1 MSK T Flashcards

1
Q

What causes caudal regression syndrome?

A

maternal DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What can Vit A OD in pregnancy cause?

A

craniofacial abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Safest place for gluteal injections

A

Superolateral quadrant or von Hochstätter triangle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is trendelenburg gait and what causes it?

A

Hip drops when ipsilateral foot is off ground. Caused by contralateral superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Giant cell temporal arteritis tied with…

A

IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What antibody is best to Ddx RA

A

NOT Igm anti-Fc IgG; but instead anti-CCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is AR and benign as a kid but causes arthritis as an adult. Shows as blue-black deposits on eyes and ears?

A

Alkaptonuria - lack of homogentisic acid dioxygenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hereditary angioedema is associate with what deficiency?

A

C1 inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what symptoms does colchicine cause and why

A

nausea, vomiting, diarrhea bc stopping microtubules messes with GI mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How to differentiate between bone and liver Alk Phos

A

Bone will denature in high heat (bone-boil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What innervates the sole of the foot, posterior calf, plantar flexes, and inversion?

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Loss of sensation at medial aspect of the leg

A

saphenous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symptoms of Churgg-Strauss

A

eosinophilic granulomatosis w/ anti-myeloperoxidase; late-onset asthma, asymmetrical multifocal neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anti-SSA/SSB are in what?

A

Sjogren’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Anti-histone is in

A

Rx induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain dystonia

A

involuntary prolonged mm contractions leading to body in abnormal positions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

where does hematogenous osteomyelitis typically spread

A

metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How to differentiate osteoblast/osteoclast

A
blast = 1x nuclei
clast = 100x nuclei
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RANK/RANKL activates what

A

NFkB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteoarthritis/RA arthritis affects which spinal segments

A

lumbar/cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

2x MC causes of hematogenous osteomyelitis in kids

A

S. aureas > Strep. pyeogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Gout causes overprotective and underexcretion

A

myelo/lympho proliferative/ tumor lysis HGPRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RA joint tap

A

many leukocytes with no crystals or bacteria

24
Q

Rhomboid crystals in joint tap

A

pseudogout

25
What is pilocarpine
muscarinic agonist
26
What is fluoxetine
SSRI
27
What's going on in Acute Rheumatic Fever and MCC acute death
hypersensitivity (TII and TIII) and pancarditis
28
When is NSAIDs contraindicated in gout?
Hx peptid ulcer Dx
29
What does colchicine bind to
tubulin in microtubles
30
Visual disturbances, jaw claudication, polymyalgia rheumatica
Giant Cell Arteritis - check ESR
31
Myasthenia graves associated with
thymoma or thymic hyperplasia
32
When do you find a 'rosary chest'
rickets
33
delayed umbilical cord seperation
myeloperoxidase deficiency/LAD
34
PRPP mutations leading to increased activity lead to
gout
35
Lateral/Medial foot lymphadenopathy
lateral hits popliteal and inguinal whereas medial goes straight up to superficial
36
Chronic/Acute Tx of RA
DMARDs are chronic - sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, minocycline, TNFalpha inhibitor Acute - glucocorticoids, NSAIDs
37
Pathogenesis of polymyositis
overexertion of MHCI on sarcolemma causes CD8 destruction
38
Presenting symptoms of MG/Lambert-Eaton
ocular mm/extremeties
39
Polymyalgia Rheumatica shows
shoulder and pelvis weakness (pain) in face of systemic symptoms i.e. weight loss/fever
40
Succinylcholine adverse effects
hyperthermia, brady/tachycardia, severe hyperkalemia
41
Explain what in mm senses stretch/tension and how it responds
Sense stretch - intrafusal fibers (Ia/II) induces contraction to resist Sense tension - GolgiTendonOrgans (Ib) induces relaxation
42
How to increase azathioprine's effects?
give allopurinol, it inhibits X.O. which
43
How does tacrolimus work?
block calcineruin - activates TF in Tlymph production
44
What are the SERMs and what do they do
raloxifen (breast cancer AND osteoporosis AND antagonistic on uterus i.e. endometriosis) tamoxifen (breast cancer)
45
What is leupromide
GnRH agonist - stim estrogen when given pulsatile
46
Type I/II mm fibers histology/metabolism/location
Type I - aerobic/lots of mitochondria/myoglobin rich/glycogen poor/postural mm Type II - anerobic
47
How do you reverse NMJ blockade?
neostigmine (AChEi)
48
What type of blocker results in an equally diminished TOF then a progressive block?
depolarizing i.e. succinylcholine
49
McHune Albright Syndrome
fibrous dysplasia, endocrine abnormalities, cafe-au-lait spots
50
What should be frequently monitored with Anklyosing spondylitis
Chest Expansion
51
Lambert-Eaton/Myasthenia Gravis/Guillian-Barre
Ab against presynaptic Ca2+ channels/Ab against post synaptic ACh R/demyelination
52
Osteogenesis imperfecta pathogenesis
Type I collagen defect
53
Radial head subluxation tear
annular ligament
54
Which artery can cause osteonecrosis of the femoral head?
medial circumflex femoral
55
proton pump inhibitors do what to osteoporosis risk
increase bc you need acid environment to aid in calcium absorption
56
What forms the Achilles tendon
gastrocnemius and soleus
57
Osgood-Schlatter Dx
overuse of the apophysis of the tibial tubercle