Mild reactions: palpitations, tinnitus, apprehension, confusion, and metallic taste in mouth.
  • Moderate reactions: more severe degrees of mild symptoms plus nausea and vomiting, hypotension, and muscle twitching, which may progress to convulsion.
  • Severe reactions: sudden loss of consciousness, coma, severe hypotension, bradycardia, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest.
46
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
* ____ - injection of an anesthetic agent into the epidural space (between L4 and L5) provides pain relief from uterine contractions and vaginal or cesarean birth.

A
  • Epidural Block - injection of an anesthetic agent into the epidural space (between L4 and L5) provides pain relief from uterine contractions and vaginal or cesarean birth.
47
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Regional Anesthesia and Analgesia
Pudendal Block
* Administered by ____, intercepts signals to the pudendal nerve
* Provides ____ for the first stage of labor, second stage, birth, and episiotomy repair
* Relieves the pain of ____ and relieves pain in ____ but not for discomfort of uterine contractions

A
  • Administered by transvaginal method, intercepts signals to the pudendal nerve
  • Provides perineal anesthesia for the first stage of labor, second stage, birth, and episiotomy repair
  • Relieves the pain of perineal distention and relieves pain in lower vagina, vulva, and perineum but not for discomfort of uterine contractions
48
Q

MANAGEMENT OF PAIN

PHARMACOLOGICAL - Local Infiltration Anesthesia
* Injecting an anesthetic agent into the ____ areas of the perineum
* Use at the time of birth, both in preparation for an ____
* Local anesthetic agents: chloroprocaine hydrochloride ( ____ ), lidocaine hydrochloride ( ____ ), and tetracaine hydrochloride ( ____ )

A
  • Injecting an anesthetic agent into the intracutaneous, subcutaneous, and intramuscular areas of the perineum
  • Use at the time of birth, both in preparation for an episiotomy and for episiotomy repair
  • Local anesthetic agents: chloroprocaine hydrochloride (nesacaine), lidocaine hydrochloride (xylocaine), and tetracaine hydrochloride (pontocaine)