UK APS Oral Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Do you need to be visual with the aerodrome for a visual approach?

A

No, just need visual reference to the surface

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2
Q

Describe class A airspace

A

IFR only

Clearance required

ATC must be complied with

Everyone separated from everyone

Gliders may enter in VMC

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3
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

VFR & IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR & VFR

VFR sep from IFR, given Tx info on other VFR

VMC

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4
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

VFR and IFR

Clearance required to enter

Instructions must be followed

IFR sep from IFR and SVFR, given tx info on VFR

VFR given tx info on everyone

SVFR treated as IFR for all intents and purposes

VMC

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5
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

ATCU’s provide FIS

Pilots responsible for all collision avoidance

Pilots still expected to comply with advice

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6
Q

Which aircraft are exempted from the VMC criteria in the UK?

A
  • Powerline
  • Pipeline
  • Police
  • Helimed
  • SAR
  • SAR training if LOA (letter of agreement) with ATC provider exists
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7
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft cruising at FL100 or above in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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8
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or above 1,000ft above terrain in the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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9
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher, Class C, D or E airspace during the day?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km (Class A-E airspace)

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10
Q

What are the VMC minima for an Aircraft criusing at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher in uncontrolled airspace (F&G) in the day?

A

clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 5km

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11
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a fixed wing Aircraft cruising at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m.

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12
Q

What are the daytime VMC minima for a Helicopter at or below 3,000ft in Class F or G airspace where its IAS in Knots is 140 or less?

A

Clear of cloud with the surface in sight with a flight visibility of 1500m

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13
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or above FL100?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 8km

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14
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft between FL100 and 3,000ft amsl or 1,000ft above terrain?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km

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15
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

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16
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that VMC no longer possible?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 1,500ft and/or a G.V of less than 5km in dya or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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17
Q

What are the conditions for a VFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 1,500ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 5,000m
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18
Q

What are the daytime VMC for a helicopter at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when flying 140kt IAS or less?

A

1500m flight vis COCSIS

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19
Q

What are the daytime VMC for a fixed wing aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl in Class D airspace when travelling 140kts IAS or less?

A

5km flight vis COCSIS

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20
Q

At night what are the VMC minima for aircraft at or below 3,000ft amsl or at or below 1,000ft above terrain whichever is higher?

A

1500m and 1000ft from cloud with a flight visibility of 5km and with the surface in sight

slides say that it is 5km COCSIS in Class G airspace but MATS 1 makes no reference to this!!

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21
Q

What are the conditions for a SVFR refusal?

A

ATC shall not issue any further VFR clearances to a/c wishing to operate under VFR,

  • to or from an aerodrome
  • or enter the ATZ
  • or traffic circuit

In Class D airspace when the reported MET conditions are below the following minima;

  • Cloud ceiling less than 600ft, and/or
  • Ground vis less than 1,500m (800m for helis)
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22
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible for fixed wing a/c?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 1500m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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23
Q

Under what met conditions do ATC advise pilots that SVFR no longer possible for a helicopter?

A

In Class D airspace when the reported met conditions are below

a Cloud ceiling of less than 600ft and/or a G.V of less than 800m in day or night ATC shall;

  • Advise pilots of a/c intending to operate under VFR to or from such aerodromes, and
  • Request the pilot to specify the type of clearance required.
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24
Q

What is a FRZ in regards to SUA’s?

A
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25
Q

Define a Basic Service

A

An ATS provided for the purpose of giving advice and information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight. This may include;

1) Weather information
2) Changes of serviceability of facilities
3) Conditions at aerodromes
4) General airspace activity information
5) Any other info likely to affect safety

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26
Q

Define a Traffic Service

A

A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information to assist the pilot in avoiding other traffic. ATCOs may provide headings and/or levels for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the ATCO is not required to achieve deconfliction minima and the pilot remains responsible for collision avoidance

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27
Q

Define a Deconfliction Service

A

A surveillance based service where in addition to the provisions of a Basic Service the ATCO provides specific surveillance derived traffic information and headings and/or levels aimed at achieving defined deconfliction minima or for the purposes of positioning and/or sequencing, however the avoidance of other traffic is ultimately the pilot’s responsibility

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28
Q

Define a procedural service

A

An ATS where, in addition to the provisions of a basic service, the ATCO provides restrictions, instructions and approach clearances, which, if complied with, shall achieve deconfliction minima against other a/c participating in the procedural service. Neither traffic info nor deconfliction advice can be passed with respect to unknown traffic

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29
Q

Which a/c can be provided with a DS?

A

IFR only

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30
Q

Which a/c can be provided with a PS?

A

IFR only

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31
Q

If the weather is 3000m to the N and 1000m to the S can an A/C depart SVFR?

A

No as the lowest visibility is the one used to determine the flight rules permitted.

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32
Q

Which visibility is used to determine whether SVFR or VFR flights can operate to/from an aerodrome?

A

Ground visibility

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33
Q

If the ground vis is <1000m but the flight vis is 2000m can an SVFR a/c operate?

A

Not to/from the aerodrome or in the ATZ but they could transit the zone

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34
Q
A
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35
Q

When shall Aerodrome lighting be displayed?

A

By day: when vis <5km or cloud base <700ft
At night: Irrespective of weather conditions

When requested by parent ACC
When deemed necessary by the controller
As instructed in MATS part II

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36
Q

List the types of precision approach

A

PAR
ILS
ILS/DME
MLS
RNP APCH (ICAO only)

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37
Q

List the types of non-precision approach

A

RNP
NDB
VOR
GNSS
SRA
ILS (LLZ only)
VDF

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38
Q

How long is a standard 5 bar approach lighting system?

A

900m

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39
Q

When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?

A

When they are worse than those being officially reported

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40
Q

At what rate are hold turns made?

A

Rate 1 (3 degrees/sec) or with 25 degrees of bank (whichever uses less bank)

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41
Q

What is an EAT?

A

Expected Approach Time

The time at which ATC expects an arriving a/c, following a delay, will leave the holding fix to complete its approach for landing

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42
Q

When shall an EAT be issued?

A

When arriving a/c are subject to a delay of 20 mins or more (or as determined by authority)

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43
Q

What are the hilding speeds for a/c up to an including 14000ft?

A

Normal;

CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 230kt

Turbulent

CAT A & B- 170kt
CAT C, D & E- 280kt

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44
Q

What are the holding speeds for a/c above 14000ft up to and including 20000ft?

A

Normal- 240kt

Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80

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45
Q

What are the holding speeds above 20000ft up to and including 34000ft

A

Normal- 265kt

Turbulent- 280kt or M0.80

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46
Q

What is the normal length of the legs for a hold?

A

1 min, 1 and 1/2 above 14000ft

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47
Q

Describe the standard holding procedure

A
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48
Q

Describe the Parallel Entry to the hold

A
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49
Q

Describe the Offset Entry procedure

A
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50
Q

Describe the Direct Entry Procedure

A
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51
Q

How long does a complete holding pattern take a) up to, and b) above this level?

A

4 mins up to and inc. 14000ft

5 mins above this

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52
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat A A/C?

A

<91kts IAS

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53
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat B A/C?

A

91kts-120kts IAS

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54
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat C A/C?

A

121kts- 140kts IAS

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55
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat D A/C?

A

141kts- 165kts IAS

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56
Q

What is the Vat of a Cat E A/C?

A

166kts-210kts IAS

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57
Q

Which of the following are permitted to be used as a holding fix?

A

Overhead a VOR
Overhead a VOR with a co-located DME
Overhead an NDB
An intersection of VOR radials
An intersection of a VOR radial and a distance from a co-located DME

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58
Q

What determines the ICAO approach category of an a/c?

A

The a/c’s Vat in landing configuration at its maximum certificated landing weight

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59
Q

What is the strip marking for delay not determined?

A

Z

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60
Q

What is the strip marking for delay for no delay expected?

A
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61
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot reports “TCAS RA”?

A

Acknowledge by saying “C/S roger”

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62
Q

After a pilot has reported “TCAS RA” when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?

A

When the pilot reports “clear of conflict”

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63
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?

A

Pass appropriate pressure setting

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64
Q

Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed

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65
Q

What is the difference between a TCAS TA and a TCAS RA?

A

TA=Traffic Advisory- Pilots are advised not to take avoiding action

RA= Resolution Advisory and Pilots will take action in response to these

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66
Q

In which direction or plane are RAs given?

A

Vertical

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67
Q

What reporting action is required following a RA?

A

MOR to be filed, must also file an AIRPROX if necessary

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68
Q

What must the conflicting a/c have in order to trigger TCAS alert?

A

A transponder with A & C or S

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69
Q

Below what levels are a) increase descent RA’s, b) Descend RA’s and c) All RAs inhibited?

A

a) 1450ft AGL
b) 1100ft AGL
c) 1000ft AGL

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70
Q

List four methods of giving a radar handover

A
  1. Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt
  2. Notification of the a/c’s discrete SSR code or a/c address
  3. Notification that the a/c is SSR Mode S/ ADS-B equipped with an a/c ident feature.
  4. Direct designation (pointing at it) of the position indication when two screens are adjacent or a conference type of display is used
  5. Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known
  6. Instructing an a/c to change SSR codes by the transferring controller and the accepting controller seeing the change
  7. Issuance of an instruction to the a/c by the transferring controller to ‘squawk ident’ and observation of this response by the accepting controller
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71
Q

List four methods of indentification using PSR

A

The turn method

Departing a/c method

Position report method

Transfer of identification

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72
Q

If both PSR and SSR available, which radar return has to be observed for the departing a/c method of identification to be used?

A

Primary return

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73
Q

Within how many miles from the end of the runway does the departing a/c method of identification have to be completed?

A

1nm

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74
Q

Describe the techniques that can be used for the turn method of identification?

A

A/c heading is ascertained and then a position indication is correlated with;

1) The acknowledged execution of an instruction to alter heading by at least 30 degrees

2) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as instructed by another controller

3) One or more changes of heading of at least 30 degrees as reported by the pilot

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75
Q

What is the minimum turn permitted for identification to be achieved using the turn method?

A

30 degrees

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76
Q

Following identification by the turn method, what two things must the pilot be informed of?

A

That he has been identified and his position

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77
Q

List 4 things to consider before a turn for identification canbe issued

A

Terrain

PSR coverage

Other surveillance returns

Rules of the Air

Proximity of airspace

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78
Q

List 5 positions which can be used as position reports to identify an a/c by the position report method?

A

1) Over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; which are;

2) Position defined by VOR radial with a range from a co-located or associated DME (no more than 30nm)

3) Over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at
a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.

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79
Q

A/C may be instructed to squawk 0000…

A

when either Mode A or Mode C is corrupt

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80
Q

What is the prime consideration when turning a VFR flight for identification?

A

Terrain as they will be taking their own terrain sep.

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81
Q

When should an a/c be told it is identified?

A

Outside CAS- for all methods of ident

Inside CAS- only required when using the turn method

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82
Q

When should a pilot be informed of his/her position after identification?

A

Following the turn method of ident

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83
Q

List three methods of identification using SSR

A

(1) Observing the pilot’s compliance with the instruction to select a discrete four digit code;

(2) Recognising a validated four-digit code previously assigned to an aircraft callsign. When code/callsign conversion procedures are in use and the code/callsign pairing can be confirmed, the callsign displayed in the data block may be used to establish and maintain identity;

(3) Observing an IDENT feature when it has been requested.

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84
Q

What 2 actions should be undertaken following allocation of a discrete squawk?

A

Validation and verification

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85
Q

What is the definition of a precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing using precision lateral and vertical guidance with minima as determined by the category of operation

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86
Q

What is the definition of a non-precision approach?

A

An instrument approach and landing which utilises lateral guidance but does not utilise vertical guidance

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87
Q

What are the segements of the instrument approach?

A
  1. Arrival
  2. Initial (IAF IF)
  3. Intermediate (IF to FAF/FAP)
  4. Final (FAF/FAP to MAPt)
  5. Missed Approach
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88
Q

What is a VM (C) Approach?

A

A/c conducting a visual cct to a runway after making an instrument approach to a different runway

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89
Q

List the categories of ILS approaches

A

CAT I
CAT II
CAT IIIA
CAT IIIB
CAT IIIC

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90
Q

What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT I ILS?

A

DH no less than 200ft

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91
Q

What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT II ILS?

A

Ops with DH lower than 200ft but not lower than 100ft

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92
Q

What is the minimum DH allowed for a CAT III ILS?

A

Ops either;

  1. DH <100ft, or, no DH and RVR not less than 175m
  2. DH <50ft, or, no DH and RVR less than 175m but greater than 50m
  3. No DH and no RVR limitations
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93
Q

Where does the STAR end and the initial approach segement commence?

A

IAF- Initial Approach Fix

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94
Q

What is the difference between a FAF and a FAP?

A

FAF= Final Approach Fix (only on non-precision approaches)

FAP= Final Approach Point (only on precision approaches)

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95
Q

What are, a) a base turn, and b) a procedure turn?

A

Both a form of reversal procedure which are to be used when no IAF or IF are available to construct a straight in approach.

a) Base turn flys an outsbound leg from the holding point for a time and then makes a continous turn onto approach

c) Procedure turn flys up the final approach (for a time/distance) initially before making a turn outbound to begin a turn back onto final approach

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96
Q

What does RNP mean?

A

Required Navigational Performance

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97
Q

What actions should ATC take if the altitude readout is out of tolerance?

A

Ask pilot to check pressure setting and report level again

Ask pilot to stop squawking mode alt due wrong indication

Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and coordinate with adjacent ATC

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98
Q

When is it determined that an a/c is occupying a specific level?

A

RVSM airspace: +/-200ft

Non-RVSM airspace: +/-300ft

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99
Q

Define, a) Transition Altitude, b) Transition Level, c) Transition Layer

A

a) The level at or below which an a/c’s vertical position is controlled with reference to altitude

b) The lowest Flight Level available for use above the Transition Altitude

c) The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition Level

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100
Q

What is the minimum thickness of the Transition Layer?

A

1000ft

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101
Q

How far above the base of CAS should a/c be kept?

A

500ft

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102
Q

In what class of airspace is an a/c flying at exactly the base of CAS deemed to be?

A

Class G, they would be deemed to be outside CAS

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103
Q

How far inside CAS should a/c be kept?

A

2nm

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104
Q

What is the minimum distance from touchdown an a/c can be vectored to intercept the localiser?

A

5nm

we aim for for 6.5nm at least to give 2nm of level flying before intercepting that distance at 1500ft (which is 5nm)

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105
Q

What is the maximum angle allowed between closing heading and approach track?

A

45 degrees

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106
Q

Draw or describe the standard DOC for a localiser and a glide path?

A

Localiser- 10 degrees either side to 25nm, 35 degrees either side to 17nm

Glide-path- 8 degress either side to 10nm

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107
Q

How many degrees per second in a rate one turn?

A

3 degrees per second

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108
Q

How long does it take to complete an orbit at rate one?

A

2 minutes

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109
Q

What is the latest time speed control can be applied by ATC?

A

4nm

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110
Q

What is meant by “minimum clean speed”?

A

The minimum speed an a/c can achieve before having to deploy lift devices such as flaps and slats

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111
Q

List the standard speeds which ATC can apply to jet a/c in an inbound sequence, along with the distances from touchdown at which these may be applied

A

250kts above FL60
220kts on descent from FL60
180kts when late downwind or base leg
160kts to 4 DME

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112
Q

Which of the classes of airspace are CAS?

A

A
B
C
D
E

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113
Q

What is Class F airspace?

A

Advisory airspace

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114
Q

In which class of airspace are VFR flights not allowed?

A

Class A

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115
Q

In which classes of airspace may VFR flights operate without an ATC clearance?

A

E, F and G

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116
Q

In which classes of airspace may all flights operate without an ATC clearance?

A

F and G

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117
Q

What rules apply to the separation of IFR and VFR flights in Class D airspace (including the caveat)?

A

IFR separated from other IFR and SVFR and vice versa.

IFR given traffic information on VFR and vice versa with avoidance advice given if requested

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118
Q

What is the generic speed limit (and below what level it does it apply?)

A

250kts IAS below FL100

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119
Q

What is the minimum level of a CTA?

A

700ft AGL

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120
Q

In what classes of airspace does the speed limit not apply?

A

Class A and B

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121
Q

What are CTRs?

A

a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit

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122
Q

What are CTAs?

A

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the Earth

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123
Q

What are TMAs?

A

A control area normally established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes

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124
Q

What class of airspace are ATZs?

A

The same airspace as that within which they reside

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125
Q

What is an FRZ?

A

Flight Restriction Zone

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126
Q

To which flights does the speed limit not apply in Class C airspace?

A

IFR flights

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127
Q

Under what circumstances can ATC cancel the speed limit in Class D airspace?

A

for exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS Part 2;

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128
Q

Define RVR

A

A more localised assessment of visual range in relation to a particular runway when the general met vis is less than 1500m

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129
Q

What does RVR indicate to a pilot?

A

The range over which the pilot of an a/c on the runway centreline can expect to see the runway surface markings, the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centreline

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130
Q

State two methods of obtaining RVR?

A

IRVR and the human observer method

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131
Q

State the three locations where IRVR values are measured

A

Touchdown
Mid-point
Stop-end

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132
Q

Which RVR reading is always to be reported?

A

Touchdown

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133
Q

In what increments are RVRs to be reported?

A

Up to 400m= 25m
400-800m= 50m
Above 800m= 100m

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134
Q

What are the maximum and minimum RVR value which can be reported?

A

Max= 2000m

Min= 50m

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135
Q

What happens to flight levels as pressure, a) rises, and b) falls?

A

a) Raises the FL as an altitude
b) Lowers the FL as an altitude

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136
Q

What is windshear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along an a/c’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an a/c can accelerate and decelerate

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137
Q

When is windshear likely to occur?

A

Frontal systems
Thunderstorms
Temperature inversions
Surface obstructions

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138
Q

What should the first a/c holding for weather improvement be told regarding delays?

A

“no traffic delay expected”

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139
Q

What should subsequent a/c be told regarding delays if holding for weather improvement?

A

“Delay not determined, (x) a/c holding for weather improvement”

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140
Q

What is meant by DOC?

A

Designated Operational Coverage

Term defining the coverage boundary of the station

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141
Q

What are the two levels of Mode-S?

A

Elementary and Enhanced

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142
Q

List 5 Downlinked Aircraft Parameters provided by enhanced Mode-S

A

Speed
Heading
Present level
Cleared /Level
Rate of Climb/Rate of Descent

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143
Q

What is the IFR conspicuity code in Europe?

A

2000

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144
Q

What is the VFR conspicuity code in Europe?

A

7000

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145
Q

What should ATC do, provided if an a/cs transponder fails whilst it is flying in transponder mandatory airspace?

A

Endeavour to provide for the continuation of the flight to the aerodrome of first intended landing in accordance with the flight plan

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146
Q

What should ATC allow an a/c to do if its transponder fails before it gets airborne on a flight for which the operation of a transponder is manadatory?

A

Prevent the a.c from departing unless it is impractical for repairs to be effected at the aerodrome, in which case flight by the most direct route possible to the nearest aerodrome where repairs can be effected should be facilitated.

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147
Q

Complete the following statement;

After a complete radar failure, if standard vertical sep cannot be establisehd immediately, emergency vertical sep of (……..) that standard separation may be used temporarily

A

half

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148
Q

What is the definition of Essential Traffic Information?

A

Is that controlled traffic to which the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not, or will not be, separated from other controlled traffic by the appropriate separation minimum

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149
Q

If the glide path fails, can the LOC and DME still be used, and if so, what type of approaches can be made?

A

Yes but only non-precision approaches are permitted

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150
Q

What alternative method can be used to determine the length of outbound legs of an instrument approach procedure if the DME fails?

A

Timed legs

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151
Q

What part of an ILS can still be used for approaches if the localiser fails?

A

None, there are no GP only approaches

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152
Q

What service is provided to IFR and VFR flights in Class E airspace?

A

IFR- Radar Control
VFR (participating) UK FIS

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153
Q

What info is provided under any FIS?

A

SIGMET/AIRMET info
Information on Volcanic Activity
Information on release of radioactive materials or toxic chemicals
Info on the changes of availabilty of radio nav aids
Info on changes in conditions of aerodromes and facilities
Info on unmanned free balloons
Info on space weather
Any other info likely to affect safety

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154
Q

To whom can a deconfliction service be provided?

A

IFR only

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155
Q

To whom can a traffic servie be provided?

A

IFR or VFR

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156
Q

Who decides what service is provided to a/c outside CAS?

A

The pilot

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157
Q

When may a surveillance service be reduced by an ATCO outside CAS?

A

When ATCO’s cannot continue to provide info (and minima for DS) due to;

surveillance coverage

times of high workload

Areas of high traffic density

Degraded surveillance performance

Where PSR is unavailable and SSR alone is used to provide an ATS

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158
Q

What information shall Approach Control provide to Aerodrome Control?

A

1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA;

2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred;

3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.

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159
Q

What information shall Approach Control provide to Area Control?

A

1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control

2) The average time interval between successive approaches

3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more;

4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more

5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated;

6) Departure times of A/C

7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C

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160
Q

What shall Approach Control co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?

A

1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land.

2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points

3) A/C routing through the traffic cct

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161
Q

What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?

A

1) Departing IFR flights

2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)

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162
Q

What shall Area Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?

A

Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility

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163
Q

When may transfer of A/C to Aerodrome Control take place?

A

IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances;

1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final apprach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C;

2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct

3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place.

nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all clod, or for horizontal separation to be provided.

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164
Q

What consideration must be made for the transfer of VFR A/C to Aerodrome Control?

A

Must be transferred in sufficient time for Aerodrome Control to pass additional information in respect of local tx.

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165
Q

Can A/C be held over VRP’s?

A

Outside CAS- Should not be done

Inside CAS- Yes

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166
Q

When shall Approach Controllers refuse VFR clearances for VFR A/C operating to/from an Aerodrome in Class D Airspace?

A

When the ground vis is below 5000m and/or the C.C. below 1500ft. Pilot should be asked to specify type of clearance required.

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167
Q

What type of A/C can continue VFR when other A/C would be required to continue SVFR?

A

Police
Helimed
Rescue
Electricity
Grid
Powerline
Pipeline
SAR training flights (in accordance with MATS 2)
Rail track inspection flights

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168
Q

Are ATCOs responsible for determining and enforcing a pilot’s Aerodrome Operating Minima?

A

No however they should report any occurence which they consider has endangered an A/C or person

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169
Q

What information must an Approach Controller pass to A/C is there is no ATIS system?

A

1) Runway in use

2) Current Met info;
a) Surface wind direction
b) Vis
c) Present wx
d) Cloud
e) Pressure setting
f) Relevant info reported by other pilots
g) Significant met info eg thunderstorms, hail etc
h) Warnings of marked temp inversions
i) Any other relevant info
j) RVR

3) Current runway surface conditions

4) Any changes in the operational stataus of visual and non-visual aids essential for approach and landing

5) LVPs in operation

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170
Q

What information updates must be passed to pilots?

A

1) Significatnt changes in the met conditions and runway conditions

2) Further reports from other pilots

3) Further changes in the operational status of approach and landing aids

4) Implementation and cancellation of LVPs

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171
Q

When may an A/C conduct a visual approach?

A

Pilot reports that they are visual with the surface and;

1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segement; or

2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing the approach procedure that the visibility will permit a visual approach and landing, and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

Controllers SHALL not clear an A/C for a visual approach when the RVR (TD) is less than 800m. If a pilot requests one in this circumstance than the pilot is to be informed that a visual approach is unavailable and what their intentions are.

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172
Q

What separation must be applied between A/C making a visual approach and other IFR A/C?

A

The standard separations as A/C making a Visual Approach still count as IFR and as making an Instrument Approach

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173
Q

May A/C be cleared to conduct a visual approach when outside CAS and what are the considerations if so?

A

Yes

Responsbility for the provision of deconfliction advice and tx info continues in accordance with the service being issued and is subject to the following;

1) Procedural Service- no requirement for controllers to change the level of service provided

2) DS- when flights carrying out visual approaches descen below the unit’s terrain safe level, controllers shall no provide a DS and should instead provide a TS

3) TS- subject to maintenance of surveillance identity, there is no requirement to change the level of service.

4) BS- no requirement to change the level of service provided.

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174
Q

What information is to be passed to a pilot conducting an instrument approach when they report they are not familiar with the procedures?

A

1) on initial contact;
a) “This is the approach procedure for (aid) for Category (cat) A/C. Final approach track (degrees)”
b) Arrival level (if necessary)
c) Type of reversal manoeuvre including outbound track, length in time or distance, level instructions and direction of procedure turn where applicable.

2) When A/C commences final reversal;
a) Intermediate and final approach track
b) Intermediate and final approach fixes together with level instructions
c) stepdown fixes and OCH

3) Missed approach point and missed approach procedure (when required)

n.b. items 1 b and 1 c may be ommitted for straight in approaches

the whole procedure may be passed at once if the pilot is copying down the information

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175
Q

Can a pilot request to change to a visual approach prior to the completion of an instrument approach?

A

Yes, standard sep against other IFR A/C is to be maintained unless the pilot cancels their IFR flight plan

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176
Q

When shall Approach Controllers explicitly instruct A/C to hold and what info must be passed?

A

When airborne holding is required, ifm the expected delay is to be less than that required to issue EATS then an estimate of the delay is to be passed.

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177
Q

Within what time shall EATs be passed?

A

With sufficient time for the pilots to arrange their flight paths accordingly.

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178
Q

When may an A/C in the hold be permitted to descend to the next level?

A

When the A/C below has reported vacating that level, however if severe turbulence exists than the instructions shall be withheld until the first A/C has reported at least 1000ft below the vacated level

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179
Q

When shall Approach Controllers issue EATs?

A

When the A/C is likely to be delayed before commencing an intermediate approach.

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180
Q

Under what other circumstances may an A/C wish to hold other than for tx reasons?

A

To await wx improvement

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181
Q

What phrase will be passed to A/C in the hold when they are holding for wx improvement?

A

“no tx delay expected”

subesquent A/C will be advised that the “delay not determined (number) A/C holding for wx improvement”

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182
Q

What is an RSYD?

A

Release Subject Your Discretion

Where an Approach Controller accepts responsibility for the provision of separation between an outbound A/C and the conflicting inbound or overflying A/C.

Used in situations where the Approach Control procedures offer a more expeditious resolution to the confliction.

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183
Q

What shall Approach Control say to an A/C inbound from outside CAS that cannot be cleared to join or enter CAS yet?

A

They will be instructed to Remain Outside Controlled Airspace, told when to expect clearance and a time check.

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184
Q

When shall an APS controller pass the position of an a/c?

A

When the type of identification requires and;

at least once during each leg of the cct (this can be a distance from touchdown), for a/c making a straight in approach it is to be passed at least once before it commences the final descent

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185
Q

What information is to be passed to a pilot whilst being vectored to final approach?

A

The type of approach and the runway in use

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186
Q

What additional information must be passed to a/c conducting a SRA?

A

The angle of the nominal descent gradient

The termination range

The applicable obstacle clearance altitude/ height

The procedure to be followed in the event of comms failure if this is not published.

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187
Q

What is the minimum range an a/c will be vectored onto the final approach?

A

a) 2NM before the FAF for an ILS, MLS, VOR, NDB approach or SRA; or

b) The IF for an RNP approach

188
Q

What is the maximum closing heading permitted for an ILS approach?

A

45 degrees

189
Q

When can you instruct a/c to establish on the loc?

A

Within the DOC of the loc

190
Q

How can you instruct a/c to descend on the glidepath?

A

a) Clear them for the approach if they have been given descent to the procedure alt/hgt published on the charts

or

b) Issue a conditional clearance to descend on the ILS glidepath once established on the localiser (eg on reaching 10DME descend on the glidepath)

c) When it is necessary to ensure that an a/c joining the ILS does not commence descent until specifically cleared, solely instruct the pilot to report established on/ the localiser and to maintain the previously assigned level- subsequently clearing them for the approach or to descend on the GP

191
Q

What do you need to consider when giving a VFR or SVFR a/c a vector?

A

Whether they can accept that vector and remain VMC

192
Q

Within what time should a clearance to land be received from twr for an SRA?

193
Q

What distance must a landing clearance be received for a SRA a/c?

194
Q

When will you pass IRVR values to pilots?

A

At the beginning of each approach for a landing and then whenever there is a significant change in the RVR until the a/c have landed.

195
Q

What regulation governs the issue of ATC licences in the UK?

A

(EU)2015/340

196
Q

What details must appear on an ATC licence?

A
  1. State issuing the licence
  2. Title of the licence
  3. Serial no. of the licence given by the authority issuing the licence
  4. Name, DOB, address, nationality and signature of the holder
  5. Competent authority
  6. Certification of validity plus dates of first issue
  7. Signature of issuing officer and date
  8. Seal or stamp of competent authority
197
Q

For what reasons may action be taken against an ATCO’s licence?

A
  1. Deficiency in, or doubts about, competence to provide an ATC service
  2. Doubts about whether an individual is a fit person to hold a licence, in relation to their character or behaviour, including their integrity, reliability and self-control
  3. Inability to meet the appropriate medical standards
198
Q

WIthin what time period must an MOR be filed?

199
Q

When can a Radar Handover be effected?

A

The transfer of responsibility for an aircraft from one controller to another may be effected provided that:
(1) satisfactory two-way speech communication is available between them;
(2) the identity has been transferred to, or has been established by, the accepting controller; and
(3) the accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the aircraft at the stage of transfer.

If the route of the aircraft is not known the offering controller is to pass the observed track or reported aircraft heading to the accepting controller.

200
Q

How does a Radar Release work?

A

Control of arriving aircraft may be transferred to Approach Radar Control, when other aircraft would otherwise delay the released aircraft’s progress, in accordance
with the following conditions:

(1) The transfer of control message is prefixed “radar release”;
(2) Details of all conflicting aircraft are passed to the approach radar controller;
(3) Conflicting aircraft are either transferred to Approach Radar Control or identified according to the accepting controller’s decision; and
(4) Neither the track nor the level of the conflicting aircraft is altered without co-ordination.

202
Q

What does an APS rating entitle the holder to provide?

A

To act as an ATC in the provision of an approach control service with the use of surveillance equipment

203
Q

What endorsements are associated with the APS rating?

A

SRA, PRA and TCL endoresments

204
Q

A Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…

A

…non-precision radar approaches with the use of surveillance radar equipment

205
Q

A Precision Approach Radar (PAR) rating endorsement entitles the holder to provide…

A

…ground-controlled precision approaches with the use of precision approach radar equipment to aircraft on the
final approach to the runway;

207
Q

What is the lowest level available at EVN?

208
Q

What is the lowest level available at WVN?

209
Q

What is the lowest level available at TAM?

210
Q

What is the lowest level available at TYN?

211
Q

What is the lowest level available at BRN?

212
Q

How do you identify aircraft using the position report method?

A

By correlating a particular Position Indication with a report from the pilot that the aircraft is:

(1) over an exact reporting point which is displayed on the situation display; or
(2) at a particular distance not exceeding 30 miles on a particular radial from a co- located VOR/DME or TACAN (DME). The source facility must be displayed on the situation display; or
(3) over a notified visual reference point or prominent geographical feature, in either case approved for the purpose and displayed on the situation display, provided that

(the flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000 ft or less above the surface.) UK

The identification must follow a period of track observation sufficient to enable the controller to compare the movement of the Position Indication with the pilot’s reported route. The reported position and level of the aircraft must indicate that it is within known PSR cover.

This method must be reinforced by an alternative method if there is any doubt about the identification because of:

(1) the close proximity of other returns; or
(2) inaccurate reporting from aircraft at high level or some distance from navigational facilities.

213
Q

How can transfer of identification be effected?

A

Designation by automated means, provided that only one position indication is indicated with no possible doubt

Notification of the aircrafts discrete SSR code or aircraft address

Notification that the a/c is Mode S / ADS-B equipped with an ident feature when coverage is available

Direct designation (pointing) of the Position Indication where two situation displays are adjacent or a conference type of display is used.

Designation by reference to bearing and distance from a geographical position or nav facility, together with the track of the observed position indication if the route of the a/c is not known to both ATCO’s
Not more than 30nm from the VOR/DME facility

Instructing an aircraft to change SSR code by the and accepting controller observes this

Issuing an instruction to squawk IDENT and accepting controller observes this

214
Q

When shall an a/c be informed of their position?

A

Upon identification, except when identification is established:
Based on pilots report of aircraft position or within 1nm of the runway on departure
By use of ADS-B/Mode S ident or assigned discrete SSR code
By transfer of identification

When pilot requests this information

When pilots estimated position differs significantly from controllers estimate based on observed position

When pilot instructed to resume own navigation after vectoring If current instructions had deviated from assigned route

Immediately before termination of ATS surveillance service if a/c observed to deviate from intended route

215
Q

How is position information passed to a/c?

A

Reference to a well-known geographical position

Magnetic track and distance to significant point, an en-route aid or approach aid

Direction (using compass point) and distance from known position

Distance to touchdown when on final approach

Distance & direction from centre line of ATS route

216
Q

How may a squawk be validated?

A

Instruct a/c to squawk assigned code and observe that the correct numbers appear on the situation display

Instructing the a/c to squawk ident and simultaneously checking that the code numbers are associated with the radar return

Matching a previously identified radar return with the assigned code for the flight

217
Q

What are your actions if the observed Mode A readout does not correlate to that expected?

A

Instruct pilot to reset assigned code

If error persists instruct pilot to select A0000

If it still persists instruct pilot to switch off transponder- a corrupt code may be retained for identification and tracking purposes if the Mode C is verified but adjacent ATSUs must be informed

218
Q

When may a Mode A code be deemed validated?

A

When the code set can be recognised by the code assignment plan to have been assigned by a unit deemed capable of validating the code, providing the code has not been notified as corrupt.

219
Q

How is Mode C verified?

A

By simultaneous comparison of the displayed data with the information received from the a/c via R/T.

Reading to be +/- 200ft in RVSM airspace

220
Q

What are your actions if the Mode C data is not within assigned tolerances?

A

Pilot should be advised and requested to check the pressure setting and confirm the a/c’s level

221
Q

What are the ATCO’s actions if Mode C data is still inaccurate after confirming the pressure setting?

A

Request the pilot to switch off Mode C provided this does not interrupt the operation of Mode A and notify the next ATSUs of the action taken

Inform the pilot of the discrepancy and request Mode C operation continue in order to prevent loss of position and identity information on the a/c, notify the next ATSUs

222
Q

When is an a/c considered to be at an assigned level?

A

When 3 consecutive sweeps (or 15 seconds whichever is greater) show that the Mode C is +/- 200ft of the assigned level

223
Q

When is an a/c considered to have passed a level (uk)?

A

When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more through that level and continuing in the anticipated direction

224
Q

When is an a/c considered to have vacated a level (uk)?

A

When the Mode C indicates 400ft or more from that level and continuing in the anticipated direction

225
Q

What is the definition of a radar handover?

A

Transfer of responsibility for the control of an a/c between two controllers using radar, following identification by both controllers.

226
Q

What conditions are there before issuing a radar handover?

A
  1. Satisfactory two-way comms is available between controllers
  2. The identity has been transferred to the accepting controller, or has been established by him; and
  3. The accepting controller is informed of any level, speed or vectoring instructions applicable to the a/c at the stage of transfer
227
Q

Define the Transition altitude

A

The level at or below which an a/c’s vertical position will be controlled with reference to Altitude

228
Q

Define the Transition Level

A

The lowest usable flight level above the transition altitude, must be at least 1000ft above the TA

229
Q

Define the transition layer

A

The band of airspace between the TA and the TL

230
Q

When may an a/c be instructed to climb VMC?

A

When requested and agreed by the pilots of both a/c

In Class D and E airspace

Pilots maintain their own sep

Below 10000ft

During the day

In VMC

231
Q

What is Essential Traffic Information?

A

Information passed between a/c that are not separated by the appropriate minima

232
Q

What shall Essential Traffic Information contain?

A

Direction of flight

Type and W/T Cat of a/c

Cruising level of a/c concerned and;

a) Estimated time over the reporting point closest to where the level will be crossed, or;
b) Relative bearing of the a/c concerned in terms of the 12-hour clock as well as distance from conflicting traffic, or;
c) Actual or estimated position of the a/c concerned

233
Q

Give an example of Essential Traffic Info

A

“Bigjet 347, essential traffic information, a westbound B737 maintaining FL80 estimating KTN at 50”

234
Q

How will Royal Flights be protected outside CAS?

A

By the establishment of CAS-T

235
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

236
Q

What are the dimensions of CAS-T?

A

Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required

237
Q

For how long will CAS-T be active?

A

15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA

238
Q

What are the dimensions of RLLCs?

A

Royal Low Level Corridors

5nm either side of the a/c’s track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c’s max operating level

239
Q

To whom do we provide a Radar Control Service?

A

To IFR a/c in Class A-E Airspace

To VFR a/c in Class C-D Airspace

To SVFR a/c

240
Q

Surveillance services should be reduced when?

A

a) A/C operating close to; the edge of situation display, radar overhead, weather clutter or PEs
b) A/c is operating in area of high traffic density
c) Operating close to limits of solid radar cover
d) Services is provided by using SSR only (when approved)
e) A/c is operating in known areas of poor surveillance performance/PEs/weather clutter
f) ATCO suspects the ATS surveillance system is degraded

241
Q

What are your actions when the radar fails?

A

1) Notify a/c under your control
2) Establish a procedural sep
3) Reduced vertical sep of (500ft) may be used temporarily
4) Pass ETI if necessary

242
Q

What are your actions when the radar comes back into service?

A

1) Re-identify all a/c
2) Inform pilots when identified
3) Validate and verify SSR data if not already achieved

243
Q

What is QDM?

A

Magnetic heading to a station

244
Q

What is QDR?

A

Magnetic bearing from a station

245
Q

What is QUJ?

A

True track to a station

246
Q

What is QTE?

A

True bearing from a station

247
Q

How can position information be passed to an a/c?

A

1) Well known geographical position

2) Bearing (using points of the compass) and distance from a known position

3) Magnetic track and distance to a reporting point, en-route nav aid or approach aid on the situation display

4) Lat and long

5) Distance from touchdown if the a/c is on final approach

248
Q

How can you transfer identity of an a/c using PSR in the UK?

A

Direct designation

Designation by direction and distance from a common reference point

Designation by electronic means

249
Q

What considerations are there regarding the direct designation method of transferring identity?

A

The situation displays must be adjacent or a conference type

Ensure position returns correlate

250
Q

What considerations are there regarding the method of transferring identity using direction and distance from a common ref point?

A

May be a nav facility or a geographical position

Must be situated on both displays

Position indication must be within 3nm of the position stated

Distance between a/c and ref point must not exceed 30nm (using mag tracks, radials and bearings) or 15nm (when using cardinal directions)

251
Q

What considerations are there regarding the SSR methods of transferring identity?

A

Both units must have SSR

Only to be conducted in accordance with MATS part 2 and local agreements

252
Q

What a/c may be offered a visual approach?

253
Q

Do VFR a/c conduct visual approaches?

254
Q

When may an a/c conduct a visual approach?

A

Pilot reports he can maintain visual ref to the surface and;

1) The reported C.C is at or above the level of the beginning of the initial approach segment, or;

2) The pilot reports at any time after commencing an approach procedure that the vis will permit a visual approach and landing and a reasonable assurance exists that this can be accomplished.

255
Q

When can visual approaches not be approved?

A

When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions

256
Q

Are we required to provide Deconfliction Minima against a/c inside CAS?

A

No unless surveillance info indicates that a/c is leaving CAS

257
Q

What are the deconfliction minima against known a/c?

A

3nm or 1000ft

258
Q

What are the deconfliction minima against unknown a/c?

A

5nm or 3000ft, surveillance returns should also not merge unless Mode A data indicates that the Mode C is verified

259
Q

What are your actions if a pilot under a DS asks to descend below the terrain safe level?

A

They will be reminded that they are responsible for terrain sep and service downgraded to a TS

260
Q

When is traffic considered to be relevant?

A

When the flight profile indicates it will pass within 3nm or 3000ft of the a/c receiving the service.

Info should be passed prior to the a/c being with 5nm

261
Q

Who is responsible for terrain sep below the terrain safe level on a TS?

262
Q

When can ATCOs issue headings to a/c under a TS?

A

Only above the terrain safe level

263
Q

What are our actions when an unknown a/c enters Class C airspace?

A

IFR flights shall be given avoidance advice and traffic info passed

VFR flights shall be given traffic info and (if requested by the pilot) avoidance advice

264
Q

What are our actions when an unknown a/c enters Class D airspace?

A

IFR flights shall be given avoidance advice and traffic info passed

SVFR and VFR flights shall be given traffic info and (if requested by the pilot) avoidance advice

265
Q

When using mode C, when is an aircraft considered to be at an assigned level?

A

An aircraft may be considered to be at an assigned level provided that the Mode C readout indicates 200ft or less from that level.

266
Q

Using Mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have left a level?

A

An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have left a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft or more from that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.

267
Q

Using Mode C, when is an aircraft considered to have passed a level?

A

An aircraft which is known to have been instructed to climb or descend may be considered to have passed a level when the Mode C readout indicates a change of 400ft throug that level and is continuing in the anticipated direction.

268
Q

When can you clear an a/c to a level that has just been vacated by another a/c?

A

If vertical separation already exists then you can do this as soon as the other one has reported or is observed to have vacated the level.

Otherwise must wait until the vacating a/c has reached or passed through a level that is vertically separated from the one you want to climb/descend the other a/c to.

269
Q

What is LARS?

A

Lower Airspace Radar Service (LARS) units provide UK Flight Information Services (UK FIS) to aircraft outside controlled airspace up to and including FL100. Hours of operation will vary and service is
always subject to ATC capacity.

270
Q

Describe the semi-circular rule

A

A/c travelling east will do so at an odd level, west at an even level. VFR at 500ft.

For IFR outside CAS below FL195 this is not required;

1) At or below 3000ft AMSL

2) Above 3000ft AMSL;
a)In conformity with leveles allocated by an appropriate ATSU; or
b) in accordance with instrument approach procedures notified by the CAA in relation to an aerodrome

VFR not required to follow

271
Q

What is a TMZ?

A

Transponder Mandatory Zone

Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of a pressure altitude reporting transponder is mandatory

272
Q

What is an RMZ?

A

Radio Mandatory Zone

Airspace of defined dimensions within which the carriage and operation of suitable radio equipment is mandatory

273
Q

What are, a) Temporary Segregated Areas, b) Temporary Reserved Areas, and c) Cross-Border Areas?

A

a) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily segregated, by common agreement, for the exclusive use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic will not be allowed to transit.

b) a defined volume of airspace normally under the jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved, by common agreement, for the specific use by another aviation authority and through which other traffic may be allowed to transit, under ATC clearance

c) is an airspace reservation (TSA pr TRA) established for specific operational requirements over international boundaries

274
Q

What is a danger area

A

Airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at specified times.

275
Q

What is the IFR minimum cruising level?

A

Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFR flight shall be flown at a level which is at least 1000 FT (300 M) above the highest obstacle located within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft.

276
Q

What is the RPS?

A

Regional Pressure Setting

Lowest forecast QNH in the region

277
Q

What is an ASR?

A

Altimeter Setting Region

279
Q

Define the VM (C) Area

A

Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area

Area in which obstacle clearance has been considered for a/c manoeuvring visually before landing. Determined by drawing arcs centred on each runway threshold and joining these arcs with tangent lines

280
Q

What is provided by elementary Mode S?

A

Callsign and Level

281
Q

What is provided by enhanced Mode S?

A

As elementary + Speed, Heading, Present Level, Cleared Level, and ROC/ROD

282
Q

What is MSAW?

A

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning

Collerates Mode C readouts with minimum safe altitude and alerts to any a/c that are below or are predicted to be so shortly

283
Q

What is STCA?

A

A Short Term Conflict Alert (STCA) is a system to warn the ATCO of any situation where user defined minimum separation distances between any pair of surveillance tracks is, or is predicted to be violated within a short look ahead time (usually 2 minutes). This is achieved via a visual alert on the radar display, though some systems also provide an audible alert.

284
Q

RYR calls TCAS RA what would you say?

285
Q

What are your actions in the event of a GPWS warning or unplanned go-around?

A

ATCOs not to dissuade pilot from climbing. Appropriate pressure setting to be passed when able. GPWS warnings to climb will temporarily suppress TCAS RAs for the a/c suffering the GPWS warning, all other a/c will have their TCAS operate as normal.

Essential tx info and/or avoiding action shall be passed first to the a/c in conflict with the one receiving the GPWS warning.

Essential tx info and/or avoidance advice to be passed to GPWS a/c once Mode C or S indicates it is above the appropriate SMAC level. TI may be passed earlier but only if deemed necessary to avoid collision.

286
Q

What a/c are required to carry TCAS?

A

Any with a MTOW in excess of 5700kg or capable of carrying more than 19 pax

287
Q

What transponder modes are required for TCAS RA’s?

A

Mode A and Mode C or S

288
Q

How long before an assumed collision is a TCAS TA given?

A

Typically 45 seconds

289
Q

How long before an assumed collision is an RA given?

A

30 Seconds

290
Q

What is a pilots reaction on the receipt of a TA?

A

Nothing, they just need to scan for traffic and may request updated traffic info

291
Q

What are the pilots reactions to an RA?

A

Pilot will react to RA given immediately.

292
Q

After a pilot has reported “TCAS RA” when can a controller next issue instructions to a/c?

A

When the pilot reports “clear of conflict”

293
Q

What action should a controller take when a pilot announces climbing due to a TAWS alert?

A

Pass appropriate pressure setting

294
Q

Following an RA when does ATC resume responsbility for separation for that a/c and any others affected by the manoeuvre?

A

When the pilot reports clear of conflict and current clearance resumed

295
Q

In which direction or plane are RAs given?

296
Q

What is meant by co-ordinated/complimentary RAs?

A

Transponders of both a/c will communicate with one another and agree on a course of action.

297
Q

Below what levels are a) increase descent RA’s, b) Descend RA’s and c) All RAs inhibited?

A

a) 1450ft AGL
b) 1100ft AGL
c) 1000ft AGL

298
Q

What is TAWS?

A

Terrain Awareness Warning System

Generic term that captures all equipment that assists a pilot to avoid a CFIT

299
Q

What a/c are required to carry TAWS?

A

All turbine engined a/c with a MTWO of greater than 5700kgs or capable of carrying more than 9 pax

300
Q

How much of a warning of a CFIT will a TAWS system give you?

A

Typically 20 seconds

301
Q

What are the wake turbulence separation requirements for a/c in the intermediate approach phase?

A

1) 5nm between a HEAVY (excluding a SUPER) and a MEDIUM (UPPER and LOWER) or SMALL a/c following or crossing behind at the same level or less than 1000ft below

2) 6nm between a HEAVY (excluding a SUPER) and LIGHT a/c following or crossing behind at the same level or less than 1000ft below

3) As per Final Approach minima for a/c following or crossing behind a super at the same level or less than 1000ft below?

302
Q

What are the wake turbulence minima for a/c on the final approach phase?

304
Q

Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.

A

Aircraft in emergency

Aircraft which have declared a police emergency

Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.

305
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.

A

Police flights under normal operational priority

Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops

Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights

306
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status

A

Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement

307
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.

A

Flights carrying the;
1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer
3) Home secretary
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs

Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA

308
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.

A

Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks

HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties

Other flights authorised by the CAA

309
Q

Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.

A

Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests

310
Q

What flight category are training and non standard flights?

311
Q

What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?

A

Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A

Cat B- Normal operational priority

Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc

312
Q

What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?

A

Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved.

They can operate as;

Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks

Cat E when positioning for its duties

Cat Z when training, testing etc.

313
Q

What is the definition of windshear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.

314
Q

Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear

A

“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss
20 knots, strong right drift”

When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.

315
Q

How will Royal Flights be protected outside CAS?

A

By the establishment of CAS-T

316
Q

What class of airspace is CAS-T?

317
Q

What are the dimensions of CAS-T?

A

Vertical and horizontal dimensions defined as required

318
Q

For how long will CAS-T be active?

A

15 mins before to 30 mins after an ETD or ETA

319
Q

What are the dimensions of RLLCs?

A

Royal Low Level Corridors

5nm either side of the a/c’s track from the surface to 1000ft above the a/c’s max operating level

320
Q

With regards to PSR what is an MTI?

A

Moving Target Indicator

The part of the system that filters out returns which aren’t moving in an attempt to filter out permanent echoes or objects unlikely to be an a/c

321
Q

What are the advantages of PSR?

A

Does not require the a/c to carry any equipment and can therefore discover an a/c with transponder failure

Cheaper

322
Q

What are the advantages of SSR?

A

Requires much less power to achieve the desired range, because pulse does not need to travel to the target and back

More information provided to the ATCO, including additional data based on the transponder mode

Targets are easier to distinguish due to different SSR codes

SSR is immune to clutter as it uses different frequencies for interrogation and reply

323
Q

What is anaprop?

A

When stable atmospheric conditions/temp inversion cause false radar echoes due to ducting

324
Q

What is clutter

A

Radar clutter is unwanted reflections from terrain, buildings, weather, flocks of birds etc that mix with a/c echoes and hinder target detection

325
Q

What is selected flight level?

A

The flight level manually selected by the flight crew in the a/c FMS

326
Q

What is the phraseology if the selected flight level is incorrect?

A

“<C/S> check selected level. Cleared level is <assigned>"</assigned>

327
Q

What is BPS?

A

Barometric Pressure Setting

328
Q

How does ADS-B work?

A

By broadcasting information about an a/c’s GNSS location, altitude, ground speed and other data to ground stations and other a/c, once per second. ATCOs and properly equipped a/c can immediately receive this info and have it displated to them.

329
Q

How does MLAT work?

A

Multilateration employs a number of strategically placed ground stations, which listen for the replies to interrogations from local SSR/MLAT stations. Using the Time Difference of Arrival (TDOA) of each reply at each different station an a/c’s position to be precisely triangulated.

330
Q

What is the heading of an a/c?

A

The direction it is pointing

331
Q

What is the track of an a/c?

A

The direction an a/c is travelling in

332
Q

What is drift?

A

The angular difference between heading and track

333
Q

What is true airspeed?

A

Speed a/c is travelling through the air

334
Q

What is ground speed?

A

The speed the a/c is travelling over the ground, under the influence of wind velocity

335
Q

What is indicated airspeed?

A

The speed shown to the pilots on the ASI

336
Q

What is the effect of headwind on radius of turn?

A

Reduces the radius of turn

337
Q

What is the effect of headwind on angle of climb?

A

Increases angle of climb. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm

338
Q

What is the effect of headwind on angle of descent?

A

Increase angle of descent. Same ft/min but increased ft/nm

339
Q

In theory what happens to wind as you ascend vertically?

A

Wind veers and increases in speed as you ascend vertically

340
Q

What type of turbulence do strong winds near the ground cause, and where is this most likely to be encountered?

A

Mechanical Turbulence. Occurs near especially irregular terrain and man-made obstacles such as hangars

341
Q

What is a discreet squawk?

A

Assigned by ATC to a specific a/c, used in a way that ensures the same code is not assigned to two a/c in the same airspace at the same time, to allow for identification

342
Q

What is a conspicuity squawk?

A

Non-specific codes used either at pilot’s discretion (eg emergency) or when no discrete squawk has been assigned?

343
Q

If a discrete squawk is allocated what else must be done?

A

It must be validated by checking asap that the data displayed corresponds with the code which has been assigned.

344
Q

What are frequency monitoring codes?

A

In order to prevent and mitigate the conseuqnces of airspace infringements, pilots operating close to the peripheries of certain CAS may select local SSR conspicuity codes and monitor the promulagated frequency. Selection of such codes does not imply the provision of any ATS

345
Q

What is the squawk for flight cals?

346
Q

What is the paradropping squawk?

347
Q

What is the selected helicopter flights squawk?

348
Q

What is the powerline/pipeline squawk?

349
Q

What is the royal helicopters squawk?

350
Q

What is the IFR conspicuity squawk?

351
Q

What ils the VFR conspicuity squawk?

352
Q

What is the mil low level fixed wing conspicuity and climb out?

353
Q

What is the red barrows squawk?

354
Q

What is the aerobatics and display squawk?

355
Q

What is the high energy manoeuvres squawk?

356
Q

What is the cct squawk?

357
Q

What separation is required horizontally if PSR fails?

358
Q

What separation is required horizontally if SSR fails?

359
Q

How far should a/c be kept inside CAS, horizontally and vertically

A

horizontally- 2nm or half the standard minima

vertically- 500ft

360
Q

What distance is the minimum permitted length of an ILS Final Approach?

A

2nm from the FAF (5nm at Avon)

361
Q

What distance of level flight is required on LOC before GP is intercepted?

362
Q

What is a CDA?

A

Continous Descent Approach.

An a/c operating techinique in which an arriving a/c continously descends from height avoiding level flight, thereby using minimum thrust reducing noise, fuel burn and emissions.

363
Q

Describe the standard LOC and GP areas.

364
Q

What is a SMAC?

A

Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart

365
Q

State the amount of terrain clearance the SMAC ensures on initial approach and within the FAVA

A

Initial Approach
1000ft (same as initial approach segment)

FAVA
500ft (same as intermediate approach segment)

366
Q

What conditions must be met before using the FAVA level?

A

The a/c must either be established on the final approach track or on an intercept of 40 degrees or less

367
Q

List the exceptions to the generic speed limit rule

A

Flights in Class A and B Airspace

IFR flights in Class C airspace

For exempted VFR flights in Class C airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2

For exempted flights in Class D airspace when authorised by an ATC unit in accordance with MATS pt 2

Test flights in accordance with specified conditions

A/c taking part in flying displays when authorised by the CAA

A/c subject to written permission granted by the CAA

State a/c such as mil

368
Q

When should traffic information be provided under a BS?

A

Info indicates that there is aerial activity in a particular location that may affect a flight
A definite risk of collision exists

369
Q

What is the minimu level for DS?

A

The ATC units terrain safe level

370
Q

Under what circumstances can vectors be given to an a/c under TS below the terrain safe level?

A

If a pilot receiving a TS requests a heading from the ATCO whilst operating below the ATC terrain safe level, this may be provided as long as the ATCO reminds the pilot that they remain responsible for terrain clearance. For example

“G-CD taking your own terrain clearance, suggest right heading 120 degrees”

371
Q

What happens if a/c under DS requests to descend below the terrain safe level?

A

If a pilot requests descent below ATC unit terrain safe levels, ATCOs shall no longer provide a DS but should instead, subject to surveillance and RTF coverage, apply a TS.

372
Q

What is meant by ground visibility?

A

The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer

373
Q

What is meant by flight visibility?

A

The forward visibility as seen from the cockpit of an a/c in flight

374
Q

Who decides if Class G is VMC and what type of visibility is used for this?

A

A/c commander and flight visibility

375
Q

Which classes of airspace are controlled airspace?

376
Q

What is the standard size of an ATZ?

A

Height 2000ft AGL
2NM or 2.5NM (if runway 1850m or longer) radius from centrepoint of longest runway

377
Q

Describe the standard dimensions of a MATZ

378
Q

What is the maximum holding delay before accurate EATS have to be issued?

A

20 minutes

379
Q

What are the ICAO recommended stabilised approach points in IMC and VMC?

A

IMC= 1000ft

VMC= 500ft

380
Q

What is the OCA?

A

Obstacle Clearance Altitude

The lowest altitude above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used in establishing compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance
criteria.

381
Q

What is the Decision Altitude?

A

the altitude/height in a precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue that approach has not been established.

382
Q

What is the Minimum Descent Altitude/Height?

A

the altitude/height in a non-precision approach below which
descent may not be made without the required visual reference.

383
Q

What is the MSA?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude

The lowest safe altitude for instrument flight within
sectors of an aid, facility or aerodrome which is published in the appropriate approach
chart.

384
Q

What is the MAPt?

A

Missed Approach Point

The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.

385
Q

What is the minimum level that can be given to an a/c within the final approach area?

A

The minimum levels as specified in the procedure approved by the CAA.

386
Q

What is the minimum level that can be assigned to an a/c in the SMAA?

A

The minimum level as published on
the SMAC.

387
Q

What is the SMAA?

A

Defined area in the vicinity of an
aerodrome, depicted on a Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart (SMAC), in which the
minimum safe levels allocated by a controller vectoring IFR flights with Primary and/or Secondary Radar equipment have been predetermined.

388
Q

What is the minimum altitude that can be given to an a/c outside of the SMAA and the final approach area within CAS?

A

Within 30nm of the radar antenna;

1000ft above any fixed obstacle
within:
a) 5 nm of the Aircraft and
b) 15 nm ahead and 20deg either
side of track.

Aircraft within 15nm of antenna and
provided a SMAC or approved
procedure notified, 5 and 15 nm are
reduced to 3 and 10nm respectivly

Outside 30nm;

1000ft above any fixed obstacle;
a) within 15nm of the centreline of the ATS route; or
b) within 30nm of the a/c

389
Q

What is a VM(c) Approach?

A

When an aircraft intends to land on a runway for which no instrument approach procedure exists, it may descend on the instrument approach to another runway and, provided the required visual references are established at the VM(C) Minimum Descent Altitude/Height, it may manoeuvre in a circling pattern visually for landing on the desired runway.

390
Q

What is meant by delay not determined?

A

If, for reasons other than weather (for example an obstruction on the runway), the extent of the delay is not known, aircraft are to be advised “delay not determined”.

391
Q

What do you say to following a/c when the first is holding for weather improvement?

A

Subsequent aircraft are to be passed “delay not determined (number) aircraft holding for weather improvement”.

392
Q

What do you say to the first a/c when holding for weather improvement?

A

“no traffic delay expected”

393
Q

What is an RNP Approach and what accuracy is required?

A

An RNP approach utilises GNSS augmented by either ABAS (e.g. RAIM) or SBAS to provide lateral only, or lateral and vertical guidance. The accuracy required is 0.3 NM unless it is a hazardous approach, requiring RNP (AR) in which case its 0.1 NM.

394
Q

What information should be given to a pilot when they establish on the final approach track of a non-precision approach?

A

The aircraft is to be provided with a descent profile to enable a crossing of the FAF at the published procedure altitude/height.

395
Q

What is safeguarding?

A

The act of protecting the runway in anticipation of Low Vis Operations. For LVOs there must be Low Visibility Procedures. When the vis or cloud falls below a prescribed minima and is forecast to worsen the ADC shall initiate safeguarding

396
Q

Who is responsible for initiating LVPs?

A

The aerodrome controller

397
Q

What do you need to say to a/c is LVPs are in force?

A

“Low Visibility Procedures are in Force”

398
Q

What spacing do we provide at Avon during LVPs?

A

10nm normally

15nm fot facilitate a departure

399
Q

Under what conditions must RVR be passed?

A
  1. When the RVR reading is equal to or less than the maximum reportable for the RVR system in use
  2. When Shallow fog is present and for the period for which it is forecast
  3. Whenever the aerodrome met report shows the vis to be less than 1,500m
400
Q

What does an SRA endorsement allow you to provide?

A

Non-precision approach conducted using surveillance radar equipment

401
Q

Where can SRAs be carried out?

A

Only where the ATS surveillance system and the procedure have been approved by the CAA for use at a particular aerodrome

402
Q

What must be passed during an SRA that terminates at 2nm?

A
  1. Advisory heights through which the aircraft should be passing to maintain the
    nominal glidepath, together with ranges from touchdown, shall be passed at each
    nautical mile
  2. The pilot shall be instructed to check their minimum descent height/altitude one mile before
    advisory heights/altitudes are discontinued
  3. Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH
403
Q

What will be provided during an SRA that terminates at less than 2nm from touchdown?

A

(1) Advisory heights through which the aircraft should be passing to maintain the
nominal glidepath, together with ranges from touchdown, shall be passed at each half mile;

(2) Transmissions shall not be interrupted for intervals of more than 5 seconds from a range of 4 NM until the approach is terminated;

(3) The pilot shall be instructed to check their minimum descent height at a range of 2 NM;

(4) Advisory heights shall be discontinued at the one above the highest OCH or at 1 NM, whichever is the sooner;

(5) The controller shall not be responsible for any duties other than those strictly connected with the SRA.

405
Q

What are the pilots responsibilities in regards to weather avoidance?

A

In CAS- obtain a clearance for any proposed detour

if required to leave CAS- Following vectors the pilot is required to obtain a joining clearance to re-enter CAS

406
Q

What is QDM?

A

Magnetic heading to a station

407
Q

What is QDR?

A

Magnetic bearing from a station

408
Q

What is QUJ?

A

True track to a station

409
Q

What is QTE?

A

True bearing from a station

410
Q

When can visual approaches not be approved?

A

When the RVR is less than 800m, in this instance pilot will be informed that this approach is not available and asked for their intentions

411
Q

Are we required to separate a/c on a visual approach?

A

Yes they are still IFR

412
Q

What are the deconfliction minima against known a/c?

A

3nm or 1000ft

413
Q

What are the deconfliction minima against unknown a/c?

A

5nm or 3000ft, surveillance returns should also not merge unless Mode A data indicates that the Mode C is verified

414
Q

What are your actions if a pilot under a DS asks to descend below the terrain safe level?

A

They will be reminded that they are responsible for terrain sep and service downgraded to a TS

415
Q

When is traffic considered to be relevant?

A

When the flight profile indicates it will pass within 3nm or 3000ft of the a/c receiving the service.

Info should be passed prior to the a/c being with 5nm

416
Q

What are the segements of an Instrument Approach?

A
  1. Arrival
  2. Initial
  3. Intermediate
  4. Final
  5. Missed
417
Q

Describe the Arrival segment of a instrument approach

A

From the en-route phase to the approach phase, ends at the IAF

418
Q

Describe the Initial segment of an Instrument Approach

A

Begins at IAF and ends at the IF takes a/c to the intermediate segment

419
Q

Describe the Intermediate segment of an Instrument Approach

A

From IF to the FAF/FAP

Speed and configuration adjusted to prepare for final approach

Obstacle clearance reduces from 1000ft to 500ft

420
Q

Describe the Final Segment of the Instrument Approach

A

From FAP/FAF to the MAPt

Alignment and descent for landing are made. May be to a runway for a straight in landing or to an aerodrome for a visual manoeuvre

421
Q

Describe the Missed segment of the Instrument Approach

A

Takes pilot from the MAPt up above obstacles (150ft above) and back to another attempt at the approach.

422
Q

What may a MAPt be?

A

Glide Path DA/DH
Nav facility
Fix
Specified distance from FAF

423
Q

What is a DA or DH?

A

Decision Altitude/Height

Apply only to precision approaches

424
Q

What is a MDA/MDH?

A

Minimum Descent Altitude/Height

For non precision approaches

425
Q

Define a step-down fix

A

Provided in the final approach segment of instrument approach procedures to ensure obstacle clearance if there are significant obstacles under the final approach

426
Q

At what ranges do SRAs terminate?

A

2nm, 1nm, or 0.5nm

427
Q

In which order will ops report the runway condition codes to ATC?

A

Starting from the lowest runway denominator

428
Q

In which order must ATC report them to pilots?

A

In the order starting from the threshold of the runway in use

429
Q

A runway whose surface shows a change of colour due to moisture will be reported as what?

430
Q

What is the maximum depth of water that can exist on a runway if it is to be reported as wet?

A

up to and including 3mm

431
Q

What does the number 6 indicate?

A

Dry runway

432
Q

What number will be assigned to a wet runway?

433
Q

What is meant by the term slippery wet?

A

A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant part of the runway have been determined to be degraded

434
Q

What descriptor is used to describe a runway with more than 3mm of water on its surface?

A

Standing Water

435
Q

List the 8 descriptors which constitute a contaminated runway?

A

Compacted Snow
Dry Snow
Frost
Ice
Slush
Standing Water
Wet Ice
Wet Snow

436
Q

What percentage of each runway third has to be covered for the contamination to be considered significant to a/c performance?

A

exceeds
25%

437
Q

List the descriptions of braking action which can be contained in pilots’ braking action reports

A

Good
Medium
Medium to poor
Poor
Less than poor

438
Q

When is braking action to be described as normal?

A

When the Condition Code is 5 or 6

439
Q

When should unofficial reports from pilots, or unofficial observations from the tower be passed on?

A

When they are worse than those being officially reported

440
Q

In addition to runway surface conditions, what else should be reported to pilots when runways are contiminated with snow and ice?

A

Runway de-icing activity that has taken place, such as chemical treatment or sanding

Snowbanks on the runway giving the distance left/right from the runway center line

Frozen ruts and ridges

441
Q

What is the minimum altitude outside the SMAA and to what distance?

A

2,500ft up to 40nm

442
Q

What type of service is provided in Class F airspace?

A

Air Traffic Advisory Service

443
Q

From when until when do Approach Control provide ATC services to A/C within CAS?

A

1) Arriving A/C are released by Area Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control

2) A/C approaching from outside CAS place themselves under the control of Approach Control until transferred to Aerodrome Control

3) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until;
a) they are transferred to Area Control; or
b) they are clear of CAS

4) Overflying A/C are within the relevant CAS

444
Q

Outside CAS from when and until when shall Approach Control provide services to A/C?

A

1) Arriving A/C place themselves under the contol of Approach Control until control is transferred to Aerodrome Control

2) Departing A/C are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no longer wish a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the Aerodrome whichever is sooner.

3) Overflying A/C place themselves under the control of Approach Control until they are clear of the Approach pattern and either no longer wish to receive a service or are 10 minutes flying time away from the aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.

445
Q

What information shall Approach Control provide to Aerodrome Control?

A

1) Pertinent data on all relevant flights including the type of flight, ie IFR or VFR, level of arriving A/C and ETA;

2) The anticipated order in which control of A/C is to be transferred;

3) The anticipated delay to departing IFR flights together with the reason for the delay.

446
Q

What information shall Approach Control provide to Area Control?

A

1) Lowest level at the holding facility available for use by Area Control

2) The average time interval between successive approaches

3) Revision of EATs issued by Area Control when Approach Control calculations show a variation of 5 mins or more;

4) Arrival times over the holding point if these vary from the estimate by 3 minutes or more

5) Missed Approaches when re-routing is entailed, in order that the subsequent action may be co-ordinated;

6) Departure times of A/C

7) All available information pertaining to overdue A/C

447
Q

What shall Approach Control co-ordinate with Aerodrome Control?

A

1) A/C approaching to land, if necessary requesting clearance to land.

2) Arriving A/C which are to be cleared to Visual Holding Points

3) A/C routing through the traffic cct

448
Q

What shall Aerodrome Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?

A

1) Departing IFR flights

2) Arriving A/C which make their first call on the tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach Control)

449
Q

What shall Area Control co-ordinate with Approach Control?

A

Arriving A/C which is to be cleared to an aerodrome holding facility or a Visual Holding point, instead of the normal holding facility

450
Q

When may transfer of A/C to Aerodrome Control take place?

A

IFR flights operating with visual ref to the surface may be transferred in the following circumstances;

1) When an A/C carrying out an Instrument Approach has become no. 1 and for following A/C when they are established on final apprach and have been provided with the appropriate separation from preceding A/C;

2) A/C operating in the Tx Cct

3) A/C approaching visually below all cloud when the reported aerodrome visibility is 10KM or more. When the reported visibility of two values, the lower of the two values shall be used when determining whether transfer of control may take place.

nb; in the case of 2 and 3 the volume of tx and Aerodrome workload must be such as to allow the use of one of the reduced in the vicinity of the aerodrome. In order to clear other A/C to descend through the cloud formation it will be necessary for the A/C approaching underneath to be kept more than 1,000ft below all cloud, or for horizontal separation to be provided.

451
Q

When may transfer of communication from Approach Control to Aerodrome Control take place?

A

IFR flights when the A/C has become no.1 to approach, and for following A/C, when they are established on final approach and have been provided with appropriate separation. Until such A/C are visual with the surface the responsibility for separation remains with Approach Control.

Aerodrome Control shall not issue any instructions or advice that would reduce the separation established by Approach Control.

452
Q

Until when shall Approach Control retain contol of arriving VFR flights?

A

Until appropriate tx info on IFR and other VFR flights has been issued and co-ordination effected with Aerodrome Control.

Should keep a particular eye on VFR flights arriving from directions in which other A/C will be letting down on an Instrument Approach, e.g joining straight in under the final approach when an Instrument Approach is active.

453
Q

Can A/C be held over VRP’s?

A

Outside CAS- Should not be done

Inside CAS- Yes

454
Q

When can separation be increased?

A

1) Pilot requests it
2) Controller deems it necessary
3) CAA demands it

455
Q

When does transfer of control normally take place?

A

1) At an agreed reporting point
2) On an estimate for an FIR boundary
3) At or passing an agreed level
4) While an a/c is climbing to an agreed level providing separation will exist for the rest of the climb

456
Q

When shall an a/c be informed of the change of service?

A

1) OCAS
2) Entering CAS
3) Changing from IFR to VFR or vice versa within class E airspace
4) VFR entering class B-D airspace from class E or vice versa
5) Leaving CAS unless pilots are provided with advanced notice (5-10nm or 3000ft-6000ft prior)

457
Q

What is the Handover Acronym and what does it stand for?

A

PRAWNSS

Pressure
Runway (in use, surface conditions)
Aids/Aerodrome Status (nav aid serviceability, etc)
Weather (upper winds, unusual methods)
Non-standard (flights, NOTAMS etc)
Strips
Set up of Radar

458
Q

When is a pilot advised to file a flight plan in the UK?

A
  • Flying over the sea more than 10nm from the UK coast
  • Over sparsely populated areas where SAR may be difficult
  • Into an area where SAR ops are in progress
459
Q

What are AIC’s?

A

Aeronautical information circulars

Information that doesn’t qualify for inclusion in the AIP or a NOTAM. NOT A NOTIFIED DOCUMENT.

460
Q

What are the AIC colours?

A

White- Admin

Yellow- Operations/ATS

Pink- Safety

Mauve- UK restriction charts

Green- Maps/Charts

461
Q

When may a pilot file a flight plan?

A

For any flight

462
Q

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?

A
  1. For any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an Air traffic control service
  2. Any flight within advisory airspace
  3. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services
  4. Any flight within or into areas or along routes designated by the authority to facilitate co-ordination with the appropriate military units or air traffic service units of an adjacent state to prevent the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification as prescribed by the state concerned.
  5. Any flight across international boundaries
  6. Any flight planned to leave the vicinity of the aerodrome at night
463
Q

Do you need to identify an a/c on a basic service?

A

No

Not unlessv you want him to fly a specific level or heading

464
Q

When would you give an a/c receiving a Basic Service traffic info?

A

When there is a clear and present risk of collision with another a/c

465
Q

When can you clear an A/C for the ILS approach?

A

When the a/c is inside the Localiser DOC and will intercept the Glidepath inside the Glidepath DOC