1 Renal T Flashcards

1
Q

What complication is common in AR PCKD?

A

in babies; resp. distress

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2
Q

What components are in PSGN complexes?

A

IgG IgM C3

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3
Q

What is MCC pediatric hemorrhagic cystitis?

A

Adenovirus (Type 11 & 21)

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4
Q

What happens to Pronephros Mesonephros

A

fill in

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5
Q

Describe Renal Angiomyolipoma

A

Bilateral renal masses composed of fat, smooth mm, and blood vessels often found with ‘ash-leaf’ patches. Often concurrent with tuberous sclerosis an AD condition

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6
Q

Where do uric acid crystals form and why?

A

Collecting ducts b/c they precipitate at acidic pH’s

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7
Q

What are the symptoms of amphotericin B?

A

nephrotoxic (decreased GFR, anemia, electrolyte imbalances (hypokalemia))

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8
Q

Hypokalemia causes what EKG changes?

A

flattened T waves, ST depression, PVCs, and U waves

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9
Q

Digoxin is cleared by…?

A

Renal System

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10
Q

Fabry disease inheritance?

A

X-linked recessive

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11
Q

What are the symptoms found in Fabry disease?

A

neuropathic pain, hypohidrosis, angiokeratoma, telangectasias, cardiomyopathy,

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12
Q

From what part of the kidney does most Renal Cell Carcinomas arise from?

A

proximal renal tubules

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13
Q

From what part of the kidney does most Renal Oncocytomas arise from?

A

collecting duct cells

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14
Q

From what part of the kidney do most papillary tumors arise from?

A

urothelium

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15
Q

Overflow Incontinence can be induced by which of the following?

A

1) diabetic autonomic neuropathy 2) impaired detrusor activity 3) bladder outlet obstruction

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of Henloch-Schloen

A

GI pain w/ rupturing vasculitis (bleeding), Berger Renal disease, palpable purpura, arthralgia

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17
Q

What does primase do?

A

Synthesizes short RNA fragments from DNA to act as starting points for DNA poly III

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18
Q

Possible adverse effect of mannitol?

A

pulmonary edema

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19
Q

Basement membrane splitting on IF is seen with what?

A

Alport syndrome and MPGN

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20
Q

Metabolic alkalosis workup includes?

A

volume status and urine chloride (low in vomiting)

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21
Q

What commonly causes metabolic alkalosis

A

vomiting, thiazides/loops, hyperaldosteronism

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22
Q

What can happen with excess loops/thiazides?

A

RAA activation with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

23
Q

How does constricting the efferent arteriole affect GFR and RPF?

A

increases GFR/decreases RPF; INCREASES FF

24
Q

Which stone is most common and what are the risk factors?

A

calcium stones; hypercalciuria is MC risk factor and they are typically normocalcemia

25
Q

What does DDAVP do?

A

Activate V2 and insert aquaporins AND increase urea uptake to increase gradient

26
Q

What are two buffers for urine H excretion?

A

NH3 and HPO4

27
Q

What causes urine discharge from umbilicus?

A

persistant allantois

28
Q

What causes meconium discharge from umbilicus?

A

persistant yolk stalk

29
Q

PSGN prognosis is primarily influenced by what?

A

age

30
Q

What does NSAIDs do to the kidneys?

A

chronic interstitial nephritis

31
Q

Causes of Oligohydramnios

A

Renal issue i.e. agencies/post urethral valves/etc. leading to lack of production of amniotic fluid

32
Q

Causes of polyhydramnios

A

GI tract obstruction issue resulting in lack of ability to swallow

33
Q

What does BPH lead to?

A

straining to urinate. eventually bladder hypertrophy to increase force and dilation of renal calyces/pelvis

34
Q

What is most dangerous in recovery phase of ATN?

A

Hypokalemia due to the massive diuresis

35
Q

What is seen in maintenance phase of ATN?

A

edema, hyperkalemia, AG met acidosis,

36
Q

What is grapefruit juice’s effect on Rx metabolism?

A

GUT P450’s

37
Q

Spleen and Left Kidney location

A

Spleen (rib 9-11) Left Kidney (rib 12)

38
Q

What bladder issues arise after MS?

A

UMN lesion resulting in spastic bladder

39
Q

What is the macula densa?

A

modified smooth mm cells of afferent arteriole

40
Q

MC UTI bug

A

E. Coli (80%)

41
Q

Ureter blood supply proximally, midline, distally?

A

Renal, gonadal, superior vesicular

42
Q

What to be weary of with psych patients?

A

Lithium - vasopressin antagonist

43
Q

What do calcium oxalate crystals suggest?

A

ethylene glycol poisoning

Chron’s Dx - hyperoxaluria

44
Q

In severe hypovolemia what happens to RPF, GFR, and FF?

A

RPF DECREASED; GFR decreased (ATII attempts to increase), FF INCREASED

45
Q

What is the MC RCC and what does it look like?

A

clear cell, stuffed with glycogen

46
Q

What test for aminoaciduria?

A

Na CN-nitroprusside test

47
Q

When does ADPKD manifest?

A

40-50

48
Q

What do you see in acute hemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

fever, chills, back/chest pain, hypotension, dyspnea

T2HS complement mediated lysis

49
Q

WBC casts w/ pain vs w/o pain

A

w/ pain = pyelonephritis

w/o pain = acute interstitial nephritis

50
Q

What are the dibasic aa’s not absorbed in cysteinuria?

A

Cysteine Ornithine Lysine Arginina (COLA)

51
Q

What are acetazolimides affects on calcium and why?

A

induces metabolic acidosis which induces bone breakdown in attempt to buffer leading to worsening hypercalciuria

52
Q

How to decrease oxalate

A

calcium will bind and keep it in the gut; B6 will decrease endogenous production

53
Q

Risk factors for uroepithelial cancer?

A

smoking, rubber, plastic, textiles, leather, aromatic amine dyes

54
Q

Multiple myeloma presents with what?

A

fatigue, back pain, increased serum protein, constipation, renal failure