13 Flashcards
1
Q
- What is the primary mechanism of Type I hypersensitivity (immediate-type hypersensitivity)?
a) IgG antibodies bind to self-antigens, leading to complement activation
b) IgE antibodies on mast cells degranulate upon contact with allergens
c) T-cell activation leads to cytokine release and tissue inflammation
d) Immune complexes deposit in the blood vessel walls, causing vascular damage
e) B-cells produce autoantibodies against self-antigens
A
B
2
Q
- Which of the following is a classic example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Systemic lupus erythematosus
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Asthma
d) Tuberculosis
e) Multiple sclerosis
A
C
3
Q
- Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in promoting IgE production by B-cells in Type I hypersensitivity?
a) IL-2
b) IL-4
c) IL-6
d) IL-10
e) TNF-alpha
A
B
4
Q
- What is the role of adrenaline in the treatment of anaphylaxis?
a) It inhibits histamine production
b) It reduces IgE production
c) It causes vasoconstriction and bronchodilation to counteract histamine effects
d) It stimulates B-cells to produce more IgE
e) It directly inhibits mast cell degranulation
A
C
5
Q
- Which of the following tests is commonly used to confirm a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
b) Skin prick test
c) Complete blood count (CBC)
d) Rheumatoid factor test
e) Urinary protein test
A
B
6
Q
- What is the purpose of performing a mast cell tryptase test in suspected anaphylaxis?
a) To confirm an autoimmune disorder
b) To detect elevated levels of mast cell degranulation markers
c) To measure the levels of antibodies to Rh antigens
d) To assess B-cell activation
e) To evaluate the function of T-cells
A
B
7
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of the early-phase response in a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
a) Vasodilation
b) Bronchoconstriction
c) Increased peristalsis
d) Eosinophil migration
e) Increased mucous production
A
D
8
Q
- Which immune response is primarily involved in the late-phase response of Type I hypersensitivity?
a) B-cells and IgG antibodies
b) Eosinophils and cytokine release
c) Complement activation
d) Neutrophil chemotaxis
e) CD8+ T-cell cytotoxicity
A
B
9
Q
- What genetic factor predisposes an individual to develop Type I hypersensitivity reactions such as hay fever and asthma?
a) Atopy
b) HLA polymorphism
c) MHC class I variation
d) Rh antigen positivity
e) Deficiency in complement proteins
A
A
10
Q
- In the context of blood transfusion, what does Rh sensitization refer to?
a) Production of antibodies against ABO antigens
b) Formation of antibodies against Rh D antigen after exposure to Rh-positive blood
c) Development of autoantibodies in response to foreign blood cells
d) Increased production of IgM antibodies during the first transfusion
e) The formation of immune complexes in the vascular walls
A
B
11
Q
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Type II hypersensitivity?
a) IgG or IgM antibodies bind to antigens on cell surfaces
b) Complement activation leads to cell lysis
c) Phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes
d) Immune complexes deposit in blood vessels and cause oedema
e) Natural killer (NK) cells contribute to cell destruction
A
D
12
Q
- Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for Type III hypersensitivity reactions?
a) B-cell production of autoantibodies against self-antigens
b) Immune complexes forming between soluble antigens and IgG/IgM
c) Mast cell degranulation after IgE binds to allergens
d) Cytotoxic T-cells directly attacking host cells
e) Eosinophil-mediated inflammation
A
B
13
Q
- Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves T-cell activation and is responsible for conditions like contact dermatitis?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
e) Type V
A
D
14
Q
- What is the role of MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) in T-cell selection?
a) It binds directly to antibodies, enabling antigen presentation
b) It ensures T-cells are positively selected for their ability to recognize self-antigens
c) It enables T-cells to bind to foreign antigens presented by APCs
d) It suppresses the immune response to foreign pathogens
e) It activates B-cells to produce antibodies
A
C
15
Q
- What occurs during central tolerance in T-cell development?
a) T-cells that bind to self-antigens are positively selected
b) T-cells that bind poorly to MHC molecules are eliminated
c) T-cells that strongly bind to self-antigens undergo apoptosis
d) T-cells are activated to produce cytokines and antibodies
e) T-cells differentiate into plasma cells that produce immunoglobulins
A
C
16
Q
- Which of the following correctly describes a person with blood group AB-?
a) Has A and B antigens on erythrocytes and Rh D antigen
b) Has A and B antigens on erythrocytes and no Rh D antigen
c) Has no A or B antigens on erythrocytes and Rh D antigen
d) Has no A or B antigens on erythrocytes and no Rh D antigen
e) Has only A antigen on erythrocytes and no Rh D antigen
A
B
17
Q
- What causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in Rh-negative mothers?
a) Sensitization to A or B antigens in the mother’s first pregnancy
b) Sensitization to Rh D antigen after the mother’s first exposure to Rh-positive blood
c) Formation of autoantibodies against the Rh D antigen
d) Maternal production of IgG antibodies against the ABO antigens
e) The mother’s immune system rejecting the placenta
A
B
18
Q
- What is the most gene-dense region of the human genome that encodes several immune response genes?
a) HLA region on Chromosome 6p21
b) BRCA1 gene on Chromosome 17
c) TP53 gene on Chromosome 17
d) CCR5 gene on Chromosome 3
e) Fc receptor gene on Chromosome 1
A
A
19
Q
A
