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Pharmacology (Topics A) > Written > Flashcards

Written Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT a TNF-alpha inhibitor?

a. Golimumab
b. Etanercept
c. Infliximab
d. Adalimumab
e. Natalizumab

A

e. Natalizumab

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2
Q

Which of the following compounds is NOT applicable locally?

A

Cortisone

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3
Q

Which of the following compounds is the most effective acid secretion inhibitor?

A

Pantoprazole (PPI)

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4
Q

Which of the following compounds does not have mineralocorticoid activity?

A

dexamethasone

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5
Q

Which drug is NOT an antimetabolite?

A

cyclosporin A

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6
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used for substitution in adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hydrocortisone (Cortisol)

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7
Q

Which of the following does NOT primarily affect the inhibition of acid secretion or the neutralization of acid?

A

misoprostol

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8
Q

Which of the following features have COX-2 selective inhibitors against non-selectives?

A

side effects affecting the gastrointestinal system are less frequent

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9
Q

Which side effect is NOT characteristic of glucocorticoids?

A

decrease in intraocular pressure

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10
Q

Which statement about paracetamol is FALSE?

A

gastric damage is the same as caused by acetylsalicylic acid

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11
Q

Which are the most commonly used NSAIDs for closing the ductus arteriosus of premature babies?

A

ibuprofen

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12
Q

Which of the following opioids is the most likely to cause dysphoria?

A

nalbuphine

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13
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

A

The combined use of H2 blockers with NSAIDs is contraindicated

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14
Q

Not used in H. pylori arthritis?

A

cefaclor

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15
Q

In paracetamol intoxication:

A

N-acetylcysteine

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16
Q

Which of the following opioid effects limits the dose elevation in the treatment of cancer pain?

a. euphoria
b. dysphoria
c. respiratory depression
d. pinpoint pupils
e. constipation

A

c. respiratory depression

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17
Q

Vitamin D:

A

Increases RANK-L expression

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18
Q

NOT used in rheumatoid arthritis:

A

IL-2 antag.

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19
Q

tacrolimus, sirolimus:

A

same but different mechanism of action

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20
Q

sirolimus:

A

coronary stent, cardiological significance

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21
Q

synthetic opiate

A

methadone, sufentanyl, tramadol, antidotes

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22
Q

longest half-life opioid:

A

methadone

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Al(OH) can cause 3 hypophosphatemia

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24
Q

Teriparatide:

A

When given intermittently —> mild bone marrow growth

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25
Q

aspirin:

A

8-11 day anti-platelet effect (irreversible)

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26
Q

Bisphosphonate oral availability:

A

1-10%

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27
Q

GK (Glucokinase) does not cause:

A

does not increase IL-2, not hypoglycemic

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28
Q

Which cytokine receptor is modulated by aldesleukin and basiliximab:

A

IL-2R antag

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29
Q

most commonly used bile acid:

A

pseurudezoxicholic acid

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30
Q

Glucocorticoid effects do NOT include:

A

increased protein synthesis

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31
Q

laxative:

A

leptiprost

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32
Q

Wrong about GK?

A

Increases IL-2

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33
Q

Morphine is not indicated in:

A

trigeminal neuralgia

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34
Q

Which of the following symptoms is NOT a heroin withdrawal symptom?

A

dry mouth

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35
Q

What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporin A?

A

Calcineurin inhibitor (Via NFAT)

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36
Q

Which of the following diseases can steroid therapy be applied?

A

tuberculosis

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37
Q

Which drug is NOT applicable in IBD?

A

etanercept

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38
Q

Which of the following opioids is a semisynthetic derivative?

A

naloxone

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39
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true for the effects of vitamin D on bone homeostasis?

A

inhibits bone resorption

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40
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs has the lowest probability of GI damage?

A

etirocoxib

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41
Q

Which of the following laxatives causes the least water loss for the body?

A

paraffin oil

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42
Q

Which of the following can NOT be a side effect of hormone replacement therapy when treating osteoporosis?

A

osteosarcoma

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43
Q

Why is the use of NSAIDs for pain relief not recommended during childbirth?

A

uterus contractility and uterine cramps

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44
Q

Which of the following NSAID is a prodrug?

A

nabumetone

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45
Q

Which statement is NOT true for H2 receptor blockers?

A

they also inhibit H1 receptors, so sedation is characteristic of them

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46
Q

Tolerance does not develop for which of the following opiate effects?

A

constipation

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47
Q

Which signaling component inhibits temsirolimus?

A

IL-2

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true for proton pump inhibitors?

A

Acid-stable active ingredients that bind to and block the proton pump when it reaches the stomach

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49
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs can NOT be given to feverish children?

A

acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

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50
Q

Which statement is true for proton pump inhibitors?

A

their plasma half-life is short

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51
Q

Which effect is NOT typical for glucocorticoids?

A

increase the release of histamine from basophil cells

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52
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A

before glucocorticoid treatment should be discontinued***

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53
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?

A

The microarchitecture of the bone changes as a result of bisphosphonate treatment.

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54
Q

Which statement is NOT true to tofacitinib?

A

They can only be used parenterally for poor bioavailability.

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55
Q

Which drug is NOT part of the medication used to treat psoriasis?

A

vedolizumab

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56
Q

Which of the following opioid effects is similar in morphine and codeine?

A

cough suppression (antitussive)

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57
Q

What is the analgesic dose of morphine in the case of severe acute pain?

A

5-15mg sc.

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58
Q

Which cell type does not contain the COX-2 enzyme?

A

Platelets

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59
Q

Which of the following compounds is NOT applicable systemically?

A

mometasone

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60
Q

Which of the following conditions is contraindicated for giving opioids?

A

head injury

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61
Q

Which risk is NOT typical for immunosuppressive treatment in general?

A

ototoxicity

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62
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A

Anthraquinones are prodrugs, from which the active ingredient is produced by the intestinal bacteria

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63
Q

What is the maximum daily dose of paracetamol?

A

4x1000 mg

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64
Q

Which is NOT an indication for immunosuppressive agents?

A

Acute hepatitis B

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65
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

For domperidone, the likelihood of extrapyramidal side effects is negligible(?)

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66
Q

Which opportunistic pathogen reactivation was observed typically during natalizumab therapy, leading to reduced use?

A

JC (JohnCunningham) virus

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67
Q

Which of the following is suitable for constipation induced by chronic opioid treatment (opioid intestinal syndrome)?

A

Nmethyl-naltrexone

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68
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

Activation of the 5HT3 and 5HT4 receptors both enhances intestinal peristalsis

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69
Q

Which of the following does NOT work with a receptor receptor mechanism?

A

sucralfate

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70
Q

Which of the following compounds can NOT be used in non-operable Cushing’s disease

A

triamcinolone

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71
Q

Which of the following compounds is NOT used in IBD?

A

fluticasone

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72
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

A

NSAIDs cannot have a direct gastric damaging effect, they are damaged by indirect effects

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73
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT used to reduce nausea in cancer patients?

A

meperidine

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74
Q

It is used for substitution therapy in opioid dependent patients:

A

methadone

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75
Q

Which of the following statements is true for morphine?

A

tightens the smooth muscle sphincter

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76
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Fludrocortisone also has glucocorticoid activity

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77
Q

What is the dose of acetylsalicylic acid that inhibits platelet aggregation?

A

50-200 mg / day

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78
Q

Which of the following statements can be considered as endocrine (non-inflammatory or immunosuppressive) glucocorticoid indication?

A

to prevent fetal lung disease

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79
Q

Which drug is NOT part of the medication used to treat psoriasis?

A

vedolizumab

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80
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

The oral bioavailability of N-methyl naltrexone is good.

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81
Q

Which of the following does NOT inhibit bone resorption?

A

RANK ligand

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82
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used for substitution in adrenal insufficiency?

A

hydrocortisone (cortisol)

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83
Q

Which of the following statements is true for paracetamol?

A

In paracetamol intoxication Nacetylcysteine should be administered

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84
Q

Which of the following is not a prostaglandin effect?

A

chemotaxis

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85
Q

Which of the following is not a target for antirheumatic biological therapy right now?

A

IL2

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86
Q

Which mechanism does NOT inhibit acid secretion?

A

inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

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87
Q

Why NSAID is not recommended during childbirth…

A

prolongs the delivery process

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88
Q

Which of the following opioids overdoses DO NOT cause needle pupils?

A

meperidine (pethidine)

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89
Q

Which of the following can be an opioid effect?

A

Vomiting

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90
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the mechanism of action of bisphosphonates?

A

The microarchitecture of the bone changes as a result of bisphosphonate treatment.

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91
Q

Which of the following signal transduction inhibitors has significance in cardiology (not transplantation)?

A

sirolimus

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92
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs is the least likely to have GI-damaging effects?

A

etirocoxib

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93
Q

Teriparatide:

A

Small intermittent doses increase bone volume.

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94
Q

Which of the following most commonly has the side effect of constipation?

A

sucralfate

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95
Q

Which of the following opioids is suitable for the most intense pain?

A

hydromorphone

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96
Q

Which is NOT an indication for proton pump inhibitors?

A

diabetic gastroparesis

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97
Q

Which statement is NOT true for aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid)?

A

When used as an inhibitor of platelet aggregation, the dose is typically 1x100mg

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98
Q

Which of the following is NOT true for glucocorticoids?

A

Hyperkalaemia increases their secretion

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99
Q

What is the analgesic dose of morphine in the case of severe acute pain?

A

5-15mg sc.

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100
Q

Which of the following NSAIDs has the lowest probability of GI damage?

A

etirocoxib

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101
Q

Which opportunistic pathogen reactivation was observed

A

…. JC Virus

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102
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used as substitution in adrenal insufficiency?

A

hydrocortisone (cortisol)**

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103
Q

Which of the following drugs is a vitamin A derivative?

A

acitretin (retinoid, vitamin A)

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104
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT about…its effects on homeostasis?

A

inhibits bone resorption

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105
Q

Which of the following is most suitable for attenuating vestibular vomiting?

A

H1 receptor inhibition

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106
Q

Which Cytokine Receptor does Aldesleukin and Baliximab act on?

A

IL-2

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107
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Pantoprazole and lansoprazole are reversible competitive inhibitors of the proton pump

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108
Q

Which of the following is suitable for constipation induced by chronic opioid treatment (opioid intestinal syndrome)?

A

N-methyl-naltrexone

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109
Q

Of the following glucocorticoids, which one does not have glucocorticoid activity?

A

fludrocortison

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110
Q

Which of the following opioids is suitable for alleviating breakthrough pain?

A

sublingual fentanyl

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111
Q

Which statement is NOT true for H2 receptor blockers?

A

also inhibits H1 receptors…

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112
Q

Which of the following substance is NOT used in Chron’s Disease?

A

vedolizumab

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113
Q

What is the antipyretic and analgesic single dose for acetylsalicylic acid?

A

500 mg

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114
Q

Which of the following forms is NOT typical for glucocorticoids?

A

transdermal patch

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115
Q

Which mechanism does NOT inhibit acid secretion?

A

inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis

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116
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true for proton pump inhibitors?

A

acid-stable active…

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117
Q

Which Stop False?

A

NSAIDs … … are damaged

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118
Q

Which of the following is NOT an indication for glucocorticoids?

A

pneumonia

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119
Q

Which of the following is TRUE?

A

Fludrocortisone also has glucocorticoid effects

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120
Q

Glucocorticoids have NO beneficial effect on -

A

osteoporosis

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121
Q

Which of the following overdoses DO NOT cause needle pupils?

A

meperidine (pethidin)

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122
Q

What is anti-thromogenic dose of acetylsalicylic acid …

A

50-200 mg / day

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123
Q

Which of the following statement is true?

a. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) has hepatotoxic metabolite.
b. Ketoprofen is a selective COX-2 inhibitor
c. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) is highly teratogenic
d. Combination of different NSAIDs is recommended in order to enhance their analgesic effect.
e. The kidney damaging effect of NSAIDs is not apparent in the elderly.

A

a. Paracetamol (acetaminophen) has hepatotoxic metabolite.

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124
Q

Which of the following is the shortest duration of opioid exposure?

A

remifentanyl

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125
Q

Which of the followings is considered to be an endocrinological (NOT antiinflammatory or immunosuppressive) indication? Select one:

a. status asthmaticus
b. lymphoma
c. stimulation of lung maturation in the fetus
d. lupus erythematosus
e. psoriasis

A

c. stimulation of lung maturation in the fetus

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126
Q

Which of the following opioids are applied for substitution therapy of opioid dependent patients? Select one:

a. fentanyl
b. naloxone
c. methadone
d. oxycodone
e. meperidine

A

c. methadone

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127
Q

Question text Which of the following drugs is a vitamin A derivative? Select one:

a. leflunomide
b. glatiramer
c. 5-ASA
d. acitretin
e. cyclosporin A

A

d)

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128
Q

Which of the following drugs CANNOT be used for IBDs? Select one:

a. 5-ASA
b. Etanercept
c. Methotrexate
d. Systemically given glucocorticoids
e. Locally applied glucocorticoids

A

…

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129
Q

Which ending refers to a humanized antibody in biological therapies? Select one:

a. ximab
b. mumab
c. momab
d. axomab
e. zumab

A

e. zumab?

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130
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the proton pump inhibitors? Select one:

a. They are less effective than the H2 receptor inhibitors
b. They have short plasma half-lives
c. They cannot be used in patients with inflammatory bowel disease
d. They should be administered 3 times daily, 10-20 minutes before the main meals
e. They inhibit only the nocturnal acid secretion

A

…

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131
Q

Which of the followings can be an opioid effect? Select one:

a. insomnia
b. diarrhea
c. cough
d. tachypnoe
e. vomiting

A

e. vomiting ??

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132
Q

Which of the following statements is true? Select one: ***

a. H2 receptors blockers have been completely replaced by proton pump inhibitors in the therapy of acid-related disorders
b. Inhibition of CB1 receptors alleviates nausea
c. Metoclopramide does not cross the blood-brain barrier
d. Castor oil (Ricinus) is the only available laxative during pregnancy
e. Activation of both 5HT3 and 5HT4 receptors promotes intestinal peristalsis

A

??

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133
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE for the histamine H2 receptor inhibitors? Select one:

a. They can be used for prevention of NSAID-induced ulcers
b. They inhibit H1 receptors as well and can typically cause sedation
c. They are less effective than the proton pump inhibitors
d. They are usually well-tolerated
e. They should be administered at bedtime

A

??

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134
Q

What is the maximal daily dose of paracetamol (acetaminophen)? Select one:

a. 3x500 mg
b. 4x1000 mg
c. 4x500 mg
d. 4x1500 mg
e. 3x1000 mg

A

??

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135
Q

Which of the following conditions or diseases is NOT an indication for immunosupressive drugs? Select one:

a. Organ transplantation
b. Graft versus host disease
c. Psoriasis
d. Active SLE
e. Acute hepatitis B

A

???

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136
Q

Which of the following drugs CANNOT be applied in inoperable Cushing disease? Select one:

a. pasireotide
b. triamcinolone
c. mifepristone
d. aminogluthetimide
e. ketoconazole

A

…

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137
Q

How long is the platelet aggregation inhibitory effect of acetyl-salicylic acid? Select one:

a. 24 hours
b. 8-11 days
c. 4-5 days
d. 1 month
e. 12-18 hours

A

…

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138
Q

Which of the following mechanisms can alleviate motion sickness? Select one:

a. Inhibition of μ opioid receptors
b. Inhibition of CB1 receptors
c. Inhibition of 5HT3 receptors
d. Activation of D2 receptors
e. Inhibition of H1 receptors

A

…

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139
Q

Which of the following opioids has the longest duration of action without any pharmaceutical modification (e.g. not a prolonged release tablet or a transdermal patch)? Select one:

a. meperidine
b. morphine
c. methadone
d. naloxone
e. fentanyl

A

…

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140
Q

Which of the following indications can be TRUE for calcitonine? Select one:

a. Paget’s disease
b. hypoparathyreoidism
c. rachitis
d. intestinal osteodystrophy
e. chronic kidney disease

A

…

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141
Q

Which of the following answers is true about the side effect profile of the coxibs (celecoxib, etoricoxib)? Select one: a. Healing processes of the stomach mucosa are impaired b. They do not prolong birth c. The risk of cardiovascular side effects is less than that of naproxen d. They do not influence the ductus arteriousus Botalli e. Renal side effects occur less frequently

A

…

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142
Q

Which of the following side effects is NOT characteristic to glucocorticoids? Select one: a. Decreased intraocular pressure b. Enhanced risk of infection c. Increased blood pressure d. Decreases seizure threshold e. Osteoporosis

A

….

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143
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used for replacement therapy in Addison’s disease? Select one: a. triamcinolone b. fluticasone c. dexamethasone d. hydrocortisone (cortisol) e. prednisolone

A

…

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144
Q

Which of the followings does NOT inhibit bone resorption Select one: a. bisphosphonates b. calcitonine c. RANK ligand d. SERM e. estrogen

A

…

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145
Q

Which of the following drugs should be prescribed for a pregnant woman for headache? Select one: a. acetyl-salicylic acid b. diclofenac c. paracetamol (acetaminophen) d. piroxicam e. celecoxib

A

…

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146
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Select one: a. glucocorticoids enhance the formation of Annexin-1 b. glucocorticoids decrease the formation of COX-2 c. glucocorticoids enhance the formation of interleukin-2 d. glucocorticoids decrease the formation of adhesion factors e. glucocorticoids decrease the formation of NO-synthase

A

…

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147
Q

Which of the following laxatives causes the least fluid loss? Select one: a. bisacodyl b. mineral oil (paraffin oil) c. lactulose d. Castor oil (Ricinus) e. senna extract

A

…

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148
Q

Which of the following conditions is a contraindication of opioids? Select one: a. head injury b. cancer pain c. acute left ventricular failure d. myocardial infarction e. burn

A

…

149
Q

What is the dose of acetyl-salicylic acid for platelet aggregation inhibition? Select one: a. 2-5 g/day b. 500-1000 mg/day c. 10-20 mg/day d. 5-8 g/day e. 50-200 mg/day

A

….

150
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about paracetamol (acetaminophen)? Select one:

a. CANNOT be prescribed for chronic alcoholics
b. can be prescribed for pregnant woman
c. its gastrointestinal damaging effect is similar to acetyl-salicylic acid
d. does not have anti-inflammatory effect
e. in case of intoxication the antidote is acetyl-cysteine

A

c. its gastrointestinal damaging effect is similar to acetyl-salicylic acid ??

151
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the proton pump inhibitors? Select one:

a. They can impair the intestinal absorption of calcium
b. They can alter the composition of the intestinal microbiota
c. They are acid-stable active compounds, that bind to and block the proton pumps in the gastric lumen
d. They inhibit the proton pump irreversible
e. They can reduce the secretion of gastric acid by up to 90%

A

???

152
Q

Which of the following drugs have NO mineralocorticoid activity? Select one:

a. methylprednisolone
b. fludrocortisone
c. aldosterone
d. cortizol
e. dexamethasone

A

e. dexamethasone??

or b. fludrocortisone??

153
Q

In case of overdose which of the following opiates does NOT cause pinpoint pupils? Select one:

a. meperidine
b. morphine
c. methadon
d. heroin
e. fentanyl

A

??

154
Q

Which cells are especially sensitive to cyclosporin A? Select one:

a. granulocytes
b. dendritic cells
c. B-cells
d. T-cells
e. macrophage

A

d. T-cells ??

155
Q

Which of the following drugs is the most commonly used to close ductus arteriosus (Botallo duct)?

a. sulindac
b. ketoprofen
c. paracetamol (acetaminophen)
d. ibuprofen
e. acetyl-salicylic acid

A

d) ibuprofen

156
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is mainly responsible for bronchoconstriction caused by morphine?

a. parasympathomimetic effect
b. inhibition of beta-2 receptors
c. direct smooth muscle constrictory effect
d. enhancing leukotriene activity
e. histamine release

A

e)histamine release?

157
Q

27. Which of the following inhibitors of gastric acid secretion may have endocrine side effects?

A: omeprazole

B: cimetidine

C: pantoprazole

D: famotidine

E: lansoprazole

A

B: Cimetidine

158
Q

29. Which of the following drugs is NOT appropriate to reduce cancer provoked nausea?

A: palonosetron

B: metoclopramide

C: methadone

D: methylprednisolone

E: nabilon

A

C: Methadone

159
Q

30. Which of the following laxatives will not lead to water loss?

A: paraffin oil

B: lactulose

C: bisacodyl

D: senna extracts

E: castor oil

A

A: paraffin oil??

160
Q

26. How much is the platelet aggregation inhibitory dose of acetylsalicylic acid?

A: 10-20 mg/day

B: 50-200 mg/day

C: 500-1000 mg/day

D: 2-5 g/day E: 5-8 g/day

A

B: 50-200 mg/day

161
Q

25. Which of the following symptoms is NOT characteristic to acetylsalicylic acid intoxication?

A: respiratory alkalosis in the beginning

B: later metabolic acidosis

C: hypothermia

D: seizures

E: respiratory depression

A

C: hypothermia

162
Q

24. Which of the following statements is true about the side effects of selective COX-2 inhibitors?

A: The probability of the renal side effects is lower than that of the nonselective NSAIDS

B: They impair the healing of the stomach mucosa

C: The risk of cardiovascular complications is lower than that of piroxicam

D: They do not inflence the Botallo duct

E: They do not prolong labor

A

??

163
Q

23. Which of the following effects is NOT mediated by a COX-produced agent?

A: fever

B: bronchoconstriction (LOX→LT)

C: uterus contraction

D: platelet aggregation inhibition

E: platelet aggregation stimulation

A

B: bronchoconstriction (LOX→LT)

164
Q

22. Which of the following cells does not have COX-2 enzymes?

A: spinal interneurons

B: stomach mucosa cells

C: platelets

D: leukocytes

E: endothel

A

C: platelets ??

165
Q

21. Which of the following statements is true about morphine?

A: it constricts the sphincters

B: it increases the propulsive movement of the bowel

C: it relieves the abdominal cramp

D: it promotes diuresis

E: it increases the gastrointestinal secretions

A

A: it constricts the sphincters

166
Q

19. Which of the following mechanisms is mainly responsible for the bronchoconstriction caused by morphine?

A: inhibition of beta-2 receptors

B: enhancing the leukotriene activity

C: parasympathomimetic effect

D: histamine release

E: direct smooth muscle constrictory effect

A

D: histamine release

167
Q

18. Which of the following symptoms are not due to heroin withdrawal?

A: dry mouth

B: pain in the bones

C: sweating

D: diarrhea

E: tremor

A

A: dry mouth

168
Q

17. Which of the following opioids is a semisynthetic derivative?

A: tramadol

B: sufentanyl

C: diphenoxylate

D: naloxon

E: methadon

A

D: naloxon

169
Q

16. Which of the following drugs does NOT decrease the effect of insulin?

A: prednisolon

B: ethanol

C: thyroxin

D: expectorant syrup

E: ethynylestradiol

A

B: ethanol

170
Q

15. Which of the following insulin preparations is intermediate acting?

A: isophan insulin

B: regular insulin

C: lispro insulin

D: detemir insulin

E: glargin insulin

A

A: isophan insulin

171
Q

14. Which of the following is NOT an insulin side effect?

A: tachycardia

B: edema

C: liver impairment

D: allergy

E: sweating

A

C: liver impairment

172
Q

13. Which of the followings is true about the kinetics of insulin?

A: Plasma half life is 30 minutes

B: The metabolic capability of the liver is relatively high

C: Insulin is not filtrated in the kidney

D: Renal failure does not influence the elimination of insulin

E: Regular insulin given sc. forms hexamers

A

E: Regular insulin given sc. forms hexamers

173
Q

12. Which of the following side effects is NOT characteristic to glucocorticoids?

A: osteoporosis

B: increased blood pressure

C: proliferation of connecting tissue

D: decreased intraocular pressure

E: decreases seizure threshold

A

C: proliferation of connecting tissue

174
Q

11. Toxic effects of glucocorticoids do NOT include:

A: Growth inhibition

B: Hypertension
C:Hypoglycemia

D: Psychosis
E: Salt retention

A

C: Hypoglycemia

175
Q

10. Effects of the glucocorticoids do NOT include:

A: Altered fat deposition

B: Increased blood glucose
C: Increased skin protein synthesis
D: Inhibition of leukotriene synthesis
E: Reduction of circulating lymphocytes

A

C: Increased skin protein synthesis

176
Q

9. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the glucocorticoids?

A: Their plasma protein binding is very pronounced
B: They are oxydized in the liver
C: They may be absorbed through the skin

D: Their plasma half life is about one-one and a half hour

E: Their biological half life is about 6-8 hours

A

E: Their biological half life is about 6-8 hours

177
Q

7. Which of the following conditions is an indication for calcitonin?

A: Chronic renal failure.
B: Hypoparathyroidism.
C: Intestinal osteodystrophy.

D: Paget’s disease.

E: Rickets.

A

D: Paget’s disease.

178
Q

6. Clinical use of vitamin D does NOT include:

A: Chronic renal failure.
B: Hyperparathyroidism
C: Intestinal osteodystrophy

D: Nutritional rickets

E: Osteoporosis

A

B: Hyperparathyroidism

179
Q

5. Which of the following statements is true about teriparatid?

A: It contains the C-terminal 34 amino acid of PTH

B: Continuous administration does not increase the bone resorption

C: It decreases the production of calcitriol
D: Every day low amounts increase the bone mass
E: It is given orally

A

D: Every day low amounts increase the bone mass

180
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs can be indicated for thyreotoxic crisis?

A: high dose iodine
B: Thiamazole
C: 131I isotope

D: potassium-perchlorate

E: lithium-carbonate

A

A: high dose iodine

181
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    A: TSH increases the vascularization and the mass of the thyroid gland

B: The onset of action of thyroxin is fast
C: TRH stimulates thyroxin production in primary hypothyroidism
D: Too much iodine consumption causes hypothyroidism

E: Grave’s disease must not be treated with radioactive iodine

(however, D could also be correct, as excessive iodine intake CAN lead to hypothyroidism as well..)

A

A: TSH increases the vascularization and the mass of the thyroid gland

182
Q
  1. Octreotid is NOT used for…?

A: Acromegalia
B: Gastrinoma
C: Carcinoid tumor

D: Enterochromaffine tumors

E: Hypothyroidism in children

A

E: Hypothyroidism in children

183
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?
    A: Degarelix is more efficient for prostate cancer than leuprorelin.

B: When prostate cancer is treated with leuprorelin in the beginning it must be combined with bicalutamide for two weeks.

C: GnRH antagonist are indicated for breast cancer.
D: GnRH agonists must be given intermittently for breast cancer

E: GnRH antagonists are mainly neurotoxic

A

B: When prostate cancer is treated with leuprorelin in the beginning it must be combined with bicalutamide for two weeks.

184
Q

Which of the following drugs is NOT an antimetabolite?

a) Mycofenolate mofetil
b) Azathioprine
c) Cyclosporin A
d) Methotrexate
e) Leflunomide

A

c) Cyclosporin A

185
Q

Which is true?

a) Misoprostol increases level of prostaglandins
b) Pantoprazole and lansoprazole are reversible competitive inhibitors of the proton

pump

c) H2 receptor blockers should be administered bedtime due to their sedative effect
d) Among the bile acids mainly ursodeoxycholic acid is used therapeutically
e) Methylnaltrexone and alvimopan cause constipation by acting on mu-receptors

A

d) Among the bile acids mainly ursodeoxycholic acid is used therapeutically

186
Q

Which of the following opioid effects limits the dose elevation in the treatment of cancer pain?

a) Euphoria
b) Dysphoria
c) Respiratory depression
d) Pinpoint pupils
e) Constipation

A

c) Respiratory depression

187
Q

Which is not a TNF-alpha inhibitor?

a) Golimumab
b) Etanercept
c) Infliximab

d) Adalimumab
e) Natalizumab

A

e) Natalizumab

188
Q

Which of the following is true?

a) Naltrexone cannot be given orally
b) Tramadol can be coadmin with SSRI
c) N-methyl-naltrexone has a good oral bioavailability
d) Morphine-6-glucoronide is an inactive metabolite
e) Orally given oxycodone has higher bioavailability than orally given morphine

A

e) Orally given oxycodone has higher bioavailability than orally given morphine

189
Q

Which is the antidote of paracetamol overdose?

a) Helping excretion via acidification of urine
b) Helping excretion via alkalizing the urine
c) Flumazenil
d) IV acetylcysteine
e) Ambroxol

A

d) IV acetylcysteine

190
Q

Which of the following cannot be a side effect of HRT in osteoporosis?

a) Increased risk of breast cancer
b) Increased thromboembolic risk
c) Increased risk of osteosarcoma
d) Increased risk of endometrial cancer
e) Mood instability

A

c) Increased risk of osteosarcoma

191
Q

What is the difference between the selective COX-2 inhibitors and the non-selective ones?

a) Selective cox2 inhibitors are safer in patients with high CV risk
b) Selective cox2 inhibitors have stronger inhibitory effect of platelet aggregation
c) The GI side effects of selective cox2 inhibitors are less likely
d) Selective cox2 inhibitors have stronger analgesic effect
e) Selective cox2 Inhibitors do not have antipyretic effect

A

c) The GI side effects of selective cox2 inhibitors are less likely

192
Q

Which of the following sentences about the bisphosphonates is true?

a) They do not accumulate in the body
b) They are metabolized in the liver
c) Their oral absorption is 1-10%
d) In general, they have a short half life
e) They are available only as an oral tablet

A

c) Their oral absorption is 1-10%

193
Q

Which of the following drugs are appropriate to treat opioid induced constipation (opioid bowel syndrome)?

a) Nalbuphine
b) Tramadol
c) Loperamide
d) Naltrexone
e) N-methyl-naltrexone

A

e) N-methyl-naltrexone

194
Q

What is the antipyretic or analgesic single dose of ASA?

a) 1500 mg
b) 3000 mg
c) 200 mg
d) 500 mg
e) 100 mg

A

d) 500 mg

195
Q

Which is false?

a) Paracetamol has negligible anti-inflammatory effect
b) H2 blockers are contraindicated with NSAID
c) NSAID can cause irreversible kidney damage
d) Rectal application of NSAID can lower the GI side effects
e) Selective COX-2 inhibitors elevate risk of thrombosis

A

b) H2 blockers are contraindicated with NSAID

196
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) GC decrease the formation of adhesion factors
b) GC enhance the formation of IL2
c) GC enhance the formation of Annexin-1
d) GC decrease the formation of NO-synthase
e) GC decrease the formation of COX-2

A

b) GC enhance the formation of IL2

197
Q

Which has the weakest GC activity?

a) Methylprednisolone
b) Cortisone
c) Prednisolone

d) Betamethasone e) Dexamethasone

A

b) Cortisone

198
Q

Which of the following signal transduction inhibitors has cardiological importance (not transplant)?

a) Tofacitinib
b) Tacrolimus
c) Cyclosporin A
d) Pimecrolimus
e) Sirolimus

A

e) Sirolimus

199
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic for aldosterone?

a) Increase of blood pressure
b) Hypokalemia
c) Decrease of inflammation
d) Hypernatremia
e) Metabolic alkalosis

A

c) Decrease of inflammation

200
Q

Which of the following mechanisms can alleviate motion sickness?

a) H1 r inhibition
b) Mu-opioid r inhibition
c) Activation of D2 r
d) Inhibition of CB1 r
e) Inhibition of 5HT3 r

A

a) H1 r inhibition

201
Q

Which is false about glucocorticoids?

a) Hyperkalemia increases their secretion
b) They exert a negative feedback on the CRH production in the hypothalamus
c) Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasiculata
d) Stress increases the secretion of GC
e) ACTH increases their secretion

A

a) Hyperkalemia increases their secretion

202
Q

Which cells are especially sensitive to cyclosporin A?

a) T-cells
b) Granulocytes
c) B-cells
d) Macrophages
e) Dendritic cells

A

a) T-cells

203
Q

Which of the following opioids may cause dysphoria with the highest probability?

a) Morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Nalbuphine
d) Dihydrocodeine
e) Meperidine

A

c) Nalbuphine

204
Q

Which is true?

c) They are acid-stable active compounds, that bind to and block the proton pump in the gastric lumen (This one? Ex. Pantoprazole is acid-labile and

therefore has enteric covering to protect)

a) Scopolamine is given for prevention of mild chemotherapy induced nausea
b) The extrapyramidal side effects of domperidone are negligible
c) H1 receptors are highly expressed in the area postrema
d) Ondansetron can cause hallucinations by acting on 5HT1 receptors
e) 5HT3 receptor antagonists are highly effective for the treatment of motion sickness

A

b) The extrapyramidal side effects of domperidone are negligible (think this one, Domperidone is known to NOT cross BBB, thereby causing less EPS, in comparison to metoclopramide that crosses BBB→EPS)

205
Q

Which is false about the PPI?

a) They can alter the composition of the intestinal microbiota
b) They inhibit the proton pump irreversible
c) They are acid-stable active compounds, that bind to and block the proton pump in the gastric lumen
d) They can reduce the secretion of gastric acid by 90%
e) They can impair the intestinal absorption of calcium

A

c) They are acid-stable active compounds, that bind to and block the proton pump in the gastric lumen.

(This one? Ex. Pantoprazole is acid-labile and

therefore has enteric covering to protect)

206
Q

Which cytokine receptor is modulated by aldesleukin and basiliximab?

a) IL1R
b) IL4R
c) IL5R
d) IL2R
e) IL3R

A

d) IL2R

207
Q

Which can NOT be applied locally?

a) Cortisone
b) Prednisolone
c) Cortisol
d) Triamcinolone
e) Dexamethasone

A

c) Cortisol (I would say this one, but they key says its wrong)

208
Q

Which is true for the PPI?

a) Cannot be used in patients with IBD
b) They have short plasma half-life
c) Inhibit only the nocturnal acid secretion
d) They should be administered 3 times daily, 10-20 minutes before main meals
e) They are less effective than the H2 receptor inhibitors

A

b) They have short plasma half-life

209
Q

Which has NO mineralocorticoid activity?

a) Dexamethasone

b) Aldosterone
c) Fludrocortisone
d) Methylprednisolone

e) Cortisol

A

a) Dexamethasone

210
Q

Which of the following compounds does NOT act primarily through inhibition of gastric acid secretion or neutralization of gastric acid?

a) Pirenzepine

b) Mg(OH)2
c) Misoprostol

d) Famotidine
e) Pantoprazole

A

c) Misoprostol

211
Q

Which mechanism is mainly responsible for the bronchoconstriction in morphine?

a) Parasympatomimetic effect
b) B2-receptor block
c) Direct smooth muscle constrictor effect
d) Enhancing leukotriene activity
e) Histamine release

A

e) Histamine release

212
Q

Which drug is most commonly used to close PDA?

a) Sulindac
b) Ketoprofen
c) Paracetamol
d) Ibuprofen
e) ASA

A

d) Ibuprofen

213
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Paracetamol has a hepatotoxic metabolite
b) Ketoprofen is selective cox2 inhibitor
c) Paracetamol is highly teratogenic
d) Combination of different NSAID is recommended to enhance analgesic effect

A

a) Paracetamol has a hepatotoxic metabolite

214
Q

Which antihypertensive is not recommended for people doing active sports?

a) Losartan
b) Indapamide

c) Bisoprolol
d) Amlodipine
e) Perindopril

A

c) Bisoprolol (some diruetics and beta blockers are not recommended for active sports?)

215
Q

Which one is true?

a) Digitoxin enter enterohepatic circle
b) Digitoxin is more dangerous for patient with renal impairment than digoxin
c) Digoxin is metabolized in liver
d) Digitoxin half life is shorter than that of digoxin
e) ….

A

c) Digoxin is metabolized in liver (60%renal, 40% liver…)

216
Q

Which diuretic may alkalinize the urine?

a) Mannitol
b) Azetazolamide
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Etacrynic acid
e) Furosemide

A

b) Azetazolamide

217
Q

What is true about hydrochlorothiazide?

a) Decreases insulin need in DM patients
b) Reduces LDL cholesterol
c) Enhances PTH dep Ca2+ reabsorption
d) Increases diuresis in acute renal failure
e) Reduces uric acid levels in blood

A

c) Enhances PTH dep Ca2+ reabsorption

218
Q

Which is NOT typical spironolactone?

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Metabolic alkalosis
c) Impotence
d) Gynecomastia
e) Gastrointestinal side effects

A

b) Metabolic alkalosis

219
Q

Which does NOT influence ATP-dep K+ channels in B-cells?

a) Glipizide
b) Pioglitazone

c) Nateglinide
d) Glidenclamide

e) Diazoxide

A

b) Pioglitazone

220
Q

Which can be used for acute treatment of Prinzmetal angina?

a) Trimetazine
b) Molsidomine
c) Nifedipine
d) Betaxolol
e) Isosorbide-mononitrate

A

c) Nifedipine (think this one?)

221
Q

Which is mostly recommended for Ventricular arrhythmias after MI?

a) Amiodarone
b) Flecainide
c) Atenolol
d) Verapamil
e) Quinidine

(Prob A. The best for VTs after MI is Lidocaine, Amiodarone works for VT post- MI, CCB like verapamil should be used with caution immediately post-MI.)

A

(Prob A. The best for VTs after MI is Lidocaine, Amiodarone works for VT post- MI, CCB like verapamil should be used with caution immediately post-MI.)

222
Q

FALSE about Phenytoin:

a) May cause ginvival hyperplasia and CNS side effects
b) Can be used for epilepsy
c) Acts the same way as Lidocaine, belongs to class 1B
d) Slowly dissociates from Na+channels, inhibits K+channels
e) Phenytoin is mainly indicated for the treatment of digitalis induced tachyarrhythmia

A

d) Slowly dissociates from Na+channels, inhibits K+channels

223
Q

Which of the following drugs can be controlled by measuring aPTT?

a) Desirudin
b) Clopidogrel

c) Aspirin
d) Reteplase

e) LMWH

A

a) Desirudin

224
Q

What does NPH stand for?

a) Neutral pH
b) Not preferred to use in hyperglycemia
c) Neutral protamin Hagedorn
d) Neutral protamin histamine
e) Non-parenteral humilin

A

c) Neutral protamin Hagedorn

225
Q

What is false for pioglitazone?

a) Not used in pregnancy
b) May increase risk of bladder carcinoma
c) May decrease body weight
d) May worsen lipid profile
e) Good oral absorption

A

c) May decrease body weight

226
Q

In which situation is Mannitol indicated?

a) Constipation
b) Cerebral edema
c) SIADH
d) Chronic HF
e) Essential hypertension

A

b) Cerebral edema

227
Q

What is true?

a) Regular human insulin should be added right before taking a meal
b) Insulin aspart is not available in insulin pump
c) Isophane (NPH) insulin rapidly lowers blood sugar levels
d) Insulin glargine should be added once daily at the same time
e) The benefit of rapidly acting insulins is that no additional doses are needed when used in adequate doses

A

d) Insulin glargine should be added once daily at the same time

228
Q

Which is true?

a) Thiazides can reduce refractory edemas
b) Etacrynic acid does not cause hypokalemia
c) Spironolactone has antiandrogen effect
d) Acetazolamide acts well in case of metabolic acidosis
e) Furosemide reduces renal blood flow

A

c) Spironolactone has antiandrogen effect

229
Q

Which drug reduces effect of sulfonylureas?

a) ASA
b) Atropine
c) Phenytoin
d) Sulfonamides
e) Propranolol

A

c) Phenytoin

230
Q

What increases insulin secretion in the pancreas?

a) Pioglitazone
b) Acarbose
c) Metformin
d) Insulin detemir
e) Repaglinide

A

e) Repaglinide

231
Q

What is true to class IV antiarrhythmics?

a) They are efficient to inhibit AV-nodal reentry
b) They inhibit K+channels
c) They act on adrenergic receptors
d) They are mainly indicated for ventricular arrhythmias
e) They inhibit Na+channels

A

a) They are efficient to inhibit AV-nodal reentry

232
Q

Which of these antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a) Bisoprolol

b) Dihydralazine
c) Metoprolol
d) Ibresartan
e) Alpha-methyl-DOPA

A

d) Ibresartan

233
Q

Which of the following causes volume reduction?

a) Glipizide
b) Dapaglifozin
c) Pioglitazone
d) Vildagliptin
e) Insulin lispro

A

b) Dapaglifozin

234
Q

Which is the first choice in case of hypertension associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia?

a) Doxazosin

b) Losartan
c) Bisoprolol
d) Enalapril
e) Hydrochlorothiazide

A

a) Doxazosin

235
Q

Which of these drugs are inappropriate to treat hypertensive crisis?

a) Valsartan
b) Nifedipine
c) Uradipil
d) Nitroprusside Na
e) Clonidine

A

a) Valsartan

236
Q

Which acts mainly on the large vessels?

a) Isosorbin-mononitrat
b) Nicardipine
c) Losartan

d) Sildenafil
e) dihydralazin

A
237
Q

The following drugs can be used in the treatment of ischemic heart disease except:

a) Dobutamine
b) Ivabradine
c) Simvastatin
d) Ranolazine
e) Metoprolol

A

a) Dobutamine

238
Q

Which of these insulin preparations cannot be injected IV?

a) Lispro
b) Aspart
c) Glulisine
d) Regular human insulin
e) Insulin glargine

A

e) Insulin glargine

239
Q

What is the mechanism of cholestyramine?

a) Increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase
b) Inhibit HMG-COA-reductase
c) It binds bile acids in the gut, therefore the hepatic LDL uptake increases
d) It reduces VLDL and chylomicron levels in the blood
e) It inhibits the lipolysis in lipocytes thus inhibits VLDL synthesis in the liver

A

c) It binds bile acids in the gut, therefore the hepatic LDL uptake increases

240
Q

Which is NOT a K+ channel blocker?

a) Procainamide
b) Sotalol
c) Mexiletine

d) Amiodarone
e) Quinidine

A

c) Mexiletine

241
Q

All direct thrombin inhibitors except:

a) Bivalirudin
b) Dabigatran
c) Fondaparinux
d) Argatroban
e) Desirudin

A

c) Fondaparinux

242
Q

The most important side effect of biguanides is:

a) Liver damage
b) Damaging bone marrow
c) Normoglycemic lactic acidosis
d) Long-lasting hypoglycemia
e) Weight gain

A

c) Normoglycemic lactic acidosis

243
Q

What is the mechanism of epsilon-amino-caproic acid?

a) it accelerates plasminogen-plasmin transformation
b) it inactivated thrombin
c) P2y12 receptor antagonist
d) Inhibits plasminogen activation
e) Inactivates Xa

A

d) Inhibits plasminogen activation

244
Q

True for Trimetazidine

a) increases intracellular acidosis
b) inhibits fatty acid oxidation
a) iv only
b) it has a direct vasodilatory effect
c) decreases afterload

A

b) inhibits fatty acid oxidation

245
Q

Which of the following drugs increases blood sugar level by increasing gluconeogenesis in liver?

a) Acarbose
b) Glyburide
c) Miglitol
d) Glucagon
e) glimepiride

A

d) Glucagon

246
Q

Which drug is insulin independent?

a) Gliclazide
b) Vildagliptin
c) Dapaglifozin
d) Liraglutide
e) Metformin

A

c) Dapaglifozin

247
Q

Which is NOT a side effect of acetazolamide?

a) Kidney stones
b) K+wasting
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Interstitial nephritis
e) allergy

A

c) Metabolic alkalosis

248
Q

Which type of Ca2+ channel is blocked by CCN indicated for CV diseases?

a) N
b) T
c) L

d) R
e) P/Q

A

c) L

249
Q

Which can directly reduce myocardial fatty acid oxidation?

a) Ivabradine
b) Vitamin A
c) Cyclosporin A
d) Ranolazine
e) Metoprolol

A

d) Ranolazine

250
Q

Which drug cannot be combined with digitoxin?

a) Carvedilol
b) Hydrochlorothiazide

c) Prazosin
d) Enalapril
e) Verapamil

A

e) Verapamil

251
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) Hirudin is a direct thrombin inhibitor
b) Heparin may cause thrombocytopenia
c) LMWH-s are excreted by the kidney
d) The effect of coumarins develop slowly
e) LMWH pass placental barrier

A

e) LMWH pass placental barrier

252
Q

Which of the following can be used in pheochromocytoma?

a) Clonidine
b) Phentolamine
c) Hydrochlorothiazide

d) Propranolol
e) Lisinopril

A

b) Phentolamine

253
Q

Which drug inhibit the very first process in the RAAS?

a) Losartan
b) Quinapril
c) Nebivolol
d) Aliskiren
e) eplerenon

A

c) Nebivolol

254
Q

What is FALSE about abciximab?

a) It is a platelet aggregation inhibitor
b) It has a narrow therapeutic window
c) It is a P2Y12 receptor antagonist
d) It cannot be given orally
e) It may cause thrombocytopenia

A

c) It is a P2Y12 receptor antagonist

255
Q

Which of the following drugs increase glucose uptake in the muscles and decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis?

a) SGLT2-blockers
b) Biguanides
c) Sulfonylureas
d) Meglitinide analogues
e) Glucagon

A

b) Biguanides

256
Q

Which is indicated for hypertriglyceridemia?

a) Fenofibrate

b) Ezetimibe
c) Colesevelam

d) Rosuvastatin
e) simvastatin

A

a) Fenofibrate

257
Q

Which is a calcium sensitizer?

a) Spironolactone
b) Dopamine
c) Milrinone

d) Metoprolol
e) Levosimendan

A

e) Levosimendan

258
Q

Which is true about Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

a) K+sparing diuretics
b) Hydrochlorothiazide belongs to this group
c) Furosemide is a widely used CAI
d) One of their typical side effects is pancreatitis
e) They are contraindicated in cirrhosis

A

e) They are contraindicated in cirrhosis

259
Q

Which is NOT positive ionotropic?

a) Dopamine
b) Spironolactone

c) Dobutamine
d) Milrinone
e) Methylxanthines

A

b) Spironolactone

260
Q

What is the primary physiological antianginal effects of nitrates?

a) Coronary dilation
b) Decreasing afterload
c) Decreasing preload
d) Inhibiting oxidative stress
e) Decrease endothel dysfunction

A

c) Decreasing preload

261
Q

Beside diabetes mellitus, another indication of insulin is:

a) Hyperuricemia
b) Hyperkalemia
c) TTP
d) Diabetes insipidus
e) Hypercalcemia

A

b) Hyperkalemia

262
Q

Which of the following drugs cannot be used in CHF?

a) Eplerenone
b) Verapamil
c) Carvedilol

d) Ramipril
e) Furosemide

A

b) Verapamil

263
Q

Which of the following CCB decrease BP without provoking reflex tachycardia?

a) Nisoldipine
b) Isradipine
c) Nifedipine

d) Verapamil
e) Nicardipine

A

d) Verapamil

264
Q

What statement is FALSE about amiodarone?

a) May disturb thyroid function
b) Its side effects are rare
c) Widely used antiarrhythmic drug
d) Indicated both for SVT and VT
e) It has a complex antiarrhythmic action

A

b) Its side effects are rare

265
Q

Class 1/A antiarrhythmic drugs…

a) Are first choice in ventricular arrhythmias
b) Shorten AP duration and QT-interval, furthermore narrow QRS interval in ECG
c) Have effect in case of normal heart rate and the effect is getting more pronounced when heart rate is increasing
d) Act on Na+ channels only
e) Are Lidocaine and Phenytoin

A

c) Have effect in case of normal heart rate and the effect is getting more pronounced when heart rate is increasing

266
Q

Which of the following is primarily NOT salt excreting?

a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Mannitol
c) Acetazolamide

d) Furosemide
e) Clopamide

A

b) Mannitol

267
Q
  • *Which is true?**
    a) Rivaroxaban can only be given parenterally

b) Danaparoid can be applied in case of HIT as a continuation of anticoagulant treatment
c) Warfarin has few interactions
d) Argatroban is a direct Xa inhibitor
e) Desirudin is an LMWH

A

b) Danaparoid can be applied in case of HIT as a continuation of anticoagulant treatment

268
Q

Which diuretic is recommended for patients with liver cirrhosis?

a) Spironolactone
b) Etacrynic acid
c) Hydrochlorothiazide
d) Acetazolamide
e) Furosemide

A

a) Spironolactone

269
Q

Which of the following drugs does not inhibit RAAS?

a) Enalapril
b) Bisoprolol
c) Prazosin
d) Valsartan
e) Aliskiren

A

c) Prazosin

270
Q

Which of the following drug rapid tolerance develops to?

a) Antioxidants
b) Nitrates
c) Acetylsalisylic acid
d) Clopidogrel
e) Calcium antagonists

A

b) Nitrates (I think this one)

271
Q

Which of the following are true?

a) Artificially induced hydraemia is a widely used diuretic measure
b) Beside salt-transport inhibitors and osmotic diuretics, ADH agonists can be used as diuretics
c) Most clinically used diuretics act primarily as inhibitors of salt transporters

A

c) Most clinically used diuretics act primarily as inhibitors of salt transporters

(saluretics)

272
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) As a consequence of simvastatin effect, hepatic LDL uptake increases
b) Simvastatin may cause muscle pain
c) Simvastatin cannot be combined with other antihyperlipidemic drugs
d) Simvastatin mainly reduced LDL-cholesterol level
e) Prolonged use of simvastatin reduces mortality in ischemic heart disease

A

c) Simvastatin cannot be combined with other antihyperlipidemic drugs

273
Q

Which of the following pairs is a recommended antihypertensive combination?

a) Sildenafil-nitroglycerin
b) Perindopril-indapamide
c) Candesartan-ramipril
d) Amiloride-eprosartan
e) Nebivolol-verapamil

A

b) Perindopril-indapamide

274
Q

Which of the following statements is true to the symptomatic treatment of IHD?

a) Anxiolytic drugs are regularly prescribed
b) Nitrates can be used efficiently
c) It is only necessary for patients with more risk factors
d) Contraindicated for patients without symptoms
e) Antihyperlipidemic drugs are indicated

A

b) Nitrates can be used efficiently

275
Q

Digoxin is positive ionotropic because:

a) It inhibits Na-K-ATPase
b) It is a beta-1-agonist
c) Directly stimulates NaCa exchanger
d) Has parasympathomimetic effect
e) Inhibits PDE

A

a) It inhibits Na-K-ATPase

276
Q

Which statement is false?

a) Digoxin is indicated for CHF with atrial fibrillation
b) Mg2+ infusions is contraindicated in tdp
c) Digitalis induced arrhythmias can be treated with lidocaine
d) Mexiletine can be used orally
e) Lidocaine when used for arrhythmias is given parenterally only

A

b) Mg2+ infusions is contraindicated in tdp

277
Q

Which of the following orally active antidiabetics can be used for the treatment of PCOS?

a) Sitagliptin
b) Metformin
c) Glibenclamide (glyburide)
d) Empaglifozin
e) Repaglinide

A

b) Metformin

278
Q

Typical to Heparin, except:

a) Indirect inhibitor of coagulation factors
b) Antidote: protamine
c) Administered sc or iv
d) INR value indicates its effectivity
e) It does not cross placenta

A

d) INR value indicates its effectivity

279
Q

Which of the following drugs is indicated to treat absence seizures?

a) Phenytoin
b) Tiagabine
c) Phenobarbital
d) Valproic acid
e) Carbamazepine

A

d) Valproic acid

280
Q

Benzodiazepines do not cause the following effect:

a) Skeletal muscle relaxation
b) Amnesia
c) Anxiolytics
d) Sedation
e) Analgesia

A

e) Analgesia

281
Q

The following indications may belong to alprazolam, EXCEPT:

a) Panic disorder
b) Generalized anxiety
c) Phobias
d) OCD
e) Alzheimer’s disease

A

e) Alzheimer’s disease

282
Q

Which of the followings is NOT characteristic for SSRI compounds?

a) May cause sexual dysfunction
b) Short half-life
c) Can be used for treatment of chronic anxiety disorder
d) Antidepressant effect is observed in couple of weeks after the first administration
e) Selective blockage of SERT

A

b) Short half-life

283
Q

SSRI antidepressants are NOT indicated in the following disorder:

a) Manic phase of bipolar disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) OCD
d) Major depression
e) Social phobia

A

a) Manic phase of bipolar disorder

284
Q
A
285
Q
  • *MOA of Heparin**
    a) direct thrombin inhibitor
    b) direct Xa inhibitor
    c) indirect inhibitor of coagulation factors
    d) Inhibits synthesis of vit K dep coagulation factors

e) P2Y12 receptor antagonist

A

c) indirect inhibitor of coagulation factors

286
Q

Which reduces the risk of digitalis intox?

a) quinidine
b) hydrochlorothiazide
c) acetazolamide

d) furosemide
e) spironolactone

A

e) spironolactone

287
Q

Which of the follow drugs can be chosen for NYHA 1 heart failure?

a) furosemide
b) dobutamine
c) levosimendan

d) perindopril
e) amlodipine

A

d) perindopril

288
Q

Which of the following statements are false about fibrates?

a) stimulate LPL
b) PPAR-alpha agonists
c) increase plasma fibrinogen levels

d) increase fatty acid b-oxidation
e) inhibit the hormone sensitive lipase in the fatty tissue

A

c) increase plasma fibrinogen levels

289
Q

Which pairing is false?

a) mannitol – osmotic effect
b) amiloride – aldosterone receptor
c) indapamide – NaCl symport
d) acetazolamide – carbonic anhydrase enzyme

e) furosemide – NaKCl2 symporter

A

b) amiloride – aldosterone receptor

290
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the positive ionotropic effect of levosimendane?

a) the ca sensitivity of troponin C increases
b) the ca2+ level of SR increases

c) beta-receptor stimulation
d) NaK+ATPase inhibition
e) cPDE inhibition

A

a) the ca sensitivity of troponin C increases

291
Q

Which of the following antidiabetic agents is the most hypoglycemia inducer?

a) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
b) biguanide
c) DPP4-inhibitors

d) thiazolidinediones
e) meglitinide analogue / glinides

A

e) meglitinide analogue / glinides

292
Q

Which type of antihypertensive drugs are primarily chosen in case of chronic renal failure?

a) alpha-1-inhibitor
b) thiazide diuretics
c) loop diuretics

d) BB
e) SGLT2 inhibitor

A

c) loop diuretics (furosemide)

293
Q

Which of the following statements is true to thiazides?

a) they improve the lipid profile, unlike loop diuretics
b) amiloride belongs to this group
c) they are used in combinations for hypertension mainly due to their arteriole dilatory effect
d) they are NOT used for hypercalcuria
e) thiazide are potassium sparing drugs

A

c) they are used in combinations for hypertension mainly due to their arteriole dilatory effect

294
Q

Major noncardiac side effect of lidocaine?

a) endocrine
b) CNS
c) hepatic

d) pulmonary
e) renal

A

b) CNS

295
Q

Which of these conditions is NOT a thiazide indication?

a) hypokalemia
b) nephrogenic DI
c) excreting edema in chronic HF

d) hypertension – in monotherapy
e) hypertension – combined with ACE-inhibitors

A

a) hypokalemia

296
Q

What is the first dose phenomenon in case of prazosin administration?

a) the first dose provokes angina attack
b) ejaculation problems in the beginning of the treatment

A

…. (should be hypotension)??

297
Q
  • *Which is false?**
    a) streptokinase inhibits plasminogen activation

b) bivalirudin inactivates thrombin
c) coumarine effect develops slowly
d) alteplase is indicated for acute thromboembolic conditions
e) in the beginning of coumarine therapy transiently increased local coagulation may develop

A

a) streptokinase inhibits plasminogen activation

298
Q

Which of these side effects is not typical to amiodarone?

a) Lung fibrosis
b) Blue discoloration on skin and cornea due to microdeposits
c) Hypothyroidism
d) Gingival hyperplasia
e) Hyperthyroidism

A

d) Gingival hyperplasia

299
Q

Which group of side effects is most typical to loop diuretics?

a) Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperuricemia
b) Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, hyperuricemia
c) Hypernatremia, hypouricemia, deafness
d) Hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia, metabolic acidosis
e) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, hyperuricemia

A

a) Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hyperuricemia

300
Q

What are the advantages of LMWH to UFH, EXCEPT?

a) Protamine inhibits their effect more effectively
b) Better side effect….

A

a)Protamine inhibits their effect more effectively

301
Q
  • *Statins inhibit:**
    a) ACE

b) COX
c) HMG-COA reductase
d) AChE
e) MAO

A

c) HMG-COA reductase

302
Q

Which of these conditions is NOT an indication for CCB?

a) PSVT
b) HCMP
c) Angina pectoris
d) Digitalis intox
e) Hypertension

A

d) Digitalis intox

303
Q

Which is NOT a side effect of minoxidil?

a) Provoking anemia
b) Tachycardia
c) Hypotension
d) Hair loss
e) Weight gain

A

d) Hair loss

304
Q

Which drug effect is NOT glucose-dependent?

a) vildagliptin
b) glibenclamide (glyburide)
c) acarbose
d) nateglinide
e) glipizide

A

c) acarbose

305
Q

Which does NOT have a Na+ channel blocking effect?

a) Adenosine
b) Amiodarone

c) Quinidine
d) Propafenone

e) Mexiletine

A

a) Adenosine

306
Q

Which of the following drugs decrease oxygen demand or increases oxygen supply of the heart?

a) Coenzyme Q
b) Vitamin E
c) Clopidogrel
d) Vitamin C
e) Nitroglycerin

A

e) Nitroglycerin

307
Q

After MI the patients BP drops down the diastolic pressure is unmeasurable. Which of the following drugs should be given?

a) Milrinone
b) Metoprolol
c) Lisinopril
d) Epinephrine
e) Norepinephrine

A

e) Norepinephrine

308
Q

Which of the following is characteristic for the MOA of Dapaglifozin?

a) Inhibition of alpha-glycosidase
b) Inhibition of ATP-dep K+channels
c) Increase of insulin receptor sensitivity
d) Inhibition of SGLT2

A

d) Inhibition of SGLT2

309
Q

Which of the following insulin preparations is rapidly acting?

a) NPH isophane insulin
b) Regular human insulin
c) Insulin aspart
d) Insulin detemir
e) Insulin glargine

A

c) Insulin aspart

310
Q

Which is NOT characteristic for nateglinide?

a) Taken in the morning 1 hour before meal
b) Should not be used during breastfeeding
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Liver toxicity
e) Diarrhea

A

a) Taken in the morning 1 hour before meal

( A?? Lecture says “in connection with meals”, but the Tmax is 40 min. In pregnancy ALWAYS insulin, same goes for breatfeeding I guess..? )

311
Q

Which of the following drugs is the longest acting dihydropyridine?

a) Isradipine
b) Amlodipine
c) Nimodipine
d) Nicardipine
e) Felodipine

A

b) Amlodipine

312
Q

What is the MOA of the nitrates?

a) B-receptor blockade
b) A-receptor blockade
c) Increasing PGI2 level
d) Increasing NO and cGMP levels
e) Blockade of Ca2+ channels

A

d) Increasing NO and cGMP levels

313
Q

Which of the following drugs is indicated in Parkinson disease?

a) Varenicline
b) Rivastigmine
c) Biperiden

d) Donezepil
e) Buthylscopolamine

A

c) Biperiden

314
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Neostigmine inhibits cholinesterase irreversibly
b) Cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated in Parkinson disease
c) Epinephrine decreases heart rate
d) Scopolamine might cause vomit
e) Ergotamine stimulates tonic contractions of the uterus

A

e) Ergotamine stimulates tonic contractions of the uterus

315
Q

Which is true if a drug has zero order kinetics?

a) In case of zero-order excretion dose increase exponentially elevates plasma

concentration

b) In case of zero-order elimination the elimination capacity has high reserve
c) In case of zero-order kinetics half-life can be precisely determined
d) In case of zero-order kinetics elimination speed does not depend on plasma concentration
e) Zero-order absorption is always advantageous

A

d) In case of zero-order kinetics elimination speed does not depend on plasma concentration

316
Q

Which of these effects or side effects is not typical for any local anesthetics?

a) vasodilation
b) psychostimulation
c) cough

d) In case of zero-order kinetics elimination speed does not depend on plasma

concentration

d) tremor
e) vasoconstriction

A

c) cough

317
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic is broken down by pseudocholinesterase?

a) Bupivacaine
b) Lidocaine
c) Ropivacaine

d) Mepivacaine
e) Tetracaine

A

e) Tetracaine

318
Q

Which of the following centrally acting muscle relaxants does NOT cause sedation?

a) Guaifenesin
b) Tolperisone
c) Baclofen

d) Chlorzoxazone
e) Tizanidine

A

b) Tolperisone

319
Q

Which muscle relaxant is indicated to a patient who suffers from liver and kidney failure at the same time?

a) Cisatracurium
b) Rocuronium
c) Alcuronium

A

a) Cisatracurium

320
Q

Which of the following effects is NOT due to a direct postsynaptic muscarine-receptors stimulation?

a) Smooth muscle relaxation
b) Negative chronotropic, dromotropic effect
c) Bronchospasm
d) Myosis
e) Increased salivation

A

a) Smooth muscle relaxation

321
Q

Which of the following compounds is a quaternary amine?

a) Homatropine
b) Ipratropium
c) Physostigmine

d) Atropine
e) Rivastigmine

A

b) Ipratropium

322
Q

Which of the following effects can be exerted by acetylcholine?

a) Pupil dilation (mydriasis)
b) Decreased secretions
c) Bradycardia
d) Relaxation of propulsive intestinal muscles
e) Provoking glaucoma

A

c) Bradycardia

323
Q

Reversible cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated for, EXCEPT:

a) Paralytic ileus
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Hypertension

A

c) Hypertension

324
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a) Before reaching the maximal effect, the effect is directly related to the number of

occupied receptors

b) Full agonists may exert their maximal effect by occupying a small fraction of the

receptor pool if the receptor pool is high

c) A competitive antagonist shifts the dose-curve rightward
d) Full agonists have a higher maximal effect than the partial agonists
e) Receptor up-regulation increase its maximal effect (efficacy)

A

e) Receptor up-regulation increase its maximal effect (efficacy)

325
Q

Which of the following compounds is a mixed alpha-1 and beta-antagonist?

a) Terazosin
b) Carvedilol
c) Celiprolol
d) Propranolol
e) Nebivolol

A

b) Carvedilol

326
Q

Which of the following is characteristic for dopamine?

a) Is a vasoconstrictor at low dose
b) Is absorbed well after oral admin
c) Has a short half life

A

c) Has a short half life

327
Q

Which of the following describes the way of action of the non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

a) Voltage-dependent Na+channel inhibition
b) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptor agonism
c) NMDA receptor antagonism
d) Competitive nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonism
e) GABA-B receptor agonism

A

d) Competitive nicotinic acetylcholine receptor antagonism

328
Q

What are indications B2-stimulators?

a) First line drugs for treatment of cardiogenic shock
b) They are used for the treatment of bronchial asthma
c) They do not enter the brain
d) Indirectly acting sympathomimetics
e) The result in uterus contraction

A

b) They are used for the treatment of bronchial asthma

329
Q

What is the most important factor in elimination of NE from the synaptic cleft?

a) Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase
b) Cholinesterase
c) COMT enzyme
d) MAO enzyme
e) Reuptake mechanism

A

e) Reuptake mechanism

330
Q

In which clinical developmental phase is the drug studied on healthy volunteers?

a) Neither
b) Phase I
c) Phase III
d) Phase V
e) Phase II

A

b) Phase I

331
Q

Which is false?

a) The EC50 is always equal with or lower than the kd
b) The intrinsic activity of a full agonist is higher than that of a partial agonist
c) The spare receptor fraction for a full agonist is higher than that of a partial agonist
d) Potency = -lgEC50
e) The potency of a full agonist is always lower than that of partial agonist

A

e) The potency of a full agonist is always lower than that of partial agonist

332
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a) Carbidopa inhibits the dopa decarboxylase
b) Oxymetazoline has higher affinity to alpha-1 receptors
c) Hemicholinium inhibits the neuronal uptake of choline
d) Cocaine releases NE from the transmission vesicles

A

d) Cocaine releases NE from the transmission vesicles

333
Q

Which of the following drugs is a selective alpha-1-receptor blocker?

a) Phenoxybenzamine
b) Yohimbine
c) Phentolamine
d) Phenylephrine
e) ….

A

e) …. (the right one I guess, -zosine)

334
Q

When applied locally the following drugs cause loss of accommodation in the eyes, EXCEPT:

a) Tropicamide
b) Phenylephrine
c) Cyclopentolate

d) Scopolamine
e) Atropine

A

b) Phenylephrine

335
Q

Which of the following drugs is indicated in organophosphate intox?

a) Atropine

b) Carbachol
c) Muscarine
d) Bethanechol

e) Physostigmine

A

a) Atropine

336
Q

Reversible cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated for, EXCEPT:

a) Paralytic ileus
b) Myasthenia gravis
c) Hypertension
d) Glaucoma
e) Urinary bladder atony

A

c) Hypertension

337
Q

Which of the following effects is mediated by M3 receptor activator?

a) Bronchoconstriction
b) Bradycardia
c) Mydriasis
d) Detrusor muscle relaxation
e) Decreased gastric acid secretion

A

a) Bronchoconstriction

338
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT decrease blood pressure?

a) Carvedilol

b) Phenylephrine
c) Alpha-methyldopa

d) Prazosin
e) Metoprolol

A

b) Phenylephrine

339
Q

Which of the followings is characteristic for the selective beta-2-stimulators?

a) First line drugs for treatment of cardiogenic shock
b) They are used for treatment of bronchial asthma
c) They do not enter the brain
d) Indirectly acting sympatomimetics

A

b) They are used for treatment of bronchial asthma

340
Q

Which of the following is the most selective beta-1-receptor agonist?

a) Propranolol
b) Dobutamine
c) Epinephrine

d) Carvedilol
e) Isoproterenol

A

b) Dobutamine

341
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic methods is most suitable for the selective pain relief (without motor inhibition)?

a) Infiltration anesthesia
b) Conduction anesthesia
c) Epidural anesthesia
d) Spinal anesthesia
e) Surface anesthesia

A

a) Infiltration anesthesia

342
Q

Which is characteristic for the cardio selective betablockers?

a) They cause less bradycardia than the non-selective ones
b) The risk of inducting asthmatic attack is smaller with these drugs than with the non-selective ones

c) They decrease LDL cholesterol level
d) They are contraindicated in ischemic heart disease

e) None of them has CNS effect

A

b) The risk of inducting asthmatic attack is smaller with these drugs than with the non-selective ones

343
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Tubular secretion is dramatically reduced in moderate renal impairment
b) Glomerular filtration is saturable
c) Tubular secretion is not saturable
d) Tubular reabsorption is mediated by active transport
e) Tubular reabsorption is influenced by the pH of the urine

A

e) Tubular reabsorption is influenced by the pH of the urine

344
Q

Which of the following side effects is NOT characteristic for any of the alpha-blockers?

a) Nasal congestion
b) Prolonged ejaculation
c) Orthostatic hypotension
d) Moderate edema
e) Bradycardia

A

e) Bradycardia

345
Q

Which of the following side effects is not typical to antipsychotics?

a) Constipation
b) Vomiting
c) Agranulocytosis

d) Tremor
e) Seizures

A

b) Vomiting

346
Q

TCAs may block the following receptors, EXCEPT

a) H1 histamine receptors
b) M type muscarinic receptors
c) Alpha-adrenergic receptors
d) 5HT2 serotonin receptor
e) GABA-A receptor

A

e) GABA-A receptor

347
Q

Which of the following drugs is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdose?

a) Flumazenil
b) N-acetyl-cystein

c) Naloxone
d) Disulfiram
e) Methylene-blue

A

a) Flumazenil

348
Q

The following about selegiline is true EXCEPT:

a) It is less likely to cause hypertensive crisis than phenelzine
b) It is an antiparkinsonian drug
c) It has neuroprotective effects
d) It is an irreversible MAO-B inhibitor
e) The major indication of this drug is the treatment of mania

A

e) The major indication of this drug is the treatment of mania

349
Q

The antipsychotics do NOT bind to:

a) Alpha-1
b) 5HT2A
c) 5HT2C

d) M3
e) GABA-A

A

e) GABA-A

350
Q

To whom would you primarily administer depot antipsychotics?

a) In the case of mood fluctuations
b) Young patients
c) Non-cooperative schizophrenics
d) Old women
e) It the patient has strong anxiety

A

c) Non-cooperative schizophrenics

351
Q

First choice for acute anxiety

a) Lithium

b) Venlafaxine
c) Citalopram
d) Phenobarbital

e) Alprazolam

A

e) Alprazolam

352
Q

Other indication of antidepressants, except:

a) Anxiety disorders
b) Migraine prophylaxis
c) Hypertension
d) Enuresis nocturna
e) Premenstrual dysphoria

A

c) Hypertension

353
Q

Which of the following drugs has a primary effect to block NMDA receptors?

a) Amantadine
b) Clonazepam
c) Bromocriptine

d) Clozapine
e) Levodopa

A

a) Amantadine

354
Q

Which of the following drugs stimulates dopamine receptors?

a) Risperidone
b) Quetiapine
c) Entacapone

d) Apomorphine
e) Rasagiline

A

d) Apomorphine

355
Q

Which of the following benzodiazepines has the shortest DOA?

a) Nitrazepam
b) Midazolam
c) Diazepam

d) Alprazolam
e) Lorazepam

A

b) Midazolam

356
Q

Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of absence seizures?

a) Phenytoin

b) Primidone
c) Pregabalin
d) Carbamazepine

e) Clonazepam

A

e) Clonazepam

357
Q

Which of the following drugs is indicated exclusively to prevent absence seizures?

a) Lamotrigine
b) Topimarate
c) Valproic acid
d) Clonazepam
e) Ethosuximide

A

e) Ethosuximide

358
Q

The MOA of Vigabatrine:

a) Na channel blockade
b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase
c) Inhibition of N-type Ca channels
d) AMPA receptor blockade
e) Inhibits the presynaptic release of GABA

A

b) Inhibition of GABA aminotransferase

359
Q

What is the most severe adverse effects of the depot antipsychotics?

a) Difficult swallowing
b) Retroperitoneal fibrosis
c) NMS
d) Allergic reactions
e) Ileus

A

c) NMS

360
Q

Which is the most likely to cause weight gain?

a) Quetiapine

b) Vigabatrin
c) Bupropion
d) Entacapone
e) Bromocriptine

A

a) Quetiapine

361
Q

Which of the following compounds has the lowest effect on the negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

a) Quetiapine
b) Risperidone
c) Fluphenazine
d) Ziprasidone
e) Aripiprazole

A

c) Fluphenazine

362
Q
  • *What is true regarding Phenytoin?**
    a) Its main indication is absence
    b) It has no enzyme inducing property

c) Its pharmacokinetics may show zero-order pattern
d) Its not effective to prevent partial seizures
e) Rapidly absorbed after oral administration

A

c) Its pharmacokinetics may show zero-order pattern

363
Q
  • *Severe idiosyncratic drug reaction to lamotrigine is:**
    a) Sedation

b) Bone demineralization
c) SJS
d) Arrhythmias
e) Weight gain

A

c) SJS

364
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Benzodiazepines can be safely combined with alcohol
b) The typical antipsychotics are strong D2 receptor agonists
c) The selective MAO-B inhibitors are used in the treatment of Parkinson disease
d) Carbamazepine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic
e) The SSRI are strongly sedative

A

c) The selective MAO-B inhibitors are used in the treatment of Parkinson disease

365
Q

Which of the following MOAs is NOT considered an antidepressant effect?

a) 5HT2A angatonism
b) Blockade of serotonin uptake from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic cell
c) Inhibition of MAO-A
d) Blockade of DOPA-decarboxylase enzyme
e) Blockade of NE from the synaptic cleft into the presynaptic cell

A

d) Blockade of DOPA-decarboxylase enzyme

366
Q

Which of the following can be one of the side effects of SSRI?

a) Glaucoma
b) Dry mouth
c) Drop of blood pressure
d) Sexual dysfunction
e) Constipation

A

d) Sexual dysfunction

367
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used as an antiparkinsonian drug?

a) Dopamine
b) Pramipexole
c) Cholinolytics with quaternary nitrogen
d) alprazolam
e) haloperidol

A

b) Pramipexole

368
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Buspirone is a partial 5HT1A agonist
b) Amitriptyline increases psychomotoric activity
c) Entacaptone is a MAO-B inhibitor
d) Aripiprazole is a typical (1st gen) antipsychotics
e) Benzodiazepines are more toxic than barbiturates

A

a) Buspirone is a partial 5HT1A agonist

369
Q

SSRI antidepressants are NOT indicated in the following disorder:

a) Manic phase of bipolar disorder
b) Panic disorder
c) OCD
d) Major depression
e) Social phobia

A

a) Manic phase of bipolar disorder

Pharmacology (Topics A) (39 decks)

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