106

Question 1

106.1 Discuss the purpose of personnel security [ref. a, chapter 1-1]

Answer 1

• The purpose of the personnel security program is to make a reasonable determination that individuals granted access to classified information or assigned to sensitive positions are and will remain loyal, trustworthy, and reliable.

Question 2

106.2 Define the following classification categories, how they differ, and the color codes
used to identify each one [ref. a, chapter 1-1]

Answer 2

a. TOP SECRET - Orange. Exceptionally grave damage to the national security.
b. SECRET- Red. Serious damage to the national security.
c. CONFIDENTIAL - Blue. Damage to the national security.
d. UNCLASSIFIED - Green. Publications and documents available to the general public.

Question 3

106.3 Explain what is meant by ‘need to know’ [ref. a, appendix 9-2]

Answer 3

• You may have the clearance, but you may not necessarily need to know the information. A ‘need to know’ is based on job description and/or requirements. Just because you are cleared, doesn’t mean you have the right to obtain the information unless it pertains to what you are tasked.

Question 4

106.4 State the type of investigation and how often it is updated for access to the following classification levels [ref. a, chapter 6-4]

Answer 4

a. Top Secret - SSBI - 5 years
b. Secret - NACLC/ANACI - 10 years
c. Confidential - NACLC/ANACI - 15 years
d. SCI - SSBI - 5 years

Question 5

106.5 Identify what a SAER is and its purpose [ref. b]

Answer 5

• Security Access Eligibility Report - Used to identify an incident or any change in eligibility if an employee is still eligible for the security clearance.

Question 6

106.6 Identify the events that should be reported to the SSO [ref. b]

Answer 6

• Financial issues
• Legal issues
• U/A
• Mental Illness
• Marriage to a foreign national
• Anything that could question your character, integrity, physical and mental health needs to be reported.

Question 7

106.7 Identify who has overall authority of, and controls access to, a SCIF [ref. a, chapter 2-9]

Answer 7

• SSO – Special Security Officer

Question 8

106.8 Identify the use of the following forms: [ref. c] SF-700; 701; 702; 703; 153; 312

Answer 8

a. SF700 – Security Container Information
b. SF701 – Activity Security Checklist
c. SF702 – Security Container Check Sheet
d. SF703 – Top Secret Cover Sheet (Orange)
e. SF153 – Comsec Material Report
f. SF312 – Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement

Question 9

106.9 State when safe combinations should be changed. [ref. a, chapter 10-12]

Answer 9

• When a combination lock is first installed or used.
• Combination has been subjected, or believed to have been subjected to compromise.
• If maintenance is performed on the safe .
• If the Combination is subject to (or suspected of) compromise.
• When the safe is taken out of service.
• Every two years.
• At other times when considered necessary by the CSA

Question 10

106.10 What is a DDA and state their responsibilities. [ref. o]

Answer 10

• Designated Disclosure Authority has the authority and responsibility to control disclosures of CMI and CUI to foreign governments and international organizations and their representatives or persons sponsored by them.

Question 11

106.11 State the purpose of the DCS. [ref. d, chapter 1.1.3.1]

Answer 11

• Defense Courier Service is used for the transportation of sensitive classified materials which cannot be transported through public or private means. This is to include SCI and other sensitive material. DCS is operated by the U.S. Transportation Command.

Question 12

106.12 Describe the procedures for preparing hard copy classified material for transportation:

Answer 12

a. 1. DCS Defense Courier Service
No item entering the DCS shall weigh over 300 pounds. Items shall be addressed with the standardized DCS two-line address; the Army/Air Post Office, the Fleet Post Office, and the street addresses shall not be used. Envelopes, labels, or tags with visible “postage and fees paid” indications shall not be used. Security classification markings, special security caveats, and other extraneous markings must not appear on the outer wrapper. Nickname and/or special project markings previously approved by the DCS must be placed on the outer wrapper.
b. 2. Hand carry [ref. e, chapter 9]
Use a classified material cover sheet, file folder, or other covering to prevent inadvertent disclosure when hand carrying classified information within the command. Double-wrap the classified information when hand carrying outside the command. A locked briefcase may serve as the outer cover, except when hand carrying aboard commercial aircraft.

Question 13

106.13 State the responsibilities of the TSCO. [ref. e, chapter 2-3]

Answer 13

• Top Secret Control Officer – Must be an Officer, E-7/GS-7 or above. The Security Manager may serve as the TSCO. Responsible for Maintaining accountability and an annual inventory of all Top Secret material.

Question 14

106.14 State the THREATCON recognition and Force Protection levels and discuss what each represents. [ref. f]

Answer 14

a. THREATCON NORMAL – No known threat indicated.
b. THREATCON ALPHA - General threat of possible terrorist activity against installations and personnel.
c. THREATCON Bravo – Increased and more predictable threat of terrorist action.
d. THREATCON Charlie – An incident has occurred or a terrorist action is imminent.
e. THREATCON Delta – Terrorist attack has occurred.

a. FPCON Normal - No current terrorist activity.
b. FPCON Alpha - Small and general terrorist activity that is not predictable.
c. FPCON Bravo - Somewhat predictable terrorist threat.
d. FPCON Charlie – An incident has occurred terrorist activity is imminent.
e. FPCON Delta - Terrorist attack is taking place or has just occurred.

Question 15

106.15 Explain the following terms. RAM; PSP; ATFP

Answer 15

a. RAM -Random Antiterrorism Measures. To maximize the effectiveness and deterrence value, RAM should be implemented without a set pattern, either in terms of the measure selected, time, place, or other variables.
b. PSP -Personnel Security Program: Used to authorize initial and continued access to classified information and/or initial and continued assignment to sensitive duties.
c. ATFP -Anti-Terrorism Force Protection: Actions taken to prevent or mitigate hostile actions against Department of Defense personnel (to include family members), resources, facilities and critical information.

Question 16

106.16 Explain and state the purpose of an EAP. [ref. g, appendix l]

Answer 16

• Emergency Action Plan - A plan for the protection of classified material in the event of natural disasters (e.g., fire, flood, tornado, and earthquakes). The purpose of an EAP is to ensure safety of personnel and security of cryptologic material in any emergency. An EAP Coordinator will be designated in writing by the CO.

Question 17

106.17 Explain and state the purpose of Emergency Destruction Procedures.

Answer 17

• Prescribes policy and procedures for planning, protecting, and destroying COMSEC material during emergency conditions. Planning must take into consideration its potential effect on national security should holdings fall into hostile hands (e.g., terrorist attack, rioting, or civil uprising). There are two kinds of Emergency Destruction Procedures – Precautionary and Complete.

Question 18

106.18 State who can give the order to initiate Emergency Destruction.

Answer 18

• The Commanding Officer.

Question 19

106.19 Explain how, and in what order, material is destroyed during Emergency Destruction

Answer 19

• Various methods and equipment may be used to destroy classified information that Includes burning, cross-cut shredding, wet-pulping, mutilation, chemical decomposition, or pulverizing. Priority one – Top Secret, priority two – Secret, priority three - Confidential

Question 20

106.20 Define SCI. [ref. a, Appendix a]

Answer 20

• Sensitive Compartmented Information - Information and material that requires special controls for restricted handling within formal access control systems.

Question 21

106.21 List the items prohibited in a SCIF and the security risks associated with them. [ref. h]

Answer 21

• No device that transmits, receives, records or stores data is authorized into a SCIF without prior approval (i.e CO or SSO or ISSM). Photography is not allowed in or around a SCIF without CO approval. The ISSM must approve ALL IT software prior to its use in a SCIF.

Question 22

106.22 Define the difference between a security violation and a practice dangerous to security. [ref. b]

Answer 22

• Security Violation – a compromise of classified info to persons not authorized to receive it. A security violation requires investigation.
• PDS – A failure to comply with the provisions of security regulations which causes a potential compromise of classified information.

Question 23

106.23 Explain the security requirements for the following: SCIF; T-SCIF

Answer 23

• SCIF [ref. j, i]
• Category I: When an exterior wall is common with an uncontrolled area. (i.e. not controlled at a SECRET or equivalent proprietary)
• Category II: When the exterior of a SCIF is in a controlled area.
• T-SCIF [ref. h]
• A Tactical SCIF shall have the appearance and construction standards of a standard shipping container and will contain lights, AC outlets, data ports and a HVAC system with the only inputs being power, phone/data and outside air.

Question 24

106.24 Explain vault recertification and recurring inspections. [ref. b]

Answer 24

• The container or vault door must be inspected and recertified by a person specifically trained and authorized by the GSA before it can be used to protect classified material. Upon completion of the inspection, a “GSA Approved Recertified Security Container” label will be applied.

Question 25

106.25 Discuss the need for access lists, required documentation logs, and two-person integrity. [ref. g, chapter 5]

Answer 25

• Access Lists are lists that specify who or what is allowed to access the object or place of interest. Visitors who are not part of the command are required to sign the visitor’s log in the specific space that they are visiting.
• Required Documentation Logs, such as a deck log or event log are used for written documentation of events that occur within a space.
• TPI is required to prevent loss or compromise of classified material.

Question 26

106.26 Explain the DoD escort policy. [ref. a, chapter 11]

Answer 26

• Personnel visiting a secure space who have not been granted access to the level of classified material in the space shall be escorted at all times. The visitor will remain in view of the escort at all times. Only command personnel, either military or civilian may be designated s escorts for a visitor. At no time will a visitor cleared for access be designated as an escort for an uncleared person.

Question 27

106.27 Discuss the procedures for sanitizing an area. [ref. b]

Answer 27

• Sanitizing shall include the removal of data from the media, classified labels, markings, and activity logs so that personnel without a need to know have no access.

Question 28

106.28 Discuss each of the following, giving their definition and the purpose of each: COMSEC; INFOSEC; COMPUSEC

Answer 28

a. 1. COMSEC [ref. g, chapter 1]
Communications Security: Protective measures taken to deny unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications of the U.S. Government concerning national security.
b. 2. INFOSEC [ref. q]
Information Security: As a subset of IA, it is the protection of information and information systems against unauthorized access or modification.
c. 3. COMPUSEC [ref. r, chapter 10]
Computer Security: Measures and controls that ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information processed and stored by a computer.

Question 29

106.29 State the purpose of the ICD system. [ref. l]

Answer 29

• Intelligence Community Directive. The Director of National Intelligence (DNI) established Intelligence Community Directives (ICDs) as the principal means by which the DNI provides guidance, policy, and direction to the Intelligence Community.

Question 30

106.30 Identify SSO Navy. [ref a. chapter 1-5]

Answer 30

• The SSO Navy is responsible for implementing SCI security policy and procedures and performs management and oversight of the Department’s SCI security program.

Question 31

106.31 List the duties and responsibilities of the SSO. [ref. e, chapter 2-8]

Answer 31

1. Supervises the operation of the special security office and administers the SCI security.
2. Maintains applicable SCI directives, regulations, manuals, and guidelines to adequately discharge SSO duties and responsibilities.
3. Serves as the official channel for certifying and receiving SCI visitor clearances/accesses.
4. Conducts or otherwise manages SCI personnel, information, physical, and technical security actions and procedures.
5. Provides guidance and assistance for processing SCI position and eligibility requests.
6. Conducts SCI security briefings, indoctrinations, and debriefings.
7. Investigates SCI security infractions, making recommendations and preparing required reports.
8. Conducts a continuing SCI security education training and awareness. .

Question 32

106.32 Identify who can be a CSM. [ref. e, chapter 2-2]

Answer 32

• Must be a GS-11 or Officer, be appointed by the CO, and have a favorable SSBI within the last 5 years.

Question 33

106.33 State the duties and responsibilities of a CSM. [ref. e, chapter 2-2]

Answer 33

• The Command Security Manager is responsible for the storage and destruction of all classified information as well as establishing the Emergency Action Plan.

Question 34

106.34 Explain and state the purpose of JPAS. [ref. k, jpas-overview.htm]

Answer 34

• Joint Personnel Adjudication System is the virtual consolidation of the DoD Central Adjudication Facility (CAFs).
• NOTE: JPAS has been replaced with the Defense Information Security System (DISS)

Question 35

106.35 Explain and state the responsibilities of DODCAF. [ref. k, doncaf-index.htm]

Answer 35

• Department of Defense Central Adjudication Facility. Apply national adjudicative guidelines to background information gathered mainly in investigations conducted by the Office of Personnel Management (OPM).

Question 36

106.36 Discuss how long a Commanding Officer can administratively suspend access before DODCAF revokes a clearance. [ref. b]

Answer 36

• One Year.

Question 37

106.37 Discuss the security rules and procedures for magnetic and electronic media. [ref. m]

Answer 37

• All removable storage media bearing classified information must be conspicuously marked with the highest level of classification stored on the device and any special control notices that apply to the information. As an exception, in the case of CD-ROMs, the label may be affixed to the sleeve or container in which the CD-ROM is stored.