Week 9 - Personality disorders Flashcards

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1
Q

What term describes consistency in patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving that are pervasive across life domains and enduring over time?

A) Mood disorder
B) Personality
C) Cognitive distortion
D) Behavioral trait

A

B) Personality

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2
Q

Traits such as neuroticism, extroversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, and conscientiousness are part of which personality theory?

A) Psychodynamic Theory
B) Humanistic Theory
C) Five-Factor Model
D) Social Learning Theory

A

C) Five factor model

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3
Q

Which personality trait is characterized by individuals being prone to psychological distress (anxiety, moodiness) and relying on maladaptive coping skills?

A) Extroversion
B) Conscientiousness
C) Neuroticism
D) Agreeableness

A

C) Neuroticism (N)

(emotional adjustment)

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4
Q

Which personality trait is characterized by individuals who are sociable, talkative, active, and optimistic?

A) Neuroticism
B) Agreeableness
C) Openness to experience
D) Extroversion

A

D) Extroversion

(quantity and intensity of interpersonal interactions)

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5
Q

Which personality trait is characterized by individuals who are curious, imaginative, and open to novel and unconventional ideas and behaviors?

A) Neuroticism
B) Conscientiousness
C) Extroversion
D) Openness to experience

A

D) Openness to experience

(actively seeks and appreciates different experiences)

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6
Q

Which personality trait is characterized by individuals who are organized, reliable, hard-working, self-directed, and punctual?

A) Neuroticism
B) Extroversion
C) Agreeableness
D) Conscientiousness

A

D) Conscientiousness

(organised, persistent and motivated in goal-directed behaviour)

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7
Q

Which personality trait is characterized by individuals who are good-natured, trusting, helpful, forgiving, and altruistic?

A) Neuroticism
B) Conscientiousness
C) Agreeableness
D) Openness to experience

A

C) Agreeableness

(interpersonal interactions preferred by an individual on a
continuum from compassion to antagonism)

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8
Q

What disorder is described by Milton’s three core features:
(a) functional inflexibility;
(b) self-defeating patterns of behavior;
(c) unstable functioning in the face of stress?

A) Anxiety Disorder
B) Mood Disorder
C) Personality Disorder
D) Substance Use Disorder

A

C) Personality Disorder

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9
Q

What term describes patterns of behavior that are damaging to oneself and are characterized by a person’s limited ability to learn from experience and change these harmful behaviors?

A) Emotional instability
B) Self-defeating behavior patterns
C) Cognitive distortions
D) Functional inflexibility

A

B) ‘Self-defeating behaviour patterns’

(e.g. substance misuse, spending problems, self-cutting, binge eating)

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10
Q

What term refers to a failure to adapt to changing and varied life experiences, characterized by the tendency to rigidly apply a range of behavioral strategies or responses across diverse life situations, even when the behavior is clearly inappropriate?

A) Self-defeating behavior patterns
B) Emotional instability
C) Functional inflexibility
D) Cognitive distortions

A

‘Functional inflexibility’

(e.g. difficulties with work and social relationships)

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11
Q

What term describes the marked instability in mood, thinking, and behavior during challenging life events, characterized by a state of unstable and fragile stability under stress?

A) Self-defeating behavior patterns
B) Emotional instability
C) Functional inflexibility
D) Tenuous stability

A

D) ‘tenuous stability under stress’

(maladaptive behaviours during challenging times)

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12
Q

Personality functioning exists on a continuum, with no clear or easily detectable point of division between normality and pathology.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

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13
Q

How are personality disorders defined by the DSM-5?

A) As temporary and episodic conditions that fluctuate in severity over time
B) As enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about oneself and the environment, which are inflexible, maladaptive, and cause significant functional impairment or distress
C) As disorders characterized primarily by episodic mood disturbances and anxiety
D) As conditions that are defined by acute and transient symptoms related to stress and trauma

A

B) As enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about oneself and the environment, which are inflexible, maladaptive, and cause significant functional impairment or distress

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14
Q

To establish diagnosis, the enduring patterns _______ (MUST/MUST NOT) differ markedly from the expectations of the individual’s CULTURAL group and cause significant personal distress and impairment in functioning.

A

MUST

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15
Q

Individuals diagnosed with personality disorder are affected in all areas of life.

A) True
B) False

A

B) False

(it is not uncommon for a person’s behaviour to be quite disturbed in
one area (such as family life and close relationships) while in other domains (such as work and study) the person might function relatively effectively)

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16
Q

According to DSM-5, personality disorders are grouped into ____ clusters.

A

three

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17
Q

Cluster A includes which personality disorders, characterized by odd or eccentric traits and behaviors?

A) Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic
B) Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive
C) Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal
D) Schizoid, schizotypal, and narcissistic

A

C) Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal

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18
Q

Cluster B includes which personality disorders, characterized by dramatic, emotional, or erratic traits and behaviors?

A) Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal
B) Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic
C) Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive
D) Schizoid, schizotypal, and narcissistic

A

B) Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic

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19
Q

Cluster C includes which personality disorders, characterized by anxious or fearful traits and behaviors?

A) Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal
B) Antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic
C) Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive
D) Schizoid, schizotypal, and narcissistic

A

C) Avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive

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20
Q

How many personality disorders are listed in the DSM-5, and how many in the ICD-10?

A) DSM-5: 10, ICD-10: 12
B) DSM-5: 12, ICD-10: 10
C) DSM-5: 10, ICD-10: 9
D) DSM-5: 11, ICD-10: 11

A

C) DSM-5: 10, ICD-10: 9

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21
Q
A
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22
Q

Cluster ____ presents the greatest challenge to clinicians, being associated with more dramatic and confronting behaviors, including verbal aggression, inappropriate demands, angry behavior, drug use, repeated self-harm, and inappropriate flirtation and/or sexual advances.

A) Cluster A
B) Cluster B
C) Cluster C
D) Cluster D

A

B) Cluster B

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23
Q

Face-to-face interviews are likely to be the most accurate way to assess personality disorder but these might be too time-consuming for clinical settings.

True/False

A

True

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24
Q

Clinicians _______
(should/should not) screen for personality disorders during an initial assessment.

A

should

(e.g. treatment of depression can be compromised if clinician fails to recognise long standing personality disorder underlying depression)

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25
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by inappropriate emotional and social behavior, aberrant cognitions, disorganized speech, few close friends, anxiety around others due to paranoid fears, odd ideas (e.g., belief in clairvoyance), over-elaborate speech, constricted or inappropriate affect, and unusual perceptual experiences (e.g., sensing another person’s presence)?

A) Paranoid Personality Disorder
B) Schizoid Personality Disorder
C) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D) Borderline Personality Disorder

A

C) schizotypal personality disorder

(transient nature of psychotic symptoms doesn’t warrant diagnosis of psychotic disorder)

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26
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by intense paranoia, pervasive and unwarranted mistrust and suspicion of others, hypervigilance for signs of harm, misinterpretation of events and actions, perceiving malevolence where none exists, holding grudges, and unjustified doubts about the fidelity of a spouse or partner?

A) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
B) Paranoid Personality Disorder
C) Borderline Personality Disorder
D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

B) paranoid personality
disorder

(beliefs are chronic and persistent over time rather than being episodic, as is the case for someone with a psychotic disorder. however they are less bizarre or delusional in nature than those seen in someone with psychotic disorder)

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27
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive lack of interest in and avoidance of interpersonal relationships, as well as emotional coldness in interactions with others, including no interest or pleasure in social activities, preference for solitary activities, and being perceived as ‘odd’ or a ‘loner’?

A) Schizoid Personality Disorder
B) Paranoid Personality Disorder
C) Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D) Avoidant Personality Disorder

A

A) schizoid personality
disorder

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28
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by inflated thoughts of one’s own worth, obliviousness to others’ needs, and an exploitative, arrogant demeanor, including traits such as being exploitative, envious, and having a sense of self-entitlement?

A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B) Borderline Personality Disorder
C) Antisocial Personality Disorder
D) Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

A) narcissistic personality
disorder

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29
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by excessive emotionality and an intense need for attention and approval, often sought through overly dramatic and seductive behavior, including using physical attractiveness or sexuality to gain attention, emotional shallowness, and being easily influenced by others?

A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B) Histrionic Personality Disorder
C) Borderline Personality Disorder
D) Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

B) histrionic personality
disorder

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30
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by unstable mood, self-concept, interpersonal relationships, and impulse control, including changeable moods, anger, impulsivity, self-mutilation, suicidal acts, and high comorbidity with depressive disorders and substance abuse?

A) Borderline Personality Disorder
B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
C) Histrionic Personality Disorder
D) Antisocial Personality Disorder

A

A) borderline personality
disorder

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31
Q

Which personality disorder is characterized by criminal, impulsive, callous, and/or ruthless behavior, marked by a disregard for the rights of others and an absence of respect for social norms, including lying, stealing, cheating, fighting, cruelty to humans and animals, fire-setting, and lack of remorse?

A) Antisocial Personality Disorder
B) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
C) Borderline Personality Disorder
D) Histrionic Personality Disorder

A

A) antisocial personality
disorder

(overlaps with other cluster B disorders)

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32
Q

Which set of personality traits includes superficial charm, a grandiose sense of self-worth, a tendency towards boredom and need for stimulation, pathological lying, the ability to deceive and manipulate others, and a lack of remorse, and is similar to Antisocial Personality Disorder but with less emphasis on behavior?

A) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B) Psychopathy
C) Histrionic Personality Disorder
D) Borderline Personality Disorder

A

B) psychopathy

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33
Q

Psychopathy is closely related to antisocial
personality disorder.

True/False

A

True

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34
Q

Is psychopathy listed as a disorder in the DSM-5.

A

No, not listed

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35
Q

Who introduced the term “madness without delirium” to describe a mental disorder characterized by severe psychological disturbances without physical symptoms of delirium?

A) Emil Kraepelin
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Philippe Pinel
D) Jean-Martin Charcot

A

C) Philippe Pinel

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36
Q

Psychopathy or desire for dominance, manipulation, callousness and a lack of empathy and remorse, is only found in individuals with criminal or deviant behaviour.

True/False

A

False

(also found in seemingly socially well-adjusted and successful individuals)

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37
Q

The DSM-5 criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder are mostly restricted to the description of ________ and ________ deviant behavior.

A) Impulsive; Aggressive
B) Criminal; Socially
C) Emotional; Cognitive
D) Sexual; Violent

A

B) Criminal; Socially

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38
Q

What is the name of the standardized, semi-structured interview that is currently the most widely accepted instrument for diagnosing psychopathy?

A) Hare Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)
B) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
D) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-5 (SCID-5

A

A) Hare Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R)

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39
Q

The Hare Psychopathy Checklist-Revised (PCL-R) comprises two factors:

‘_________ detachment’ (describes the core personality traits of psychopathy such as callousness, manipulativeness, and remorselessness)
‘________ behaviour’ (history of antisocial behavior, impulsiveness, and violence).
A) Interpersonal; Affective
B) Emotional; Antisocial
C) Cognitive; Emotional
D) Emotional; Relational

A

B) Emotional; Antisocial

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40
Q

Individuals with psychopathy may score highly on both factors of the PCL-R, but particularly in terms of the emotional detachment factor, whereas someone with
antisocial personality disorder may score highly on the antisocial behaviour factor alone.

True/False

A

True

(the main distinctive feature between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder)

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41
Q

In prisons, ____% of prisoners meet the criteria for antisocial personality disorder, while the prevalence
of psychopathy is much lower, namely about one-quarter of the____% of prison inmates with antisocial personality disorder.

A

75
75

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42
Q

Psychopathy ______ (does/does not) require a history of criminality?

A

does not

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43
Q

The personality disorder characterized by a need to be cared for and fear of rejection, leading to total dependence on and submission to others, is:

A) Avoidant Personality Disorder
B) Dependent Personality Disorder
C) Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

B) dependent personality
disorder

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44
Q

The personality disorder characterized by anxiety, a sense of inadequacy, and fear of criticism that leads to avoidance of social interactions and restraint in social situations is:

A) Dependent Personality Disorder
B) Avoidant Personality Disorder
C) Schizoid Personality Disorder
D) Narcissistic Personality Disorder

A

B) avoidant personality
disorder

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45
Q

The personality disorder characterized by rigidity in activities and interpersonal relationships, including emotional constriction, extreme perfectionism, and anxiety from disruptions to routine is:

A) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
B) Dependent Personality Disorder
C) Avoidant Personality Disorder
D) Schizotypal Personality Disorder

A

A) obsessive-compulsive
personality disorder

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46
Q
A
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47
Q

What is the main idea
behind the dimensional model of personality disorders?

A) Personality
characteristics exist in distinct categories.
B) Personality characteristics exist on a continuum from low to high.
C) Personality characteristics are determined solely by genetics.
D) Personality characteristics do not change over time.

A

B) Personality characteristics exist on a continuum from low to high.

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48
Q

What was one reason
for proposing the dimensional model of personality disorders?

A) To simplify the diagnostic process.
B) To reduce the number of personality disorders.
C) Due to the high level of comorbidity between personality disorders and other mental disorders.
D) To eliminate the concept of personality disorders entirely.

A

C) Due to the high level of comorbidity between personality disorders and other mental disorders.

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49
Q

Why was the dimensional approach not fully adopted in the DSM-5?

A) There was no support for it.
B) The dimensional models were too simple.
C) There was difficulty in reaching agreement on which dimensional model to use and concerns about complexity.
D) The categorical approach was considered outdated.

A

C) There was difficulty in reaching agreement on which dimensional model to use and concerns about complexity.

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50
Q

Where in the DSM-5 can the dimensional-categorical hybrid model be found?

A) In the main body of the DSM-5.
B) In a section on ‘Emerging Measures and Models’ for further research.
C) It was not included in the DSM-5.
D) In the introduction of the DSM-5.

A

B) In a section on ‘Emerging Measures and Models’ for further research.

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51
Q

Who were among the researchers mentioned as supporting the dimensional approach due to the high level of comorbidity between personality disorders and other mental disorders?

A) Tyrer, Reed, & Crawford
B) Hummelen, Wilberg, Pedersen, & Karterud
C) Freud & Jung
D) Beck & Ellis

A

B) Hummelen, Wilberg, Pedersen, & Karterud

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52
Q

What model is used to explain the differences in the prevalence rates of personality disorders across ethnic groups and cultures?

A) The genetic model
B) The ecological niche model
C) The psychoanalytic model
D) The behavioral model

A

B) The ecological niche model

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53
Q

What cultural values in Japan and Taiwan are thought to contribute to lower rates of antisocial personality disorder?

A) Individualism and self-expression
B) Social cohesion, loyalty, and mutual obligation
C) Economic success and competitiveness
D) Innovation and creativity

A

B) Social cohesion, loyalty, and mutual obligation

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54
Q

Which personality disorder demonstrated the highest prevalence in a national epidemiological study in Australia?

A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Antisocial personality disorder
C) Narcissistic personality disorder
D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

A

D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

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55
Q

What has research in the United States indicated about the prevalence of antisocial personality disorder and borderline personality disorder over time?

A) Both have decreased significantly.
B) Both have remained stable.
C) Both have increased since the middle of the last century.
D) Only borderline personality disorder has increased.

A

C) Both have increased since the middle of the last century.

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56
Q

What cultural changes are thought to contribute to the increase in antisocial and borderline personality disorders?

A) Increased emphasis on community and family support.
B) Broader cultural de-emphasis on community and family, including formal spiritual communities.
C) Greater financial stability and less working hours.
D) Stronger community ties and increased social support.

A

B) Broader cultural de-emphasis on community and family, including formal spiritual communities.

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57
Q

What factors are believed to contribute to the rise of narcissism in Western countries?

A) Decline of social media and popular culture.
B) Increased community-oriented values and de-emphasis on individual achievement.
C) Individualistic, work-oriented cultures valuing grandiosity, rise of social media, popular culture, and certain parental behaviors.
D) Decrease in individualism and rise in family-oriented behaviors.

A

C) Individualistic, work-oriented cultures valuing grandiosity, rise of social media, popular culture, and certain parental behaviors.

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58
Q

What is the ‘labelling effect’ in the context of personality disorders?

A) The tendency to label all unusual behaviors as disordered regardless of cultural context.
B) The likelihood that assessors will define behavior as ‘disordered’ if it is inconsistent with an individual’s culture of origin.
C) The practice of diagnosing personality disorders only based on genetic predispositions.
D) The process of labeling all emotional expressions as pathological.

A

B) The likelihood that assessors will define behavior as ‘disordered’ if it is inconsistent with an individual’s culture of origin.

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59
Q

What did Castaneda and Franco (1985) find regarding the interpretation of histrionic behavior, low control of emotion, and impulsivity in Latin American females by American interviewers?

A) These behaviors were accurately diagnosed as disorders.
B) These behaviors were often misinterpreted due to cultural differences.
C) These behaviors were ignored and not considered during assessment.
D) These behaviors were considered signs of strong mental health.

A

B) These behaviors were often misinterpreted due to cultural differences.

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60
Q

What range of prevalence estimates for personality disorders have large-scale epidemiological studies reported?

A) 1.1 to 10.9 per cent
B) 4.4 to 21.9 per cent
C) 2.4 to 7.6 per cent
D) 5.5 to 15.4 per cent

A

B) 4.4 to 21.9 per cent

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61
Q

What was the prevalence rate of personality disorders reported in a methodologically sound Australian study?

A) 4.4 per cent
B) 10.2 per cent
C) 6.5 per cent
D) 7.6 per cent

A

C) 6.5 per cent

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62
Q

Which personality disorder has the highest prevalence in adolescents and young adults?

A) Antisocial personality disorder
B) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

A

C) Borderline personality disorder

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63
Q

What is the suicide rate for people with borderline personality disorder?

A) 2-4 per cent
B) 5-7 per cent
C) 8-10 per cent
D) 11-13 per cent

A

C) 8-10 per cent

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64
Q

What do factor approaches to personality maintain?

A) Personality can be understood by identifying specific childhood experiences.
B) Personality is solely determined by genetic factors.
C) Personality can be understood in terms of the degree to which an individual manifests certain traits and combinations of traits.
D) Personality is best understood by observing social interactions.

A

C) Personality can be understood in terms of the degree to which an individual manifests certain traits and combinations of traits.

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65
Q

Which of the following traits from the five-factor model is NOT found to characterize disordered personality?

A) Neuroticism
B) Extroversion
C) Openness to experience
D) Agreeableness

A

C) Openness to experience

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66
Q

What is the estimated range of heritability for core personality traits according to Livesley (2008)?

A) 20 to 30 per cent
B) 40 to 60 per cent
C) 60 to 80 per cent
D) 80 to 90 per cent

A

B) 40 to 60 per cent

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67
Q

What does epigenetic research suggest about experiences such as sustained deprivation and trauma?

A) They have no impact on genetic predispositions.
B) They might alter the genetic code and these changes can be transmitted over subsequent generations.
C) They only affect the individual’s immediate behavior and not their genetic code.
D) They are solely responsible for personality development.

A

B) They might alter the genetic code and these changes can be transmitted over subsequent generations.

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68
Q

What is the key component in cognitive models of psychopathology?

A) Genetic predispositions
B) Dysfunctional core beliefs
C) Childhood experiences
D) Social interactions

A

B) Dysfunctional core beliefs

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69
Q

According to cognitive theory, how do specific maladaptive core beliefs affect individuals with personality disorders?

A) They enhance their ability to process social information accurately.
B) They influence the processing of social information to maintain dysfunctional beliefs.
C) They are easily altered by new information.
D) They improve their understanding of others and the world.

A

B) They influence the processing of social information to maintain dysfunctional beliefs.

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70
Q

What is the first step in cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT) for personality disorders?

A) Administering medication
B) Conducting a cognitive case formulation
C) Implementing behavioral interventions
D) Conducting genetic testing

A

B) Conducting a cognitive case formulation

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71
Q

Which of the following is NOT a standard CBT intervention mentioned for personality disorders?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Supporting behavioral change
C) Genetic modification
D) Developing a treatment plan based on a cognitive case formulation

A

C) Genetic modification

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72
Q
A
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73
Q

What does Jeffrey Young’s model of cognitive therapy for personality disorders extend the construct of the schema to include?

A) Only negative beliefs about the self, others, and the world
B) Emotions, behaviors, and bodily sensations
C) Genetic predispositions
D) Social interactions

A

B) Emotions, behaviors, and bodily sensations

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74
Q

What are early maladaptive schemas, according to Young?

A) Negative beliefs that develop during adolescence
B) Cognitive patterns that change easily over time
C) Organized collections of multidimensional information that develop early in life due to unmet core emotional needs
D) Genetic traits that influence personality

A

C) Organized collections of multidimensional information that develop early in life due to unmet core emotional needs

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75
Q

What is schema perpetuation in Young’s approach?

A) The process by which schemas are easily changed and adapted
B) The tendency for schemas to be weakened over time
C) The tendency for schemas to be maintained and strengthened over time through selective information processing and coping styles
D) The elimination of schemas through therapeutic intervention

A

C) The tendency for schemas to be maintained and strengthened over time through selective information processing and coping styles

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76
Q

Which coping style involves the individual accepting the truth of the schema and behaving in consistent ways?

A) Schema avoidance
B) Schema overcompensation
C) Schema surrender
D) Schema denial

A

C) Schema surrender

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77
Q

Which early maladaptive schema is associated with borderline personality disorder?

A) Defectiveness/shame schema
B) Unrelenting standards schema
C)Abandonment/
instability schema
D) Mistrust/abuse schema

A

C) Abandonment/instability schema

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78
Q
A
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79
Q

What is the focus of the extensive assessment phase in schema therapy?

A) Identifying the
patient’s genetic predispositions
B) Identifying the patient’s early maladaptive schemas and how they manage them
C) Analyzing the patient’s social interactions
D) Assessing the patient’s physical health

A

B) Identifying the patient’s early maladaptive schemas and how they manage them

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80
Q

What is one cognitive strategy used in schema therapy?

A) Encouraging the patient to avoid distressing situations
B) Having the patient test the validity of their schema by examining the evidence for and against it
C) Teaching the patient relaxation techniques
D) Analyzing the patient’s dreams

A

B) Having the patient test the validity of their schema by examining the evidence for and against it

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81
Q

What is the aim of experiential strategies in schema therapy?

A) To teach the patient new coping mechanisms
B) To encourage emotional change by triggering distressing emotions associated with maladaptive schemas
C) To provide the patient with a new perspective on their childhood experiences
D) To improve the patient’s physical health

A

B) To encourage emotional change by triggering distressing emotions associated with maladaptive schemas

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82
Q

What have studies shown about the effectiveness of schema therapy for personality disorders?

A) It is ineffective for all personality disorders
B) It is effective for borderline personality disorder and superior to ‘treatment as usual’ for paranoid, histrionic, narcissistic, and cluster C personality disorders
C) It is only effective for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
D) It is only effective for short-term treatment

A

B) It is effective for borderline personality disorder and superior to ‘treatment as usual’ for paranoid, histrionic, narcissistic, and cluster C personality disorders

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83
Q

How long is schema therapy often expected to continue?

A) Less than one year
B) One to two years
C) Three to four years
D) Five or more years

A

D) Five or more years

(low dropout rate, is cost-effective)

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84
Q

Which personality disorders has schema therapy been found to be superior to ‘treatment as usual’?

A) Schizoid and dependent personality disorders
B) Paranoid, histrionic, narcissistic, and cluster C personality disorders
C) Avoidant and schizotypal personality disorders
D) Antisocial and borderline personality disorders

A

B) Paranoid, histrionic, narcissistic, and cluster C personality disorders

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85
Q

What is the primary focus of Marsha Linehan’s biosocial model for borderline personality disorder?

A) Genetic predispositions
B) Dysfunction in the emotion-regulation system
C) Cognitive distortions
D) Traumatic experiences

A

B) Dysfunction in the emotion-regulation system

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86
Q

According to Linehan’s biosocial model, what are the two main components contributing to borderline personality disorder?

A) Biologically based emotional vulnerability and drastically invalidating environments
B) Genetic mutations and neurochemical imbalances
C) Cognitive distortions and traumatic experiences
D) Childhood neglect and environmental toxins

A

A) Biologically based emotional vulnerability and drastically invalidating environments

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87
Q

Which of the following best describes a ‘drastically invalidating environment’ as per Linehan’s model?

A) An environment where emotional experiences are validated and supported
B) An environment characterized by neglect and rejection of emotional expressions
C) An environment with excessive emotional support
D) An environment that fosters emotional intelligence

A

B) An environment characterized by neglect and rejection of emotional expressions

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88
Q

What does the term ‘dialectic’ refer to in dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)?

A) Integration of opposing elements in thinking and behaving
B) Rejection of cognitive theories
C) Strict adherence to cognitive restructuring
D) A focus on historical analysis

A

A) Integration of opposing elements in thinking and behaving

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89
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the domains addressed in dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)?

A) Emotional regulation
B) Cognitive restructuring
C) Distress tolerance
D) Interpersonal effectiveness

A

B) Cognitive restructuring

90
Q

What is the initial focus in dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) when working with clients?

A) Enhancing interpersonal relationships
B) Developing the client’s engagement and commitment to treatment
C) Addressing cognitive distortions
D) Reducing long-term distress

A

B) Developing the client’s engagement and commitment to treatment

91
Q

In DBT, what is the purpose of mindfulness skills?

A) To increase emotional distress
B) To observe without immediate reaction and be in the moment
C) To avoid dealing with negative emotions
D) To focus exclusively on past traumas

A

B) To observe without immediate reaction and be in the moment

92
Q

Which of the following is NOT a distress-tolerance skill taught in DBT?

A) Engaging in activities that compare oneself to those less fortunate
B) Comforting oneself through sensory activities
C) Avoiding distressing situations completely
D) Improving the moment through positive imagery or relaxation

A

C) Avoiding distressing situations completely

93
Q

What are the skills of interpersonal effectiveness in DBT aimed at?

A) Reducing emotional arousal
B) Learning how to initiate and maintain good relationships and assertiveness
C) Increasing self-criticism
D) Ignoring interpersonal conflicts

A

B) Learning how to initiate and maintain good relationships and assertiveness

94
Q

What does the emotion-regulation skill in DBT focus on?

A) Increasing vulnerability to negative emotions
B) Identifying emotions, reducing vulnerability, increasing positive emotions, and letting go of emotional suffering
C) Suppressing all emotional experiences
D) Enhancing cognitive distortions

A

B) Identifying emotions, reducing vulnerability, increasing positive emotions, and letting go of emotional suffering

95
Q

What is the main focus of Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT)?

A) Cognitive restructuring and exposure therapy
B) Integrating cognitive psychology with object relations theory
C) Medication management for personality disorders
D) Psychodynamic analysis of unconscious conflicts

A

B) Integrating cognitive psychology with object relations theory

96
Q

How does Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) approach the therapeutic relationship?

A) By focusing on unconscious drives and conflicts
B) Through a collaborative understanding of the patient’s thoughts, behaviors, and actions
C) By using a one-way, directive approach
D) With a primary focus on pharmacological interventions

A

B) Through a collaborative understanding of the patient’s thoughts, behaviors, and actions

97
Q

What term does CAT use to describe internalized relational patterns that affect how individuals relate to themselves and others?

A) Reciprocal roles
B) Schema
C) Cognitive distortions
D) Defense mechanisms

A

A) Reciprocal roles

(e.g. children who have experienced neglecting and abuse internalise both the ‘victim’ and ‘abuser’ roles, and have the capacity to enact
either (or both) in their relationships with others, at work)

98
Q

According to CAT, what is a primary cause of personality disturbances?

A) Genetic predispositions alone
B) Harsh and punitive early relational patterns internalized through trauma and neglect
C) Excessive self-reflection and introspection
D) Neurobiological imbalances without environmental factors

A

B) Harsh and punitive early relational patterns internalized through trauma and neglect

99
Q

What does the ‘multiple self states model’ in CAT suggest is responsible for problems in borderline personality disorder?

A) Dissociation, limited reciprocal roles, and deficient self-reflection
B) Excessive cognitive distortions, lack of insight, and emotional instability
C) Inherited neurobiological factors, chronic illness, and environmental stress
D) Over-reliance on medication, denial of problems, and social isolation

A

A) Dissociation, limited reciprocal roles, and deficient self-reflection

100
Q

In CAT, what is the purpose of the early sessions of therapy?

A) To focus solely on behavioral changes
B) To develop a collaborative understanding and reformulation of the patient’s history and problems
C) To administer pharmacological treatments
D) To enforce strict therapeutic boundaries

A

B) To develop a collaborative understanding and reformulation of the patient’s history and problems

101
Q

What is a key feature of the ‘reciprocal roles’ concept in CAT?

A) They are genetic predispositions that influence behavior
B) They are internalized roles based on early interactions that shape later relationships
C) They are automatic cognitive processes without relational impact
D) They are solely emotional responses to current stressors

A

B) They are internalized roles based on early interactions that shape later relationships

102
Q

How does CAT address the development of self-caring patterns?

A) By focusing on self-blame and guilt
B) By modeling ‘good enough’ care through the therapeutic relationship and encouraging reflection
C) By ignoring past relational patterns
D) By prescribing medications to regulate emotions

A

B) By modeling ‘good enough’ care through the therapeutic relationship and encouraging reflection

103
Q

What does CAT use to help patients understand and revise maladaptive patterns?

A) Detailed pharmacological interventions
B) Letters and diagrams summarizing the reformulation of their problems
C) Hypnotherapy and dream analysis
D) Strict behavioral modification techniques

A

B) Letters and diagrams summarizing the reformulation of their problems

104
Q

What is the typical duration of therapy in Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) for complex problems such as personality disorders?

A) Up to 6 sessions
B) Up to 12 sessions
C) Up to 24 sessions
D) Up to 36 sessions

A

C) Up to 24 sessions

105
Q

The aim of __________ letter is to present the patient’s history in such a way that he/she can feel validated and understood by
the therapist, and can start to make sense of the interpersonal patterns that are having a negative impact on his/her life.

A

reformulation

106
Q

What is the primary focus of Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT)?

A) Cognitive restructuring and exposure therapy
B) Enhancing the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states
C) Medication management for mood disorders
D) Addressing unconscious conflicts and early childhood traumas

A

B) Enhancing the capacity to understand one’s own and others’ mental states

107
Q

According to the text, what role does ‘mirroring’ play in the development of mentalisation?

A) It helps the child learn to suppress negative emotions.
B) It provides the child with evidence of self as an entity and influences their sense of being good or bad.
C) It involves the child directly interacting with peers to develop social skills.
D) It is a process of the child observing and copying the caregiver’s behaviors.

A

B) It provides the child with evidence of self as an entity and influences their sense of being good or bad.

108
Q

What happens if ‘good enough’ mirroring is not provided to a child, according to the mentalisation model?

A) The child will develop a strong sense of self without issues.
B) The child internalizes the carer’s marked state, potentially leading to a painful image of the self.
C) The child will develop a sense of self that is overly idealized and unrealistic.
D) The child will immediately adapt to different self-concepts without issues.

A

B) The child internalizes the carer’s marked state, potentially leading to a painful image of the self

109
Q

What does Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) aim to achieve through the therapeutic relationship?

A) To provide medication to stabilize mood
B) To use the relationship to stabilize the person’s sense of self and enhance mentalisation capacity
C) To directly confront and change the client’s past traumatic experiences
D) To isolate the client from their daily life to focus solely on therapy

A

B) To use the relationship to stabilize the person’s sense of self and enhance

110
Q

How is the approach of Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) described in terms of therapy sessions?

A) It focuses solely on individual therapy without group sessions.
B) It includes weekly individual and group therapy sessions with a focus on here-and-now experiences.
C) It utilizes a long-term approach with frequent medication adjustments.
D) It integrates several different forms of therapy, including hypnotherapy and psychoanalysis.

A

B) It includes weekly individual and group therapy sessions with a focus on here-and-now experiences.

111
Q

What were the findings of the trials supporting Mentalisation-Based Treatment (MBT) for borderline personality disorder?

A) MBT was found to be less effective than traditional therapies and had a high dropout rate.
B) MBT resulted in decreased self-harm, suicidality, and improved mood and social functioning.
C) MBT showed no significant changes in symptoms compared to treatment as usual.
D) MBT was effective only in decreasing mood symptoms, not in reducing self-harm or improving social functioning.

A

B) MBT resulted in decreased self-harm, suicidality, and improved mood and social functioning.

112
Q

What is a major reason for the reluctance to diagnose personality disorders in individuals younger than 18?

A) Lack of available treatment options
B) Concerns about stigma and potential negative impact on the individual
C) Limited research on adolescent personality disorders
D) Insufficient diagnostic criteria for young people

A

B) Concerns about stigma and potential negative impact on the individual

113
Q

Recent guidelines suggest that diagnosing borderline personality disorder in young people is:

A) Not advisable due to the lack of reliable evidence
B) Valid and reliable, similar to diagnoses in adults
C) Only appropriate in severe cases
D) Better avoided to prevent worsening the condition

A

B) Valid and reliable, similar to diagnoses in adults

114
Q

Why is early intervention for personality disorders considered important?

A) Personality disorders are less common in older adults
B) Early intervention can lead to better long-term outcomes and improved general functioning
C) It prevents the need for later, more intensive therapies
D) Early intervention is not particularly effective for young people

A

B) Early intervention can lead to better long-term outcomes and improved general functioning

115
Q

What does research suggest about the prevalence of borderline personality disorder?

A) It is equally prevalent across all age groups
B) It rises after puberty and peaks in early adulthood, then declines
C) It primarily affects older adults and decreases with age
D) It is most prevalent in middle-aged individuals

A

B) It rises after puberty and peaks in early adulthood, then declines

116
Q

What is one rationale for early intervention in borderline personality disorder, according to the text?

A) Personality features are less malleable in adolescence
B) Adolescents with borderline features have better future outcomes
C) Early intervention may take advantage of the increased malleability of personality features in adolescence
D) Personality disorders in adolescence typically resolve without intervention

A

C) Early intervention may take advantage of the increased malleability of personality features in adolescence

117
Q

Which early-intervention programs for borderline personality disorder have shown favorable outcomes for adolescents?

A) Only pharmacological treatments
B) Long-term inpatient therapies
C) Dialectical behavior therapy and mentalisation-based therapy
D) General supportive counseling without structured therapies

A

C) Dialectical behavior therapy and mentalisation-based therapy

118
Q

What are some reasons for advocating early identification and treatment of borderline personality disorder in adolescents?

A) Adolescents with borderline personality disorder have a low risk of future problems
B) Early intervention is unlikely to improve outcomes
C) Early identification can minimize or avert potential problems, given the disorder’s high prevalence, associated distress, and predictability of later issues
D) Adolescents with borderline personality disorder often require lifelong medication

A

C) Early identification can minimize or avert potential problems, given the disorder’s high prevalence, associated distress, and predictability of later issues

119
Q

What early model of schizophrenia was characterized by aloofness and lack of interest in connection with others?

A) Schizotypal personality disorder
B) Schizoid personality disorder
C) Paranoid personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

A

B) Schizoid personality disorder

120
Q

Which model introduced the concept of schizotypy, incorporating psychosis-like features?

A) Bleuler’s model
B) Hoch’s model
C) Meehl’s model
D) Ryle’s model

A

C) Meehl’s model

121
Q

What evidence supports the view that schizotypal personality disorder is a milder form of schizophrenia?

A) It is more prevalent among the relatives of individuals with schizophrenia.
B) It shows different memory and attention deficits compared to schizophrenia.
C) It lacks any genetic links with schizophrenia.
D) It is not associated with any brain structure anomalies

A

A) It is more prevalent among the relatives of individuals with schizophrenia.

122
Q

What type of abnormalities have been identified in individuals with schizotypal personality disorder?

A) Reduced levels of neurotransmitter dopamine
B) Neurological abnormalities similar to those in schizophrenia
C) Higher levels of serotonin
D) Decreased brain structure anomalies

A

B) Neurological abnormalities similar to those in schizophrenia

123
Q

Which Cluster A personality disorder has shown a small increase in frequency among relatives of people with schizophrenia?

A) Schizotypal personality disorder
B) Paranoid personality disorder
C) Schizoid personality disorder
D) Borderline personality disorder

A

C) Schizoid personality disorder

124
Q

Why do individuals with Cluster A personality disorders often present for treatment?

A) They are generally proactive about seeking therapy.
B) They present only when experiencing crises or marked symptoms.
C) They frequently seek therapy to improve their social skills.
D) They have low levels of anxiety and depression.

A

B) They present only when experiencing crises or marked symptoms.

125
Q

What approach is recommended for teaching social skills to patients with Cluster A personality disorders?

A) Use of medication to enhance social skills
B) Modeling, role playing, and videotaping social interactions
C) Group therapy focusing solely on social interaction
D) Psychoanalytic techniques to explore past experiences

A

B) Modeling, role playing, and videotaping social interactions

126
Q

Which type of medication is often used to address psychotic symptoms in individuals with Cluster A personality disorders?

A) Antidepressants
B) Anxiolytics
C) Antipsychotics
D) Stimulants

A

C) Antipsychotics

127
Q

What is a limitation found in pharmacological treatment for individuals with schizoid traits?

A) They are less likely to respond to medications for psychotic symptoms.
B) They show lower efficacy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
C) They have a higher likelihood of addiction to anxiolytics.
D) They often require higher doses of antidepressants to see results.

A

B) They show lower efficacy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

128
Q

Which therapeutic approach is recommended for enhancing self-awareness, social skills, and general quality of life in patients with Cluster A personality disorders?

A) Psychoanalytic therapy

B) Cognitive-behavioral techniques

C) Humanistic therapy

D) Narrative therapy

A

B) Cognitive-behavioral techniques

129
Q

Which type of therapy might be used to gradually expose a patient to increasingly difficult social situations?

A) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
B) Exposure therapy
C) Dialectical behavior therapy
D) Psychoanalytic therapy

A

B) Exposure therapy

130
Q

For individuals with concurrent depressive and anxiety symptoms, which medications are recommended?

A) Antipsychotics and stimulants
B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and anxiolytics
C) Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
D) Anxiolytics and antipsychotics

A

B) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and anxiolytics

131
Q

What limitation was found in pharmacological treatment for patients with a higher number of schizoid traits?

A) They are less likely to respond to medication for anxiety.
B) They are less likely to respond to pharmacological treatment of depression.
C) They experience severe side effects from SSRIs.
D) They require higher doses of anxiolytics to see improvement.

A

B) They are less likely to respond to pharmacological treatment of depression.

132
Q

What challenges do patients with Cluster A personality disorders face in developing a strong working relationship with a therapist?

A) Difficulty in understanding cognitive-behavioral techniques

B) Intimacy and mistrust issues

C) Lack of interest in therapy goals

D) Overwhelming motivation to engage in therapy

A

B) Intimacy and mistrust issues

133
Q

What is one of the main reasons for the significant focus on borderline personality disorder in research?

A) It is the least common personality disorder.

B) It is associated with high personal costs such as suicidal behaviors.

C) It is easily treatable.

D) It has minimal social costs.

A

B) It is associated with high personal costs such as suicidal behaviors.

134
Q

What common genetic factor is associated with antisocial personality disorder?

A) High levels of empathy.

B) Impulsivity.

C) Enhanced memory recall.

D) High levels of patience.

A

B) Impulsivity.

(adoption studies)

135
Q

Which neurotransmitter is linked to impulsivity and aggressive behavior in antisocial personality disorder?

A) Dopamine

B) Serotonin

C) Norepinephrine

D) Acetylcholine

A

B) Serotonin

(neurotransmitter disturbance)

136
Q

What role does testosterone play in antisocial personality disorder?

A) It decreases aggressive behavior.

B) It increases aggressive and violent behavior.

C) It has no impact on behavior.

D) It improves impulse control.

A

B) It increases aggressive and violent behavior.

(hormonal distrubance)

137
Q

How does low physiological arousal relate to antisocial personality disorder?

A) It decreases risk-taking behavior.

B) It causes higher levels of fear.

C) It increases the likelihood of risky behaviors.

D) It has no relationship with antisocial behavior.

A

C) It increases the likelihood of risky behaviors.

(much less fear than others and therefore more willing to engage in risky behaviours)

138
Q

Which brain areas are found to have abnormalities in individuals with antisocial personality disorder?

A) Occipital lobe and cerebellum

B) Frontal and pre-frontal cortex

C) Hippocampus and amygdala

D) Temporal lobe and parietal lobe

A

B) Frontal and pre-frontal cortex

139
Q

What interaction is highlighted as a key factor in the development of antisocial behavior?

A) Genetic factors only

B) Environmental factors only

C) Interaction between genetic and environmental factors

D) None of the above

A

C) Interaction between genetic and environmental factors

140
Q

What kind of early life complications are associated with a predisposition to antisocial behavior?

A) Maternal separation and paternal presence

B) Birth complications like anoxia and negative home environments

C) High socioeconomic status and supportive home environments

D) Academic achievement and social support

A

B) Birth complications like anoxia and negative home environments

141
Q

Which theory proposes that emotional processes guide decision making through associations stored as somatic markers?

A) Violence inhibition mechanism model

B) Somatic marker hypothesis

C) Cognitive dissonance theory

D) Social learning theory

A

B) Somatic marker hypothesis

142
Q

According to the somatic marker hypothesis, where are associations between emotions and behavior proposed to be stored?

A) Hippocampus

B) Occipital lobe

C) Ventromedial prefrontal cortex

D) Amygdala

A

C) Ventromedial prefrontal cortex

143
Q

What is the consequence of a disturbance in the somatic marker system?

A) Enhanced sensitivity to emotional cues

B) Increased emotional regulation

C) Insensitivity to potentially negative consequences

D) Improved decision-making based on emotional experience

A

C) Insensitivity to potentially negative consequences

144
Q

What does the somatic marker hypothesis suggest about the role of bodily experiences, like fear, in decision-making?

A) Bodily experiences provide irrelevant information for decision-making.

B) Bodily experiences only affect decision-making in high-risk situations.

C) Bodily experiences help bias cognitive processing to avoid negative outcomes.

D) Bodily experiences are irrelevant in guiding decision-making.

A

C) Bodily experiences help bias cognitive processing to avoid negative outcomes.

145
Q

Based on the example provided in the somatic marker hypothesis, what role does the experience of getting burnt on the stove play in future decision-making about handling hot objects?

A) It encourages individuals to ignore past experiences and act impulsively.

B) It creates a cognitive representation of the object without influencing future choices.

C) It helps individuals recall the bodily experience of fear, guiding them to make safer choices.

D) It leads to confusion about the object, causing difficulty in recognizing it in the future.

A

C) It helps individuals recall the bodily experience of fear, guiding them to make safer choices.

146
Q

What is the Iowa gambling task used to study?

A) Memory recall

B) Real-life decision making

C) Physical endurance

D) Language skills

A

B) Real-life decision making

147
Q

In the Iowa gambling task, individuals scoring high on psychopathy tend to make decisions similar to individuals with what kind of brain lesion?

A) Orbitofrontal cortex

B) Hippocampus

C) Occipital lobe

D) Parietal lobe

A

A) Orbitofrontal cortex

148
Q

In the Iowa gambling task, how do individuals with high psychopathy typically behave, and what does this reveal about their decision-making processes?

A) They consistently choose options with small, frequent gains, leading to better long-term outcomes.

B) They avoid all risky options to ensure consistent, small rewards and minimize losses.

C) They prefer options that offer occasional large gains despite frequent large losses, indicating a lack of emotional biasing signals.

D) They choose options based on emotional responses, leading to well-balanced decisions.

A

C) They prefer options that offer occasional large gains despite frequent large losses, indicating a lack of emotional biasing signals.

149
Q

What does the violence inhibition mechanism model propose about psychopaths?

A) They lack cognitive abilities.

B) They lack a functional violence inhibition mechanism.

C) They have heightened empathy.

D) They have an increased ability to recognize distress cues.

A

B) They lack a functional violence inhibition mechanism.

150
Q

Which brain structure is implicated in the processing of distress cues according to the violence inhibition mechanism model?

A) Hippocampus

B) Occipital lobe

C) Amygdala

D) Parietal lobe

A

C) Amygdala

151
Q

What is a key characteristic of individuals with psychopathy as observed in research studies?

A) They understand and experience fear similarly to others.

B) They exhibit increased sensitivity to distress cues.

C) They lack emotional biasing signals that guide decision making.

D) They show high levels of empathy and social connection.

A

C) They lack emotional biasing signals that guide decision making.

152
Q

What ongoing debate is mentioned regarding individuals with psychopathic traits and antisocial personality disorder?

A) Whether they should receive more medication.

B) The degree of their responsibility for their actions and the potential role of neuroscience in crime prevention.

C) Their ability to integrate into society.

D) Their educational needs.

A

B) The degree of their responsibility for their actions and the potential role of neuroscience in crime prevention.

153
Q

Why might individuals with antisocial personality disorder be reluctant to engage in a therapeutic relationship, and what challenges does this present for therapists?

A) They are typically highly motivated for treatment.

B) They may reject the diagnosis, deny symptoms, or attribute problems to others, and may misuse therapy.

C) They generally have good insight and are cooperative.

D) They are usually compliant with treatment plans and have no issues with therapy.

A

B) They may reject the diagnosis, deny symptoms, or attribute problems to others, and may misuse therapy.

154
Q

What are some common reasons individuals with antisocial personality disorder might seek therapy, and how does this affect treatment?

A) For direct treatment of antisocial behavior.

B) For issues like marital discord, substance use disorders, or suicidal thoughts.

C) For general mental health maintenance.

D) To gain a better understanding of their antisocial traits.

A

B) For issues like marital discord, substance use disorders, or suicidal thoughts.

155
Q

What is the primary focus of treatment for adult antisocial personality disorder, given the limited body of evidence on its treatment?

A) Direct treatment of antisocial behaviors.

B) Addressing comorbid disorders such as substance use and managing risks.

C) Intensive psychoanalysis.

D) Cognitive-behavioral therapy aimed solely at antisocial traits.

A

B) Addressing comorbid disorders such as substance use and managing risks.

156
Q

What is a significant challenge in treating antisocial personality disorder, and what is one possible approach to overcome this challenge?

A) Establishing a strong therapeutic alliance; using mentalisation-based treatment.

B) Identifying the disorder; using psychoanalytic therapy.

C) Providing pharmacological treatment; focusing solely on medication.

D) Managing co-occurring disorders; avoiding behavioral interventions.

A

A) Establishing a strong therapeutic alliance; using mentalisation-based treatment.

157
Q

What evidence exists regarding the effectiveness of treatments for adult antisocial personality disorder, and what is a promising approach?

A) High-quality clinical trials show significant effectiveness for various treatments; no promising approaches are noted.

B) No single treatment approach has been consistently effective; mentalisation-based treatment shows some promise.

C) Behavioral therapies are consistently effective; mentalisation-based treatment is not applicable.

D) SSRIs and antipsychotics are highly effective; mentalisation-based treatment has not been tested.

A

A) High-quality clinical trials show significant effectiveness for various treatments; no promising approaches are noted.

158
Q

According to the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) guidelines, what is emphasized for preventing and intervening in antisocial personality disorder?

A) Treating antisocial personality disorder directly in adulthood.

B) Early prevention and intervention focusing on conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder.

C) Providing intensive inpatient treatment for adults.

D) Using medication as the primary treatment approach.

A

B) Early prevention and intervention focusing on conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder.

159
Q

What role does pharmacological treatment play in managing antisocial personality disorder, and what is debated in this context?

A) Pharmacological treatment is the primary and only method; SSRIs are highly effective for all symptoms.

B) Pharmacological treatment helps manage impulsive and aggressive behaviors; the value of SSRIs for irritability and hostility is debated.

C) Pharmacological treatment is ineffective; only psychotherapy is used.

D) Medication is not used; therapy focuses exclusively on behavior modification.

A

B) Pharmacological treatment helps manage impulsive and aggressive behaviors; the value of SSRIs for irritability and hostility is debated.

(lithium and antipsychotic medication has been utilised to
help manage impulsive and aggressive behaviours)

160
Q

What does the twin study suggest about the genetic contribution to borderline personality disorder?

A) There is no genetic contribution.
B) Genetic contribution is minimal.
C) Concordance rates of 35% in monozygotic twins and 7% in dizygotic twins suggest a genetic contribution.
D) Concordance rates are equal in monozygotic and dizygotic twins.

A

C) Concordance rates of 35% in monozygotic twins and 7% in dizygotic twins suggest a genetic contribution.

161
Q

How do the heritability of borderline personality disorder features between the ages of 14 and 24 compare to other ages?

A) Less heritable than at other ages.
B) Equally heritable as at other ages.
C) More heritable than at other ages.
D) Not heritable at all.

A

C) More heritable than at other ages.

162
Q

What neurotransmitter system abnormalities are associated with impulse control problems in borderline personality disorder?

A) Dopamine abnormalities.
B) Serotonin abnormalities.
C) GABA abnormalities.
D) Glutamate abnormalities.

A

B) Serotonin abnormalities.

163
Q

What is the relationship between the trait dimension of neuroticism and borderline personality disorder?

A) Neuroticism has no relationship with borderline personality disorder.
B) Neuroticism is linked only to emotional dysregulation in borderline personality disorder.
C) Neuroticism, including facets like anxiety and impulsivity, is linked to emotional dysregulation and impulsivity in borderline personality disorder.
D) Neuroticism is related only to impulsivity in borderline personality disorder.

A

C) Neuroticism, including facets like anxiety and impulsivity, is linked to emotional dysregulation and impulsivity in borderline personality disorder.

164
Q

What neurobiological impairments are linked to the core elements of borderline personality disorder, such as impulsivity and emotional instability?

A) Heightened pre-frontal activity and reduced limbic system activity.
B) Pre-frontal deficits and heightened limbic system activity.
C) Enhanced serotonin production and reduced cortisol production.
D) Increased dopamine activity and reduced pre-frontal activity.

A

B) Pre-frontal deficits and heightened limbic system activity.

165
Q

How does childhood trauma, particularly sexual abuse, relate to borderline personality disorder?

A) Childhood trauma has no relationship with borderline personality disorder.
B) Physical abuse is more strongly linked to borderline personality disorder than sexual abuse.
C) Sexual abuse is strongly associated with borderline personality disorder.
D) The severity of physical abuse is more important than sexual abuse.

A

C) Sexual abuse is strongly associated with borderline personality disorder.

166
Q

How can the impact of childhood abuse on the development of borderline personality disorder be mitigated?

A) By avoiding any form of therapy.
B) In environments where families function well.
C) Through medication alone.
D) By completely removing the child from the family environment.

A

B) In environments where families function well.

167
Q

What parenting styles are suggested to contribute to the development of borderline personality disorder?

A) Consistent and nurturing parenting.
B) Inconsistent, neglectful, or overly intensive parenting.
C) Authoritative parenting.
D) Permissive parenting.

A

B) Inconsistent, neglectful, or overly intensive parenting.

168
Q

How might prolonged activation of the HPA axis during childhood trauma contribute to the development of borderline personality disorder?

A) It strengthens the immune system.
B) It can lead to under-responsiveness and damage to hippocampal cells.
C) It has no impact on the development of the disorder.
D) It reduces the risk of developing the disorder.

A

B) It can lead to under-responsiveness and damage to hippocampal cells.

169
Q

What differences have been observed in cortisol responses to stress between adults and younger people with borderline personality disorder?

A) Adults show suppressed or delayed cortisol responses, while younger individuals have a more normal cortisol stress response.
B) Both adults and younger individuals show suppressed cortisol responses.
C) Both adults and younger individuals have a more normal cortisol stress response.
D) Adults show a heightened cortisol response, while younger individuals show a suppressed response.

A

A) Adults show suppressed or delayed cortisol responses, while younger individuals have a more normal cortisol stress response.

170
Q

What percentage of outpatients have borderline personality disorder, indicating its commonality in clinical practice>

A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 20%
D) 25%

A

C) 20%

171
Q

Which of the following is a significant cost associated with borderline personality disorder?
A) Education expenses
B) Travel costs
C) Emergency department treatment
D) Housing costs

A

C) Emergency department treatment

172
Q

What is the most common form of self-harm seen in individuals with borderline personality disorder?

A) Overeating
B) Drug abuse
C) Excessive sleeping
D) Superficial cutting

A

D) Superficial cutting

173
Q

According to Stoffers et al. (2012), what should be the first line of treatment for borderline personality disorder?

A) Pharmacotherapy
B) Psychological interventions
C) Hospitalization
D) Self-help programs

A

B) Psychological interventions

174
Q

What do the Australian Clinical Practice Guidelines for the Management of Borderline Personality Disorder emphasize as a primary treatment?

A) Medication
B) Psychological interventions
C) Physical therapy
D) Surgery

A

B) Psychological interventions

(e.g. s individual therapy, group therapy, family work, psychiatric care and psychosocial interventions)

175
Q

Which type of therapy is at one end of the continuum being more behavioral for treating borderline personality disorder?

A) Mentalisation-based therapy
B) Schema therapy
C) Dialectical behavioral therapy
D) Transference-focused psychotherapy

A

C) Dialectical behavioral therapy

176
Q

Transference-focused psychotherapy is primarily used to address issues related to:
a) Cognitive distortions
b) Relationship patterns and emotional conflicts
c) Behavioral modification
d) Integrative models

A

b) Relationship patterns and emotional conflicts

177
Q

What is a significant challenge of specialized treatments for borderline personality disorder, according to Bateman, Gunderson, & Mulder (2015)?

A) Ineffectiveness
B) Lack of patient interest
C) Long-term duration and high cost
D) Insufficient training of therapists

A

C) Long-term duration and high cost

178
Q

Why is there a call to develop simpler and briefer interventions for borderline personality disorder?

A) They are more enjoyable
B) Patients prefer shorter treatments
C) Specialized treatments are costly and have long waiting lists
D) Longer treatments are ineffective

A

C) Specialized treatments are costly and have long waiting lists

179
Q

Which therapy was originally developed for borderline personality disorder but has shown promise when modified for younger patients?

A) Psychoanalytic therapy
B) Cognitive analytic therapy
C) Art therapy
D) Music therapy

A

B) Cognitive analytic therapy

180
Q

The aetiology of narcissistic personality disorder is conceptualized as a consequence of:
a) Overindulgent and empathic early childhood experiences
b) Consistent and nurturing early childhood experiences
c) Non-empathic, invalidating, and/or inconsistent early childhood experiences
d) Excessive praise and validation during early childhood

A

c) Non-empathic, invalidating, and/or inconsistent early childhood experiences

181
Q

Which psychoanalytic theorist emphasizes the role of cold caregivers displaying either indifference or aggression towards the child?
a) Kohut
b) Kernberg
c) Stone
d) Livesley

A

b) Kernberg

182
Q

Kohut (1971; 1977) proposed that non-empathic responses from caretakers in infancy and childhood lead to:
a) Increased feelings of inadequacy
b) The development of compensatory beliefs about personal superiority
c) An increased ability to form healthy adult relationships
d) A heightened sense of empathy towards others

A

b) The development of compensatory beliefs about personal superiority

183
Q

What distinction is noted between grandiose and vulnerable narcissism according to Horton, Bleau, & Drwecki (2006)?
a) Grandiose narcissism is characterized by low self-esteem, while vulnerable narcissism is characterized by inflated self-beliefs
b) Grandiose narcissism involves a high level of empathy, while vulnerable narcissism involves low empathy
c) Grandiose narcissism is linked to permissive caregiving, while vulnerable narcissism is linked to cold, over-controlled caregiving
d) Grandiose narcissism is primarily genetic, while vulnerable narcissism is primarily due to early childhood experiences

A

c) Grandiose narcissism is linked to permissive caregiving, while vulnerable narcissism is linked to cold, over-controlled caregiving

184
Q

Narcissistic personality disorder has:
a) The lowest heritability among personality disorders
b) No genetic contribution
c) The highest heritability of any personality disorder
d) A genetic contribution but no link to temperament

A

c) The highest heritability of any personality disorder

185
Q

Why might prevalence rates of narcissistic personality disorder appear lower than they actually are?
a) Individuals with narcissistic features often seek treatment voluntarily
b) Individuals with narcissistic features deny traits that seem socially undesirable
c) Narcissistic personality disorder is not recognized in many diagnostic manuals
d) Individuals with narcissistic features frequently have comorbid disorders

A

b) Individuals with narcissistic features deny traits that seem socially undesirable

186
Q

What is the process referred to as ‘corrective disillusionment’ in individuals with narcissistic features?
a) Realizing that their grandiose fantasies are unlikely to be realized
b) Developing a heightened sense of empathy
c) Acknowledging the benefits of interpersonal behavior changes
d) Increasing their motivation for treatment

A

a) Realizing that their grandiose fantasies are unlikely to be realized

187
Q

Which of the following is a goal for cognitive therapy with individuals with narcissistic personality disorder?
a) Enhancing their sense of superiority
b) Reducing self-awareness of their grandiose views
c) Improving awareness of the needs and feelings of others
d) Increasing their resistance to rejection and negative evaluation

A

c) Improving awareness of the needs and feelings of others

188
Q

What is noted about the effectiveness of cognitive therapy for people with narcissistic personality disorder?
a) It has been extensively researched and proven effective
b) It has been partially researched with positive results
c) Its effectiveness has not been investigated
d) It is known to be ineffective for treating narcissistic personality disorder

A

c) Its effectiveness has not been investigated

189
Q

What is emphasized in the aetiological accounts of histrionic personality disorder?
a) Empathic parent-child interactions
b) Consistent and supportive parent-child interactions
c) Inconsistent, intense, and non-empathic parent-child interactions
d) Stable and nurturing relationships with peers

A

c) Inconsistent, intense, and non-empathic parent-child interactions

190
Q

What did Dahl (1993) suggest regarding the prevalence of Cluster B personality disorders?
a) Higher prevalence of Cluster B disorders among the general population
b) Higher prevalence of Cluster B disorders among relatives of individuals with histrionic personality disorder
c) Lower prevalence of Cluster B disorders among relatives of individuals with histrionic personality disorder
d) No difference in prevalence among relatives of individuals with histrionic personality disorder

A

b) Higher prevalence of Cluster B disorders among relatives of individuals with histrionic personality disorder

190
Q

Why might individuals with histrionic personality disorder engage in dramatic behaviors?
a) To avoid experiencing any relationship intensity
b) To experience the same early intensity of relationships in adulthood
c) To strengthen their sense of self without seeking attention
d) To reduce their dependency on others

A

b) To experience the same early intensity of relationships in adulthood

191
Q

How is histrionic personality disorder described compared to dependent personality disorder?
a) Histrionic is passive-dependent, while dependent is active-dependent
b) Histrionic is active-dependent, while dependent is passive-dependent
c) Both disorders are equally active-dependent
d) Both disorders are equally passive-dependent

A

b) Histrionic is active-dependent, while dependent is passive-dependent

192
Q

What aspect of histrionic personality disorder may be genetically influenced?
a) The level of introversion
b) The level of aggression
c) The level of extroversion
d) The level of anxiety

A

c) The level of extroversion

193
Q

What is a noted challenge in treating individuals with histrionic personality disorder?
a) They are highly motivated to change their behavior
b) They tend to present with clear and specific symptoms unrelated to their personality disorder
c) The therapeutic relationship can be complicated by interpersonal features such as seductiveness
d) They frequently seek treatment for non-personality disorder related issues

A

c) The therapeutic relationship can be complicated by interpersonal features such as seductiveness

194
Q

Why might anxiety, depressive, and somatic symptoms in individuals with histrionic personality disorder be resistant to treatment?
a) They are caused by purely genetic factors
b) They arise from realistic expectations and do not require specific treatment
c) They are secondary to the personality disorder and require a focus on the histrionic basis
d) They are not influenced by the personality disorder and require general psychiatric treatment

A

c) They are secondary to the personality disorder and require a focus on the histrionic basis

(Such symptoms typically arise following failure or disappointment related to unrealistic expectations of the self and others. As such,
these symptoms are unlikely to respond to treatment in the absence of a focus on their histrionic basis)

195
Q

What type of therapy is suggested to be helpful for histrionic personality disorder in challenging assumptions about dependency on others?
a) Behavioral therapy
b) Psychodynamic therapy
c) Cognitive therapy
d) Humanistic therapy

A

c) Cognitive therapy

195
Q

Why might individuals with histrionic
personality disorder be more likely to seek help compared to those with antisocial or narcissistic personality disorders?
a) They have a lower
level of dependency issues
b) They tend to be less engaged in ongoing therapy
c) They have more difficulty forming interpersonal relationships
d) They may have greater dependency issues and are more likely to seek help

A

d) They may have greater dependency issues and are more likely to seek help

196
Q

What type of symptoms might individuals with histrionic personality disorder present with that are secondary to their personality disorder?
a) Clearly defined psychotic symptoms
b) Vague anxiety, depressive, and somatic symptoms
c) Specific obsessive-compulsive symptoms
d) Acute mood disorders

A

b) Vague anxiety, depressive, and somatic symptoms

197
Q

Which type of medication is commonly used for individuals with Cluster C personality disorders, including avoidant personality disorder?

A) Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
B) Antidepressants and anxiolytics
C) Stimulants and antipsychotics
D) Antidepressants and antipsychotics

A

B) Antidepressants and anxiolytics

198
Q

Meta-analysis about the effectiveness of treatments for Cluster C personality disorders revealed?

A) Cluster C patients showed no significant improvement with any treatments.
B) All treatments studied (including CBT, interpersonal social skills training, and psychodynamic therapies) showed significant gains compared to controls.
C) Only psychodynamic therapies showed significant gains.
D) Only CBT was found to be effective

A

B) All treatments studied (including CBT, interpersonal social skills training, and psychodynamic therapies) showed significant gains compared to controls.

199
Q

What specific techniques have been found to benefit patients with avoidant personality disorder?

A) Psychoanalysis and medication
B) In vivo exposure to feared social situations and social skills training
C) Medication alone
D) Imaginal exposure and group therapy

A

B) In vivo exposure to feared social situations and social skills training

199
Q

In the study by Emmelkamp et al. (2006), which therapy was found to be more effective for patients with avoidant personality disorder?

A) Brief dynamic therapy
B) Wait-list control condition
C) Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)
D) Both therapies were equally effective

A

C) Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT)

200
Q

What is the general outcome of psychological interventions for Cluster C personality disorders?

A) Results are generally ineffective and require more research.
B) Results are mixed, with no clear benefit.
C) Results are encouraging, showing that various psychological interventions can be effective.
D) Only pharmacological treatments are recommended

A

C) Results are encouraging, showing that various psychological interventions can be effective.

201
Q

What does research suggest about the genetic predisposition related to dependent personality disorder?

A) It is linked to high extroversion and low neuroticism.
B) It may involve temperamental factors associated with neuroticism and low extroversion.
C) It is unrelated to genetic factors and is purely a result of environmental influences.
D) It exclusively involves a high level of conscientiousness.

A

B) It may involve temperamental factors associated with neuroticism and low extroversion.

202
Q

According to cognitive theorists, what role does early attachment experience play in the development of dependent personality disorder?

A) It creates a sense of independence and self-sufficiency.
B) It fosters a belief that the world is safe and that one can manage without help.
C) It encourages the child to view the world as unsafe and themselves as incompetent.
D) It leads to a strong sense of self-worth and confidence

A

C) It encourages the child to view the world as unsafe and themselves as incompetent.

202
Q

What evidence supports the idea that childhood abuse contributes to the development of a dependency schema?

A) The experience of academic failure in childhood
B) High levels of social support in childhood
C) Significant associations between the dependency schema and experiences of emotional and sexual abuse in childhood
D) Increased exposure to positive reinforcement during childhood

A

C) Significant associations between the dependency schema and experiences of emotional and sexual abuse in childhood

202
Q

What psychosocial factor is linked to the development of dependent personality disorder in adulthood?

A) Exposure to high socioeconomic status during childhood
B) Early physical abuse
C) High academic achievement in childhood
D) Stable family environment

A

B) Early physical abuse

202
Q

Which model suggests that dependent personality disorder can be seen as an extreme variant of certain personality traits?

A) The Five Factor Model
B) The Psychoanalytic Model
C) The Cognitive Behavioral Model
D) The Attachment Theory Model

A

A) The Five Factor Model

203
Q

According to cognitive theorists, how do early experiences contribute to the development of dependent personality disorder?

A) They lead to the development of a belief that the world is a safe and supportive place.
B) They foster a sense of independence and self-sufficiency in the child.
C) They encourage the child to view the world as unsafe and themselves as incompetent, making them reliant on significant others.
D) They result in the child developing a high level of self-esteem and confidence.

A

C) They encourage the child to view the world as unsafe and themselves as incompetent, making them reliant on significant others.

204
Q

In the cognitive-behavioural approach to treating dependent personality disorder, what strategies are used to manage anxiety?

A) Medication and psychoanalysis
B) Behavioural strategies for anxiety management and graded homework tasks
C) Relaxation techniques and group therapy
D) Hypnotherapy and self-help books

A

B) Behavioural strategies for anxiety management and graded homework tasks

205
Q

What type of therapy has shown promise in treating dependent personality disorder according to recent trials?

A) Psychoanalytic therapy and exposure therapy
B) Schema therapy and dialectical behaviour therapy
C) Cognitive behavioural therapy and psychodynamic therapy
D) Humanistic therapy and play therapy

A

B) Schema therapy and dialectical behaviour therapy

206
Q

What challenge might therapists face when working with patients who have dependent personality disorder?

A) Patients may resist therapy and be uncooperative.
B) Patients may have difficulty understanding the therapist’s feedback.
C) Patients may become overly dependent on the therapist for emotional support and advice.
D) Patients may have excessive confidence and ignore therapeutic suggestions.

A

C) Patients may become overly dependent on the therapist for emotional support and advice.

207
Q

According to research based on the Five Factor Model, which traits are associated with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

A) High neuroticism, high agreeableness, and low conscientiousness
B) High neuroticism, high conscientiousness, and low agreeableness
C) Low neuroticism, high agreeableness, and high conscientiousness
D) Low neuroticism, low conscientiousness, and high agreeableness

A

B) High neuroticism, high conscientiousness, and low agreeableness

208
Q

What does the heritability estimate of .78 from twin studies suggest about obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

A) It has a moderate genetic contribution.
B) It is purely environmentally influenced.
C) It is not genetically influenced at all.
D) It is entirely genetically determined.

A

A) It has a moderate genetic contribution.

208
Q

What core beliefs are characteristic of individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder according to cognitive theory?

A) Belief in their own incompetence and inadequacy
B) Perfectionistic strivings and the intolerable nature of perceived faults or personal flaws
C) Overconfidence in their abilities and resilience to criticism
D) Belief that social interactions are unimportant and unnecessary

A

B) Perfectionistic strivings and the intolerable nature of perceived faults or personal flaws

209
Q

What psychosocial factor is suggested to contribute to the development of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?

A) Positive reinforcement from parental figures
B) Coping responses developed to manage negative interpersonal experiences
C) Lack of exposure to any form of abuse
D) Early experiences of high social support and approval

A

B) Coping responses developed to manage negative interpersonal experiences

209
Q

What does cognitive-behavioural therapy for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically include?

A) Psychoanalysis and medication management
B) Challenging dysfunctional beliefs, in vivo exposure, and graded homework tasks
C) Hypnotherapy and family therapy
D) Relaxation techniques and art therapy

A

B) Challenging dysfunctional beliefs, in vivo exposure, and graded homework tasks

210
Q

What is a common reason individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder seek treatment?

A) For comorbid substance use disorders
B) For comorbid anxiety or depressive conditions
C) For chronic pain management
D) For sleep disorders

A

B) For comorbid anxiety or depressive conditions

211
Q

What was the main limitation of the non-randomised trial by Strauss and colleagues (2006) on cognitive therapy for personality disorders?

A) It lacked a control group and follow-up assessment
B) It included too many participants
C) It was randomized but did not assess depressive symptoms
D) It used a control group but no pre-treatment measures

A

A) It lacked a control group and follow-up assessment

211
Q

Which therapies have been suggested as potentially effective for obsessive-compulsive personality disorder based on randomized controlled trials?

A) Schema therapy and dialectical behaviour therapy
B) Humanistic therapy and exposure therapy
C) Psychodynamic therapy and pharmacotherapy
D) Gestalt therapy and play therapy

A

A) Schema therapy and dialectical behaviour therapy