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UK APS > Written Exam Question Bank > Flashcards

Written Exam Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?

A

(EU)2015/340

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2
Q

What details must appear on an ATC licence?

A
  1. State issuing the licence
  2. Title of the licence
  3. Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
  4. Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
  5. Competent authority
  6. Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
  7. Signature of issuing officer and date
  8. Seal or stamp of competent authority
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3
Q

For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?

A
  1. Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
  2. Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
  3. Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
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4
Q

What is the suspension of an ATC licence?

A

To place licences, ratings or endorsements in abeyance, with conditions set.

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5
Q

What is the revocation of an ATC licence?

A

The act of withdrawing licences, ratings or endorsements

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6
Q

WIthin what time period must an MOR be filed?

A

72 hours

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7
Q

What must accompany an ATC licence?

A

Valid medical certificate, and language proficiency

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8
Q

How many licences may a person hold?

A

One

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9
Q

From what weight limit does an ACN/PCN apply?

A

Aircraft above 5700kgs

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10
Q

TORA for runway 26 is 2271, LDA is 1970. What is the length of the displaced threshold?

A

301m

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11
Q

TORA for runway 08 is 2271, LDA is 1838. What is the length of the displaced threshold?

A

433m

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12
Q

What colour are runway markings?

A

White

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13
Q

What colour are taxiway markings?

A

Yellow

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14
Q

What is a “Just Culture”?

A

A culture in which “front-line operators or others are not punished for actions, omissions or decisions taken by them that are commensurate with their experience or training, but where gross negligence, wilful violations and destructive acts are not tolerated”

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15
Q

What is the spacing between lights on tall buildings/obstructions? What colour are these lights?

A

45m, red lights

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16
Q

What does aerodrome lighting provide the pilot with?

A

Location
Orientation
Alignment
Roll guidance
Limited distance to go

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17
Q

List the lighting categories and their associated minima

A
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18
Q

List the precision approach runway categories and associated minima

A
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19
Q
A
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20
Q

Define a non-precision instrument runway

A

An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at least directional guidance adequate for a straight in approach.

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21
Q

Define a precision approach runway

A

An instrument runway intended for the operation of a/c using precision approach aids that meet the facility performance requirements defined in ICAO Annex 10 appropriate to the categories of ops

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22
Q

When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions

When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II

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23
Q

Which transponder mode, A or C, gives altitude?

A

C

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24
Q

Who is responsible for terrain clearance for VFR flights?

A

Pilot

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25
Q

Who is responsible for terrain clearance for IFR flights?

A

Approach Control except when A/C cleared for a visual approach or in class F & G airspace

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26
Q

What is the definition of a holding procedure?

A

A pre-determined manoeuvre which keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance.

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27
Q

Which direction is a standard holding pattern?

A

Right

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28
Q

At what rate are hold turns made?

A

Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)

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29
Q

What are the normal holding speeds you would expect to see below 14000ft?

A

CAT A & B 170KIAS
CAT C, D & E- 230 KIAS

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30
Q

How long usually is an outbound leg in a hold?

A

1 min (1.5 above 14000ft)

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31
Q

What is an EAT?

A

Expected Approach Time

The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing

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32
Q

When shall an EAT be issued?

A

When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 10 mins or more (or as determined by authority)

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33
Q

When shall an EAT be revised?

A

When it differs from the original EAT by 5 min or more (or as determined by the authority)

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34
Q

List the types of precision approach

A

PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)

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35
Q

List the types of non-precision approach

A

RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF

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36
Q

What is the definition of a precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation

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37
Q

What is the definition of a non-precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance

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38
Q

When is an a/c deemed to be stabilised on the approach?

A

A/C on correct flight path
Small inputs required to maintain correct flight path
A/C in landing configuration
Sink rate no greater than 1000ft/min
All briefings and checks complete

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39
Q

What are the segements of the instrument approach?

A
  1. Arrival
  2. Initial (IAF IF)
  3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP)
  4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt)
  5. Missed Approach
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40
Q

What are the segements of the missed approach?

A

Initial – MAPt to Start of Climb

Intermediate – Start of climb to 150ft obstacle clearance

Final – 150ft obstacle clearance to point where new approach/hold/en-route phase begins

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41
Q

What can a missed approach point be?

A

Decision height/altitude

Nav facility

Fix

Specified distance from Final approach Fix

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42
Q

What is the ICAO definition of identification?

A

The situation which exists when the position indication of a particular a/c is seen on a situation display and is positively identified

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43
Q

What is the definition of the act of identification?

A

The act of correlating a particular position indication with a specific a/c target by means of laid down procedures.

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44
Q

What are the methods of PSR identification?

A

Turn method

Departing Aircraft Method

Position report method

Transfer of identification

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45
Q

By how many degrees must an a/c be instructed to turn for identification using the turn method?

A

30 degrees or more

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46
Q

What must you consider before instructing an a/c to turn for the purpose of identification?

A

Terrain

PSR coverage

Other surveillance returns

Rules of the Air

Proximity of airspace

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47
Q

Within what distance must an aircraft be identified using the departing a/c method?

A

1nm from the end of the runway in use

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48
Q

What must be considered when using the departure method?

A

Aircraft overflying the airfield

Aircraft making missed approach

Aircraft departed from an adjacent runway

Aircraft holding overhead the airfield

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49
Q

What ways can a position report be used for identification?

A

Using a report over an exact reporting point shown on the situation display

Reporting their DME distance and range from a facility displayed on the situation display

Reporting over a notified visual reporting point displayed on the situation display

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50
Q

What is an exact reporting point?

A

A point established;

Overhead a VOR or NDB

Notified fix defined by VOR radial or a VOR radial and a bearing from an NDB

Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME

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51
Q

Within what distance from a DME can an a/c report be used for identification?

A

30nm

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52
Q

How can transfer of identification be effected?

A

Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt

Notification of the aircrafts discrete SSR code or aircraft address

Notification that the a/c is Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an ident feature when coverage is available

Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used.

Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both ATCO’s
Not more than 30nm from the VOR/DME facility

Instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the and accepting controller observes this

Issuing an instruction to squawk IDENT and accepting controller observes this

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53
Q

When shall an a/c be informed of their position?

A

Upon identification, except when identification is established:
Based on pilots report of aircraft position or within 1nm of the runway on departure
By use of ADS-B/Mode S ident or assigned discrete SSR code
By transfer of identification

When pilot requests this information

When pilots estimated position differs significantly from controllers estimate based on observed position

When pilot instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring If current instructions had deviated from assigned route

Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service if a/c observed to deviate from intended route

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54
Q

How is position information passed to a/c?

A

Reference to a well-known geographical position

Magnetic track and distance to significant point, an en-route aid or approach aid

Direction (using compass point) and distance from known position

Distance to touchdown when on final approach

Distance & direction from centre line of ATS route

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55
Q

What actions should an ATCO take in the event of misidentification?

A

Tell pilot to resume own navigation

Climb aircraft to safe level

Provide vertical separation/pass ETI

Continue to search for aircraft

Cancel any descent clearance and advise pilot to climb to original level

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56
Q

If identification is lost what action must be taken?

A

Inform pilot that identification is lost

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57
Q

What is the definition of Radar Map

A

Information superimposed on a situation display to provide ready identification of selected features

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58
Q

What is the definition of video mapping?

A

The electronic superimposing of a. map or plan on a situation display

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59
Q

Is it possible to achieve identification and validation simultaneously?

A

Yes

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60
Q

What is verification?

A

A check that the a/c’s mode C readout is within agreed parameters

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61
Q

What is validation?

A

Checking that the correct code has been selected by the pilot and is showing on the situation display

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62
Q

An Approach control surveillance (APS) rating entitles the holder to act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service…

A

… with the use of surveillance equipment

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63
Q

The approach control surveillance rating has…

A

…associated SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments

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64
Q

A surveillance radar approach rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…

A

…non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment

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65
Q

What is meant by an Approach Procedure with Vertical Guidance (APV)?

A

An instrument approach utilitsing barometric vertical guidance as well as lateral guidance but which does not meet the full requirements established for precision approach and landing ops

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66
Q

What is GNSS?

A

A generic term for all satellite nav systems

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67
Q

The minimum decision height for Localiser Performance Approaches with vertical guidance (LPVs) is…

A

200ft

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68
Q

“A method of navigation which permits a/c operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based nav aids or within the limits of the capability of on board self-contained systems, or a combination of these” is the definition of:

A

RNAV

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69
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot reports “TCAS RA”?

A

Acknowledge by saying “C/S roger”

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70
Q

After a pilot has reported “TCAS RA” when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?

A

When the pilot reports “clear of conflict”

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71
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?

A

Pass appropriate pressure setting

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72
Q

Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed

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73
Q

A radar handover may be effected provided that…

A

…satisifactory two-way comms is available between them

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74
Q

Prior to transfer of responsibility, the accepting controller is to be informed of…

A

any level or vectoring instructions

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75
Q

If the SSR is not available, a controller may transfer identity of an a/c to another controller by;

A

Any of the above methods

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76
Q

When the identity of an a/c is transferred from one controller to another by stating the bearing and distance of the a/c from a geographical position what is the max distance between a/c and ref point permitted by ICAO?

A

No limit specified by ICAO but national regulatory authorities may specify limits for use in their own countries

77
Q

A mode C readout associated with a conspicuity squawy is considered…

A

…unverified

78
Q

A/C may be instructed to squawk 0000…

A

when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt

79
Q

The minimum mode C accuracy tolerance which ICAO permits national regulatory authorities to specify for use within their own countries is;

A

+/- 200ft

80
Q

According to ICAO procedures when can an a/c be said to have vacated a level once it has acknowledged a climb or descent instruction?

A

Mode C indicates more than 300ft away from the level

81
Q

How long is a standard 5-bar approach lighting system?

A

900m

82
Q

On a runway with a displace threshold with no reduction in TORA the…

A

landing distance available will be less than take-off run available

83
Q

A pilot slightly below the correct glide path will see the PAPIs displaying

A

1 white and 3 red lights

84
Q

Aerodrome elevation is;

A

The elevation of the highest point of the landing area

85
Q

When both SSR and PSR are available, the “identification on departure” method may be used…

A

…by observing the PSR return

86
Q

When employing the turn method of identification, what size of tuen is required under ICAO procedures?

A

30 degrees or more

87
Q

According to ICAO procedures, the departing a/c method of identification must be completed before the a/c passes a point how far from the end of the runway?

A

1nm

88
Q

According to ICAO procedures, a position report should be passed to a pilot after identification

A

all of the above

89
Q

A step-down fix is provided, if necessary;

A

to ensure obstacle clearance during the final appraoch segment of an instrument approach procedure

90
Q

The VM(C) OCA is designed for use by…

A

A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway

91
Q

On reaching his decision altitude a pilot must commence a missed approach unless…

A

…They have established visual reference

92
Q

The principle whereby airspace is not designated as purely civil or military but is considered one single continuum within which the requirements of all airspace users should be accomodated to the maximum extent is called?

A

Flexible use of airspace

93
Q

According to the principle of FUA any segregation of airspace should be;

A

Short-term

94
Q

The body responsible for day-to-day management of airspace within the FUA concept is known as the;

A

Airspace management cell

95
Q

A cross border area is…

A

…A TRA or TSA which straddles one or more international boundaries

96
Q

What is the definition of Transition Altitude?

A

The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an a/c is normally controlled by reference to altitude

97
Q

Complete the definition; the transition level is the lowest flight level available for use above the (………………………)

A

Transition altitude

98
Q

Complete the definition; the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level is called the (……………………………..)

A

Transition layer

99
Q

What is the QFE if QNH is 1021hPa and airfield elevation is 180ft?

A

1015hPa

100
Q

According to ICAO, a/c being vectored inside CAS should be kept a minimum of how far away from the CAS boundary?

A

Half of the separation distance required within that area of CAS or 2.5nm whichever is greater

101
Q

Why do pilots normally use a gyro direction indicator, rather than a magnetic compass to steer by?

A

The compass is inherently inaccuratev during turns

102
Q

What is the minimum distance from touchdown an a/c should intercept the localiser during a radar vectored ILS approach?

A

5nm

103
Q

What is the standard protected range of an ILS glide path?

A

10 miles and 8 degrees either side of the centreline

104
Q

Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?

A

Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME

105
Q

What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?

A

The a/c’s Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight

106
Q

What is the purpose of a limiting DME?

A

To limit the length of the outbound leg

107
Q

How long does a standard holding pattern take at or below 14,000ft?

A

4 minutes

108
Q

Assuming a rate one turn how long will an a/c take to complete one orbit?

A

2 minutes

109
Q

When may speed control not be applied by ATC?

A

Inside 4nm from touchdown

110
Q

To what speed limit are most civil a/c restricted to below FL100 in classes E, F and G airspace?

A

250kt IAS

111
Q

What is meant by an a/c’s minimum clean speed?

A

The minimum speed the a/c can fly without deploying high-lift devices

112
Q

When a/c are holding for weather improvement what should the first a/cs hold be advised about the delay?

A

No traffic delay expected

113
Q

What is meant by RVR?

A

Runway Visual Range

A more localised assessment of the vis in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m

114
Q

Complete the sentence
One a 4F runway capable of Cat II/III ops there will be three IRVR sensing locations situated adjacent to the (……………….),(………………..) & (………………….) of the runway

A

touchdown zone, midpoint and stopend

115
Q

In what increments are RVR values in excess of 800m reported?

A

100m

116
Q

What system enables use of control surfaces and high lift devices, as well as undercarriage retraction, nose wheel steering etc on most large a/c?

A

Hydraulics

117
Q

One undesirable effect of a late change of runway or type or approach is;

A

An unstabilised approach

118
Q

Complete the sentence, an a/c which is unable to lower its flpas will touchdown at a (………………..) speed than normal and have a (…………………) than normal landing roll.

A

higher longer

119
Q

Extension of high lift devices has which of the following effects on an a/c?

A

Increases lift, increases drag, increases fuel consumption, allows the a/c to fly at a lower speed

120
Q

What class of airspace are ATZs?

A

The same class as the airspace in which they are situated

121
Q

What is the definition of a Control Zone?

A

A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit

122
Q

What is the definition of a Terminal Control Area?

A

A control are normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes

123
Q

What is the minimum level that the lower limit of a CTA can be?

A

700ft AGL

124
Q

In which classes of airspace is separation provided between all flights?

A

Classes A and B only

125
Q

In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate?

A

Classes B to G only

126
Q

In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?

A

Class E, F and G only

127
Q

In what classes of airspace are VFR flights separated from IFR flights?

A

B and C only

128
Q

What communication equipment must be carried by all a/c except gliders and self-launching motor gliders wishing to operate within CAS in Europe below FL195?

A

VHF RTF capable of maintaining direct two-way comms with the appropriate ATC units on the intended route using the frequencies notified or otherwise designated by the competent authority for that purpose

129
Q

The term used to describe the coverage of an RTF station is;

A

Designated operational coverage

130
Q

What are the two levels of Mode S?

A

Elementary and Enhanced

131
Q

What does transponder code 7500 indicate?

A

Unlawful intereference

132
Q

What should ATC do, provided if an a/cs transponder fails whilst it is flying in transponder mandatory airspace?

A

Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan

133
Q

What should ATC allow an a/c to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a transponder is manadatory?

A

Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.

134
Q

Complete the following statement;

After a complete radar failure, if standard vertical sep cannot be establisehd immediately, emergency vertical sep of (……..) that standard separation may be used temporarily

A

half

135
Q

If the ILS localiser fails…

A

…the ILS cannot be used.

136
Q

How can an a/c be identified by SSR means?

A

Observing compliance with the instruction to set a discrete four-digit code

Recognising a previously validated four-digit code- Code/callsign conversion procedures may also be used

Observing an IDENT feature when requested and observing the code numbers associated with the SSR response

137
Q

What must be considered when using squawk ident?

A

Possibility of misidentification from simultaneous requests to ident

Ident cannot be used on conspicuity or special purpose codes

138
Q

How can validation take place?

A

(1) Instructing the aircraft to squawk the assigned code and observing that the
correct numbers appear on the situation display;

(2) Instructing the aircraft to “squawk IDENT” and simultaneously checking the
code numbers associated with the SSR response;

(3) Matching an already identified Position Indication with the assigned code for
the flight.

139
Q

If observed Mode A readout does not correlate with assigned code, what should your actions be?

A

Instruct aircraft to reset the code

Instruct aircraft to squawk A0000 if problem persists or turn transponder off

140
Q

When may an SSR code be deemed validated?

A

When the code set can be recognised by the assignment plan to have been assigned by a unit capable of validating the code providing the code is not notified as corrupt

141
Q

When should verification be carried out?

A

On initial contact or as soon as possible thereafter

142
Q

What action should you take in the event of a discrepancy between the Mode C and pilot report?

A

Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again

Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication

Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC

143
Q

When is it determined that an a/c is occupying a specific level?

A

RVSM airspace: +/-200ft

Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft

144
Q

When is an a/c considered to have reached a level to which it has been cleared?

A

When 3 display updates/15 seconds whichever the greater indicate the a/c is maintaining a level

145
Q

When is an a/c considered to have vacated a level?

A

When mode C indicates a change of more than 300ft in the anticipated direction from previous level

146
Q

When is it permitted to vector outside CAS?

A

In an emergency

To avoid severe weather

When requested by the pilot

147
Q

What action should be taken when a flight is observed to be on a conflicting path with an unknown a/c?

A

Inform the aircraft of the unknown aircraft and if requested or deemed necessary, give avoiding action

Notify pilot when conflict no longer exists

148
Q

What discrepancy may lead you to believe an a/c’s compass/gyro is erroneous?

A

> 10 degrees between track observed and expected

149
Q

If an ATCO is vectoring an a/c with no compass/no gyro what must the pilot be instructed?

A

To make all turns rate 1

150
Q

What is the ILS protected range (LLZ)?

A

10 degrees either side of FAT to 25nm

35 degrees either side of FAT to 17nm

151
Q

Speed control cannot be applied after what point?

A

4 DME

152
Q

Speed control is applied in multiples of how many kts?

A

10kts

153
Q

What are the minimum speeds that may be applied to departing a/c?

A

Jets- 230kts
Non-jet- 150kts
Helis- 60kts

154
Q

What is a SRA?

A

Surveillance Radar Approach

A non-precision approach using information derived from a situation display to guide a/c along the final approach track

155
Q

What is the MAPt for an SRA?

A

Usually at 2nm, where the Radar Approach terminates, can be at 1nm when operationally advantageous

156
Q

When shall an a/c on an SRA be instructed to carry out a missed approach

A

On instruction from ADC/APC

When landing clearance is not obtained by 2nm (or other distance agreed with ADC)

When the aircraft appears dangerously positioned on final approach

157
Q

When is an a/c advised to carry out a missed approach when on an SRA?

A

If it reaches a position from which it appears a successful approach cannot be completed

If the a/c is not visible on the situation display for any significant interval during the last 2nm of approach

If the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any portion of the final approach

158
Q

Can you carry out an SRA with only SSR?

A

No an approved PSR and procedure must be in place

159
Q

What must approved equipment show for SRAs?

A

Final approach track and ranges from touchdown

160
Q

Can a ATCO provide an SRA terminating at less than 2nm from touchdown while controlling other a/c?

A

No, the SRA should be their only one

161
Q

What increment of heading change is used for an SRA, terminating at 2nm and less than 2nm?

A

5 degrees for 2nm

2 or 3 degrees for <2nm

162
Q

What is the definition of a Radar Approach?

A

An approach, executed by an a/c , under the direction of a ATCO using Radar

163
Q

What is the definition of a step-down fix?

A

A defined point on the FAT indicating that a critical obstacle has been safely overflown and descent to the next specified level may be commenced

164
Q

What is the minimum range an a/c can be established on an approach?

A

5nm

165
Q

What actions should be taken in the event of an a/c transponder failure?

A

If after departure:
Endeavour to enable aircraft to continue to aerodrome of first intended landing
If continuation not possible, a/c may be required to return to ADEP or land at nearest suitable AD

If prior to departure:
If not practicable to repair transponder aircraft permitted to proceed to nearest suitable aerodrome where it can be repaired.
Consider expected and existing traffic situation before allowing

166
Q

What is attenuation?

A

A reduction of strength or amplitude of a radio wave with time or range

167
Q

Does TCAS five avoidance in the horizonal plane?

A

No- vertical only

168
Q

Can TCAS respond to an a/c w/o a transponder?

A

no

169
Q

What action may a pilot take in the event of a TA?

A

Not take any avoiding action, but may request traffic information

170
Q

What action will a pilot take in the event of an RA?

A

Pilot will respond immediately (within 5s) but will restrict maneuvers to the min necessary to resolve the RA

171
Q

When is an enhanced RA inhibited

A

below 1450ft AGL

172
Q

When is a descent RA inhibited?

A

below 1100ft AGL

173
Q

When is an RA inhibited?

A

Below 1000ft

174
Q

When are spoken messages inhibited?

A

below 500ft AGL, and in the event of TAWS and W/S warnings

175
Q

When does a controller resume responsibility for separation following a TCAS RA?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and resuming previous clearance or,

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and resuming previous clearance and an alternative instruction has been passed and acknowledged by the crew

176
Q

What is the accuracy of P-RNAV?

A

+/- 1nm

177
Q

What is the accuracy of an RNP Approach?

A

+/- 1nm in the initial, intermediate and missed approach segments, +/-0.3nm in the final approach segment

178
Q

What is the accuracy of an RNP AR approach?

A

+/-0.1nm

179
Q

What is the definition of the transition level?

A

The lowest Flight Level available for use above the transition altitude

180
Q

If the pressure is low, will the transition layer by lower or higher?

A

Higher

181
Q

What info should be passed to an a/c at the commencement of final approach?

A

Significant changes to wind direction and speed

Latest information on any wind shear/turbulence on final approach

Current visibility in direction of landing or RVR values and trend when available

182
Q

During the final approach, what information should be passed to an a/c?

A

Significant changes in RVR values/visibility

Sudden occurrence of hazards

Significant changes in runway surface conditions

Significant variations to the surface wind

Changes to the operational status of required visual/non-visual aids

183
Q

What is airspace management?

A

A planning function with the objective of maximizing the utilisation of available airspace by dynamic time-sharing and segregation of airspace.

184
Q

How many levels of airspace management are there?

A

3

185
Q

What is the definition of traffic information?

A

Information issued by an air traffic services unit to alert a pilot to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision

186
Q

What is the definition of Essential Traffic Information?

A

Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum

187
Q

What shall ETI contain?

A

Direction of flight

Type and wake cat if relevant

Level

Estimate for point where level will be crossed, or

Relative bearing/distance, or

Actual or estimated position

188
Q

What shall traffic information contain?

A

Relative bearing of conflicting traffic (with optional left/right) or cardinal direction if in a turn

Distance from conflicting traffic

Relative movement of conflicting traffic

Level, if known

Speed of conflicting traffic

Type of conflicting traffic

189
Q
A

UK APS (13 decks)

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