ABES Oral Board Flashcards

1
Q

How will you become aware of a radio failure?

A

Pilot may squawk 7600

Loss of communication between a/c and ATCO with no response when called

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2
Q

What else might cause an apparent radio failure?

A

Electrical failure

It could be failure of the ATC radios

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3
Q

How can you contact a pilot below R/T cover?

A

Use another a/c as a relay

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4
Q

What other means of communication exist between a/c and ground?

A

Aldis lamps and flares

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5
Q

What is the RTF squawk?

A

7600

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6
Q

How can you determine if a receiver is still working?

A

Ask the a/c to squawk ident

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7
Q

What if a/c is not transponder equipped?

A

Ask the a/c to make a turn (if VFR remember to tell them to maintain VMC and keep terrain safe)

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8
Q

How do you mitigate against a pilot not being able to read items back to you?

A

By using words twice or repeating the clearance/instruction

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9
Q

What procedure should a pilot follow if RCF whilst following a SID that hasn’t been given any heading/level restrictions?

A

The procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached.

Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.

Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.

If for operational necessity an a/c cannot continue with the AIP procedures then;

  1. Aircraft departing on a northbound SID route TAMAR at FL50 or last assigned level, then route direct to EVN and follow the
    standard inbound procedure
  2. Aircraft departing on a Shark SID Procced to EVN via BRN at FL50
    or last assigned level then follow the standard inbound procedure.

To ensure separation Medway will not release aircraft below
FL110 to guard against RTF climbing to lose fuel.

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10
Q

What procedure should a pilot follow if RCF when vectored off of a SID?

A

If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, continue last acknowledged
ATC instructions for 3 minutes only, then proceed in most direct manner possible to rejoin FPL route.

If for operational necessity an a/c cannot continue with the AIP procedures then;

  1. Aircraft departing on a northbound SID route TAMAR at FL50 or last assigned level, then route direct to EVN and follow the
    standard inbound procedure
  2. Aircraft departing on a Shark SID Procced to EVN via BRN at FL50
    or last assigned level then follow the standard inbound procedure.

To ensure separation Medway will not release aircraft below
FL110 to guard against RTF climbing to lose fuel.

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11
Q

Procedures for a RCF a/c when following a STAR

A

After the 7 minute criterion arrange descent as close as possible to the descent planning profile. If no such profile published arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the designated IAF.

On reaching the landing aid serving the destination, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the calculated ETA. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute.

If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield.For AVON;

AVON

Descend to or maintain last assigned level, proceed via STAR to EVN via BRN to hold maintaining the last assigned level (if partial RCF with operable receiver proceed in accordance with ATC instructions), commence descent for landing at last acknowledged EAT (if no EAT given or acknowledged, on arrival at the EVN) in accordance to current ATIS. If no ATIS received proceed as for runway 26 and subject to surface wind indication land or circling approach to most appropriate runway.

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12
Q

Action to be followed by pilot if given ‘delay not determined’

A

If ‘delay not determined’ has been given leave AVON CTR on a track of 185 degrees M from BRN at last assigned level.

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13
Q

What is the RCF procedure a pilot will follow when being vectored for an approach?

A

Remain at or above the MSA.

Takes one of three options;

  1. Continue visually
  2. Continue using an approved final approach aid
  3. Route to the IAF to conduct the approach from there.
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14
Q

What is the RCF procedure for VMC inside CAS?

A

Continue visually and join aerodrome cct

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15
Q

What is the RCF procedure for VMC outside CAS where the a/c has been cleared to enter a) VFR and b)SVFR?

A

a) Continue visually and join aerodrome cct
b) Remain outside CAS and land at another suitable aerodrome

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16
Q

What is the RCF procedure for a SVFR a/c that is inside CAS when RTF occurs a) inbound b) transitting?

A

a) continue visually and join the aerodrome cct

b) Leave CAS asap and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome

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17
Q

Describe the speechless code

A

When a/c is still able to transmit

Can get them to adopt C/S ‘Speechless x’

Ask closed questions and responses will be;

. = yes
.. = no
… = say again
-..- = further emergency
- = Manoeuvre completed

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18
Q

What are the three main questions if a further emergency is suspected?

A

Can you maintain height?

Can you make a normal descent?

Can you make a normal landing?

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19
Q

What does STORCALE stand for?

A

S - Separate
T - Transmit (levels, EATs, wx etc)
O - Other (inform other a/c or RCF)
R - Request assistance (from APP/DIR to attempt contact etc, other a/c to relay messages)
C - Continue to transmit info
A - Alternates (notify alternates)
L - Liaise (with operator, transmit blind info as requested)
E - Emergency (actions as considered appropriate, overdue action etc)

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20
Q

Why do a/c dump fuel?

A

Due to rough running engine

To lose weight

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21
Q

What are the implications of overweight landings?

A

Gear collapsing

Overrun of runway due to higher landing speeds

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22
Q

Where to dump fuel?

A

Over the sea if possible at or above 10,000ft (execeptionally at least 7000ft AGL in winter and 4,000ft in summer to allow evaporation)

Inside CAS at Avon we do it at BRN at FL100 (or assigned level if higher)

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23
Q

What is the fuel jettisoning procedure for RCF a/c at Avon?

A

Route direct BRN via TAM

Squawk 3617 on reaching the BRN hold and climb to FL100 (or maintain assigned level if higher).

Commence fuel jettisoning

On completing re-select 7600 and descend in BRN hold to FL80, when level route to EVN at FL80

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24
Q

Who makes final decision regarding dumping?

A

The captain

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25
Q

To what should a/c be kept close if possible, and why?

A

The airport, just in case of further emergency

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26
Q

What separation should be applied between fuel dumping and other a/c?

A

1000ft

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27
Q

What is the lost a/c sqauwk?

A

0030

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28
Q

What separation do you provide against unknown a/c inside CAS?

A

5nm or 5000ft, do not let the blips merge

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29
Q

How do you identify lost a/c on radar?

A

They will be squawking code 0030

or

may do triangle procedure (for those with RCF total/partial failure- left hand turns for complete)

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30
Q

What information should you give to a pilot when identified?

A

Give them their position and any corrective action required

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31
Q

What cautions should be exercised when vectoring lost VFR a/c?

A

The a/c’s ability to maintain VMC and terrain clearance

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32
Q

What if no radar contact?

A

Contact other radar equipped units to provide assistance.

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33
Q

D and D VHF and UHF frequencies?

A

VHF- 121.500

UHF- 243.000

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34
Q

Autotriangulation?

A

Service provided by D and D which can instantaneously provide an a/c’s position

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35
Q

Monitoring squawk codes?

A

Monitoring unit who uses that code

Allows you to contact a/c if required however it does not imply that any type of service is being provided

Data is to be considered unvalidated and unverified

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36
Q

Use of mode S

A

Can help you get a/c reg, aerodrome of dep etc.

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37
Q

What is the Hijack squawk and ATC response?

A

7500

ATC will respond with ‘confirm squawking assigned code?’

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38
Q

What are your subsequent actions regarding hijack/ unlawful interference?

A

a) Transmit, and continue to transit, information pertinent to the safe conduct of the flight, w/o expecting a reply from the a/c

b) Monitor and plot the progress of theflight with the means available, and co-ordinate transfer of control with adjacent ATS units without requiring transmissions or other responses from the a/c, unless comms with the a/c remains normal

c) Pass information to relevant ATSU’s

d) Provide normal clearances and information unless otherwise directed

e) Government may withhold clearance to enter national airspace or land at any national airfield

f) Try to provide separation if a/c ignores lack of clearance

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39
Q

Who should you inform of an a/c undergoing Hijack/Unlawful interference?

A

Watch supervisor at parent ACC

Information on unlawful interference in European airspace to be reported to other states

Reporting action listed in national procedures

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40
Q

Relay of messages to a/c subject to Hijack/Unlawful interference

A

Pass messages verbatim to a/c

for example

‘c/s, i am instructed by His Majesty’s Gov to refuse entry into UK airspace. What are your intentions?’

‘c/s, i am instructed by His Majesty’s Gov to inform you that landing clearan/ce has been refused for any airfield within the UK’

‘c/s, I am instructed by His Majesty’s Gov that you are to hold at (e.g. location on the aerodrome, ERP, or Lat/Long) at (level). Acknowledge’

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41
Q

What are the categories of bomb warnings?

A

Red

Amber

Green

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42
Q

What is a red category for a bomb warning?

A

Specific warning where threat is of a nature which identifies a specific target or where the caller has been positively identified or the organisation involved has been identified and is judged credible.

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43
Q

What is a amber category for a bomb warning?

A

Warning that can be related to one or more targets, but where there is doubt about its credibility or existing counter-measures.

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44
Q

What is a red category for a bomb warning?

A

Warning which may not identify a target or specific group of targets
or which otherwise lacks credibility.

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45
Q

Which are considered emergencies and who has final decision?

A

Only those assessed by bomb threat assessors as RED or AMBER are treated as emergency

The captain of the a/c has final decision

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46
Q

Who determines a bomb threat category?

A

Bomb threat assessors from MoD, DfT, Airport Operators, and Airline Operators

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47
Q

What vectoring considerations are there for a/c experiencing a bomb threat?

A

Avoid vectoring them over densely populated areas

48
Q

What is the effect on subsequent inbounds from an a/c with a bomb warning?

A

Advise them of situation, expect delay and take them to the hold. Find out further actions from Airport Authority

49
Q

Effect on RFFS authority for bomb warning?

A

Check with SAFO as to what happens to RFFS cat, depends on the situation.

50
Q

What effect does an engine fire on departure have on radius of turn and rate of climb?

A

Increased radius of turn as pilot may not bank as sharply as usually.

Rate of climb decreases with loss of power

51
Q

What effect would an engine fire on dep have on an a/c’s ability to follow a SID?

A

The increased turn radius and loss of climbing power may mean an a/c is unable to follow a SID profile correctly.

52
Q

If an a/c needs to return immediately following an engine failure what considerations are there re vectoring and level instructions?

A

Give a/c plenty of room as turns may take longer

A/c may only be able to make turns in one direction

Level instructions should be given with plenty of time to arrange descent profile

Try not to offer intermediate level-offs

53
Q

What type of approach would you give a/c if they had an engine fire on dep?

A

One with precaution, ensure the approach is as stable as possible with early turns

54
Q

What direction of turn would you expect from an a/c with a full or partial engine failure?

A

Depends on the type of a/c, some may have to turn into the engine others away. Pilot should inform you

55
Q

What runway would the a/c use in emergency?

A

Whichever one the pilot needs

56
Q

What considerations are there for an a/c landing with engine failure re runway length?

A

They may no longer be able to thrust reverse so may need a longer Landing Distance

57
Q

After landing what might happen to an aircraft with an engine failure?

A

The runway may have to be closed if the aircraft cannot vacate the runway

58
Q

For what reasons may an a/c not be able to maintain height?

A

Engine failure
Depressurisation
Loss of power
Icing
Fire
Bird strike

59
Q

What priority is afforded to a/c declaring minimum fuel?

60
Q

What is the APS ATCO’s response to an a/c declaring minimum fuel?

A

ATCO’s respond to a ‘Minimum fuel’ declaration by confirming estimated delay in minutes (or no delay) if in the Hold or en-route or by passing track mileage if a/c is being vectored .

61
Q

If fuel shortage becomes critical what phraseology should be used?

A

Mayday, Mayday, Mayday, Fuel

62
Q

What priority is afforded to a/c that have declared Mayday Fuel?

63
Q

Who runs UK SAR helicopters?

A

Coastguard

64
Q

What agency is responsible for scrambling such helicopters and co-ordinating SAR efforts?

65
Q

Callsign or helicopters engaged in SAR ops?

A

SRG- Rescue xx

66
Q

What priority category are helicopters engaged in SAR ops?

A

Cat A- where safety of life is involved
Cat B- on SAR or HEMS flights where priority is required

67
Q

What is the APS ATCO’s point of contact when SAR required?

A

ACC supp or D and D

68
Q

What is the police callsign and flight priorities?

A

UKP
A- When involved in a police emergency
B- Under normal operational priority
Z- Training

69
Q

What is the HEMS callsign and what flight priorites are associated with them?

A

Helimed HLE
A- Safety of life involved
E- Repositioning
Z- Training

70
Q

Which helicopters are exempt from SVFR minima?

A

Police
Helimed
SAR (inc training)
Powerline
Pipeline
Rail track inspection

71
Q

Squawk for police air support?

72
Q

What is the sqauwk for a/c conducting powerline/pipeline inspections?

73
Q

What is the Helimed squawk?

74
Q

What is the SAR scene of search frequency?

75
Q

Reasons for total engine failure in multi engine a/c?

A

Fuel issues
Bird strike
High angle of attack on a jet a/c

76
Q

Information to give to pilot?

A

Nearby aerodromes
Nearby farmstrips or abandoned aerodromes
Distance and range to both

Wind
QNH
Runways available

77
Q

Who to inform if a/c can’t reach airfield?

A

D and D
ACC
Other a/c in the vicinity if they are required to orbit over a potential crash site to make locating it

78
Q

What factors would affect an a/c’s ability to reach an airfield when losing height?

A

Wind
Elevation of airfield
Speed
Height

79
Q

What action to take when using Radar?

A

Follow the path of the a/c closely
Offer bearings and distances to suitable aerodromes, or other potential landing areas if required.

If a/c disappears from Radar get lat/long of the last position to pass on

80
Q

Who else can help locate downed a/c?

A

Other a/c
Persons on the ground if they call in

81
Q

What happens to rate of descent as a/c gets lower?

A

It decreases as the air thickens

82
Q

What effect do turns have on rate of descent?

A

Increases it

83
Q

No compass, no gyro

A

Instruct a/c to conduct turns at a specified rate, normally rate 1

You will have to guide turns, by saying start left/right turn now, stop turn now.

30 seconds for a 90 degree turn
1 minutes for a 180
2 minutes for a 360

84
Q

Hydraulic Problems

A

No flaps-faster approaches
No slats-faster approaches
No speed brakes- faster landings
No gear
No thrust reversers

85
Q

Electrical problems

A

Loss of instruments
Loss of comms
Loss of lights
Engine failure

86
Q

Ballistic recovery systems

87
Q

Define Distress

A

A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance.

88
Q

Define urgency

A

A condition concerning the safety of an a/c or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance

89
Q

What is the RT phraseology for distress messages?

A

Mayday, Mayday, Mayday

90
Q

What is the phraseology for an urgency message?

A

Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan, Pan-Pan

91
Q

List the 3 phases of emergency

A

INCERFA- Uncertainity
ALERFA- Alert
DETRESFA- Distress

92
Q

Describe the INCERFA phase of emergency

A

Uncertainity- A situation where uncertainity exists as to the safety of an a/c and its occupants

RTF fail- when no comms received within 30 mins of expected time
Overdue- Fails to arrive within 30 mins of the ETA or fails to land within 5 minutes of the expected landing time after being cleared for approach

Exceptions- No doubt exists as to the safety of the a/c and its occupants

Duration- max of 30 mins

Action- Inform JRCC

93
Q

Describe the ALERFA phase of emergency

A

Alert- A situation where apprehension exists as to the safety of an a/c and its occupants

RTF fail- Attemps to establish comms during uncertainity phase have failed
Overdue- Enquiries to relevant sources during the uncertainity phase have failed to reveal any news, or, has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes of the estimated landing time
Impaired operating efficiency- Not to the extent that a forced landing is likely

Exceptions- Evidence exists that would allay apprehension as to the safety of the a/c

Max of one hour

94
Q

Describe the DETRESFA phase of emergency

A

Distress- A situation where there is reasonable certainity that an a/c and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger and require immediate assistance

RTF- Further attempt to establish comms during the ALERT phase have failed
Overdue- More widespread enquiries during the alert phase have failed to reveal any news, or, the fuel on board is considered to be exhausted or insufficient to enable to a/c to reach safety
Operating efficiency- Likelihood of a forced landing
Is known to have crashed or force landed

Exceptions- Reasonable certainity that a/c and occupants are not thereatened by grave and imminent danger and do not require immediate assistance.

Duration- Until a/c is found and the survivors are rescued or it is clear that there is no longer any chance of doing so.

95
Q

What is the definition of a full emergency?

A

When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.

96
Q

What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?

A

Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.

97
Q

What is the definition of a weather standby?

A

When weather conditions are such as to render a landing difficult or difficult to observe

98
Q

What is an Aircraft Ground Incident?

A

When an aircraft on the ground is known to have an emergency situation other than an accident, which requires the attendance of the emergency services.

99
Q

What is a local standby?

A

When it is known that an aircraft has, or is suspected to have, developed some defect but the trouble would not normally involve any serious difficulty in effecting a safe landing.

100
Q

What are Unlawful Acts?

A

Acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviation and air transport

101
Q

What are the time limits for overdue action?

A

Maximum of 30 minutes from ETA for preliminary action

1 hour has elapsed with no sign full overdue action initiated

5 mins if a/c has not appeared within the estimated time of landing once already cleared to.

102
Q

What are ATC actions for Overdue action?

A

Inform D and D and ACC sup

103
Q

What does NITS mean?

A

Pilots actions

Nature of emergency
Intentions of flight crew
Time available
Special handling requirements

104
Q

What does DODAR mean?

A

Diagnose problem
Options- which are available?
Decide which option is best
take Action to bring that option about
Review situation and actions taken

105
Q

What does ASSISTS mean?

A

Controller actions

Acknowledge
Separate
Silence
Inform
Support
Time
Squawk

106
Q

What is ANC?

A

Pilot priorites

Aviate
Navigate
Communicate

107
Q

How would an a/c experiencing RTF let us know they were experiencing a further emergency?

A

Squawk 7700

108
Q

When can normal ops resume during an RTF?

A
  • When it is determined that alternative action can be taken, or resuming normal ops would not impair safety
  • If communication is re-established (in which case inform unit where RT fail was initiated)
  • When positive information received that aircraft has landed (and inform unit where RT fail was initiated)
109
Q

What needs to be co-ordinated with ATC regarding fuel dumping?

A

Route to be flown
Level to be used
Estimated duration of fuel dump
Frequency to be monitored while fuel dumping

110
Q

What is the definition of a strayed a/c?

A

An a/c which has deviated significantly from its intended track, or which reports it is lost

111
Q

What is the definition of an unidentified a/c?

A

An a/c which has been observed/reported to be operating in a given area but whose identity hasn’t been established

112
Q

What document gives advice on dealing with emergencies?

113
Q

Who should you inform regarding an a/c that has crashed outside of the radius of action of the aerodrome RFFS?

114
Q

If a military a/c with an emergency declares they are carrying dangerous goods/explosives who is to be informed?

115
Q

To whom is an alerting service provided?

A
  • Aircraft provided with an air traffic service
  • Aircraft having filed a flightplan or otherwise known to an ATSU
  • Aircraft subject to unlawful interference
116
Q

When an a/c is in need of SAR aid who shall you inform?|