Week 3 - OCD and related disorders/trauma and stress related disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Anxiety disorder characterised by obsessions and/or compulsions.

A

obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD)

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2
Q

According to the DSM-5, is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) listed as part of the anxiety disorders or as a separate disorder?

A) Part of the anxiety disorders
B) A separate disorder, but adjacent to anxiety disorders
C) As a subtype of Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) As a mood disorder

A

B) A separate disorder, but adjacent to anxiety disorders

(to reflect close relationship with each other)

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3
Q

4 diagnostic criteria for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:
1.obsessions and compulsions
2. marked distress (for MORE THAN ONE HOUR A DAY difficulty functioning)
3. symptoms are not
attributable to a substance (drugs, meds)
4. content of obsessions or compulsions cannot
be restricted to another disorder that is present (E.g. excessive concern about appearance in
an individual with body dysmorphic disorder would not warrant the additional diagnosis of OCD)

A
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4
Q

Which of the following are additional criteria for diagnosing Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

  1. Good or fair insight: Recognizing OCD beliefs are probably not true
  2. Poor insight: Believing OCD beliefs are probably true
  3. Absent insight (delusional beliefs): Being completely convinced OCD beliefs are true
  4. Current or past history of tic disorder

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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5
Q

The inclusion of an ‘absent insight’ specifier in OCD diagnosis:

A) Helps differentiate OCD from mood disorders
B) Simplifies the diagnosis of OCD
C) Makes the distinction between OCD and psychotic conditions more difficult
D) Clarifies the presence of tics in OCD

A

C) Makes the distinction between OCD and psychotic conditions more difficult

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6
Q

Which of the following correctly defines obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

A) Persistent and uncontrollable thoughts, images, ideas, or impulses that cause significant anxiety or distress, and the person recognizes these come from their own mind and actively tries to ignore them.
B) Excessive worries about real-life problems that are manageable and controllable.
C) Temporary thoughts that are easily dismissed and not associated with significant anxiety.
D) Ordinary concerns that do not intrude upon consciousness.

A

A) Persistent and uncontrollable thoughts, images, ideas, or impulses that cause significant anxiety or distress, and the person recognizes these come from their own mind and ACTIVLY TRIES TO IGNORE.

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7
Q

Repetitive behaviours or mental acts that an individual feels s/he must perform.

A

compulsions

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8
Q

According to the APA, why is OCD separated from anxiety disorders and grouped with body dysmorphic and hoarding disorders?

A) To reflect commonalities in diagnostic features and treatment approaches
B) To simplify the treatment process
C) To differentiate between OCD and mood disorders
D) To integrate OCD into a new anxiety disorder category

A

A) To reflect commonalities in diagnostic features and treatment approaches

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9
Q

Despite a good description of OCD, what does the DSM-5 fail to indicate?

A) The severity of symptoms in OCD
B) The breadth of possible presentations and the wide variation in obsessions
C) The effectiveness of different treatments
D) The historical context of OCD diagnosis

A

B) The breadth of possible presentations and the wide variation in obsessions

(more than any other psychiatric condition, OCD varies considerably from case to case with an endless list of objects to become obsessed about).

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10
Q

In addition to washing/cleaning, what is another common feature of OCD?

A) Compulsive checking
B) Excessive worry about real-life problems
C) Frequent mood swings
D) Avoidance of social interactions

A

A) Compulsive checking

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11
Q

OCD is a relatively common disorder, with a prevalence rate in the ___ - ___ per cent range, with an average age of onset of _____ years, and it usually remains throughout a lifetime.

A) 1 - 3 per cent; 20 years
B) 2 - 3 per cent; 10.3 years
C) 3 - 5 per cent; 25 years
D) 4 - 6 per cent; 30 years

A

B) 2 - 3 per cent; 10.3 years

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12
Q

The aetiology of OCD is supported by two strong models: the _____________ and ___________.

A) Behavioral and biological
B) Neuropsychological and cognitive
C) Environmental and genetic
D) Developmental and psychoanalytic

A

B) neuropsychological
and cognitive

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13
Q

The Neuropsychological model suggests that OCD results from a failure of inhibitory pathways in the ___________ ganglia of the brain to stop behaviors triggered by stimuli (behavioural macros)

A) Basal
B) Limbic
C) Temporal
D) Cerebellar

A

A) Basal

(behavioural macros = behaviours triggered in response to internal or external stimuli)

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14
Q

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral macro in OCD?

A) Repeatedly checking if the door is locked
B) Following a specific routine for hand washing due to fear of contamination
C) Avoiding social interactions due to shyness
D) Having frequent mood swings without specific triggers

A

B) Following a specific routine for hand washing due to fear of contamination

(behaviour triggered after touching a door knob for example)

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15
Q

Group of large nuclei in the forebrain; involved in the control of
motor behaviour and may be relevant to obsessive/compulsive disorder.

A

basal ganglia

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16
Q

The Salkovskis _________ model emphasizes that OCD results from the misinterpretation of intrusive thoughts.

A) Behavioral
B) Neuropsychological
C) Cognitive
D) Developmental

A

C) cognitive

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17
Q

The cognitive model of OCD is supported by the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral approaches to treatment that are based on the ___________ model.

A) Behavioral
B) Neuropsychological
C) Cognitive
D) Developmental

A

C) Cognitive

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18
Q

According to the correlational study by Jones and Menzies, what did the researchers find regarding threat appraisals in OCD?

A) Threat appraisals have a causal role in compulsive washing
B) Threat appraisals trigger compulsive washing and related symptoms but no causal role has been established
C) Threat appraisals are unrelated to compulsive behaviors
D) Threat appraisals only affect avoidance behaviors, not compulsive washing

A

B) Threat appraisals trigger compulsive washing and related symptoms but no causal role has been established

(individuals with OCD might interpret an everyday situation, like touching a doorknob, as highly threatening. This negative appraisal can trigger compulsive behaviors, such as excessive hand washing, to alleviate anxiety and avoid perceived contamination. However, the study did not establish a causal link between these threat appraisals and the compulsive behaviors, only showing a correlation between the two)

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19
Q

Common treatments for OCD include:

  1. CBT
    Exposure and response prevention
    Behavioral experiment
    Cognitive restructuring
  2. Pharmacotherapy
A
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20
Q

Which treatment is used in about 75% of OCD cases?

A) Pharmacotherapy
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
C) Psychoanalysis
D) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

A

B) cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT)

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21
Q

What is the name of the behavioral technique where the client is exposed to feared stimuli and prevented from using any responses aimed at escaping their anxiety?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Exposure and response prevention
C) Behavioral experiment
D) Mindfulness training

A

B) exposure and response
prevention

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22
Q

Which of the following is an example of Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) in treating OCD?

A) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and then immediately washes their hands.
B) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and is prevented from washing their hands, allowing them to face their anxiety.
C) A person with OCD avoids touching any doorknobs to prevent anxiety.
D) A person with OCD reads about the risks of contamination without any behavioral exposure.

A

B) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and is prevented from washing their hands, allowing them to face their anxiety.

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23
Q

What is the cognitive technique where a client participates in a planned activity to test the accuracy of their beliefs?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Behavioral experiment
C) Thought record
D) Mindfulness training

A

B) behavioural experiment

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24
Q

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral experiment?

A) A person with social anxiety gives a speech to a small group to test if their fear of being ridiculed is accurate.
B) A person writes down their thoughts about public speaking and challenges them with positive statements.
C) A person practices mindfulness to manage anxiety about public speaking.
D) A person avoids public speaking entirely to prevent anxiety.

A

A) A person with social anxiety gives a speech to a small group to test if their fear of being ridiculed is accurate.

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25
Which cognitive technique involves learning to identify, challenge, and replace dysfunctional beliefs with more realistic or helpful ones? A) Cognitive restructuring B) Behavioral experiment C) Exposure therapy D) Thought stopping
C) cognitive restructuring
26
Which of the following is an example of cognitive restructuring? A) A person with OCD believes they must check the door five times to prevent something terrible from happening. After therapy, they learn to replace this belief with, "One thorough check is usually enough." B) A person with social anxiety avoids public speaking entirely to prevent embarrassment. C) A person with OCD performs a behavioral experiment by touching a dirty doorknob and observing the outcome. D) A person practices mindfulness to observe their thoughts without judgment.
A) A person with OCD believes they must check the door five times to prevent something terrible from happening. After therapy, they learn to replace this belief with, "One thorough check is usually enough."
27
What is Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT), developed by Jones and Menzies for compulsive washers? A) A technique for exposure and response prevention to reduce compulsions B) A therapy focusing on psychoeducation about disease and immune function, and using cognitive strategies to lower risk estimates of illness C) A cognitive technique for restructuring negative beliefs D) A method for managing social anxiety through group therapy
B) A therapy focusing on psychoeducation about disease and immune function, and using cognitive strategies to lower risk estimates of illness
28
Which of the following is an example of Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT) for compulsive washers? A) A therapist educates a patient on the actual minimal risk of illness from everyday objects and helps them challenge their exaggerated fears about contamination. B) A patient is exposed to feared contaminants and prevented from engaging in handwashing rituals. C) A patient participates in cognitive restructuring to challenge negative beliefs about public speaking. D) A patient practices mindfulness to reduce overall anxiety.
A) A therapist educates a patient on the actual minimal risk of illness from everyday objects and helps them challenge their exaggerated fears about contamination.
29
Which of the following statements about Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT) is true? A) DIRT is typically used as a first-line treatment for OCD and is ineffective for individuals who do not respond to exposure and response prevention. B) DIRT has been found helpful for individuals who have not benefited from exposure and response prevention and medication and can result in rapid recovery, sometimes in as few as 8 one-hour sessions. C) DIRT focuses solely on medication management and has no role in cognitive or behavioral therapy. D) DIRT is most effective for individuals with social anxiety rather than compulsive washing.
B) DIRT has been found helpful for individuals who have not benefited from exposure and response prevention and medication and can result in rapid recovery, sometimes in as few as 8 one-hour sessions.
30
In addition to its original design to address washing, the DIRT program has been extended to address compulsive __________. A) Checking B) Hoarding C) Counting D) Avoidance
A) checking
31
Persistent difficulty in discarding possessions, with a high level of distress associated with removing the items.
hoarding disorder
32
The point prevalence of body dysmorphic disorder is estimated at approximately _____% with similar numbers of male and female sufferers.
2.5
33
Condition that involves recurrent skin picking, commonly affecting the hands, face, and arms, is known as: A) Trichotillomania B) Dermatitis C) Excoriation Disorder D) Psoriasis
C) excoriation disorder
34
Prevalence of hoarding disorder is -_ percent with slightly more ______ than ______. A) 2-6 percent; women than men B) 1-4 percent; men than women C) 3-5 percent; women than men D) 5-8 percent; men than women
A) 2-6 percent; women than men
35
Disorder involving obsessive concern regarding a part of the body the individual believes is defective.
body dysmorphic disorder
36
Condition that involves the recurrent pulling out of one’s own hair is known as: A) Trichotillomania B) Excoriation Disorder C) Dermatitis D) Psoriasis
A) Trichotillomania
37
Which of the following are criteria for diagnosing trichotillomania according to the DSM-5? A) Recurrent pulling of one’s own hair, leading to noticeable hair loss and repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair-pulling B) Significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning C) The hair-pulling is not due to a medical condition or another mental disorder D) All of the above
D) All of the above
38
Evidence suggests that up to _____ per cent of people seeking cosmetic surgery meet criteria for body dysmorphic disorder. A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 30
B) 15
39
Prevalence of trichotillomania is approximately -__ percent, with estimates 10:1 between females and males. A) 1-2 percent B) 1-4 percent C) 2-5 percent D) 3-7 percent
A) 1-2
40
Excoriation disorder is often seen as a comorbid condition in those with: A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) or Trichotillomania B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) or Social Anxiety Disorder C) Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) or Bipolar Disorder D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) or Schizophrenia
A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) or Trichotillomania
41
The lifetime prevalence of excoriation disorder is approximately _______ per cent, with up to 75 per cent of sufferers being female. A) 1.5 percent B) 2-5 percent C) 5-7 percent D) 8-10 percent
A) 1.5 percent
42
This relatively low prevalence figure for excoriation is probably due to the low level of interference in functioning associated with mild cases of the condition. True/False
False (low prevalence is likely due to factors such as underreporting and stigma, or individuals with mild cases might not seek help or be diagnosed)
43
Prior to the DSM-5, obsessive-compulsive disorder was conceptualized as an ________ disorder. A) Anxiety B) Mood C) Psychotic D) Somatoform
A) anxiety
44
Researchers have demonstrated obsessive-compulsive disorder to have one of the most __________ presentations between individuals with the same disorder. diverse predictable similar unusual
diverse
45
It has been suggested that up to _______% of adult sufferers of OCD recall symptom onset before 18 years of age. a) 30% b) 50% c) 60% d) 80%
d) 80%
46
According to the neuropsychological model, OCD results from a failure of inhibitory pathways in the ____. limbic system basal ganglia amygdala prefrontal cortext
basal ganglia
47
The __________ model of OCD remains the only theoretical perspective able to account for the full phenomenology of the disorder.
cognitive
48
In addition to obsessions and compulsions, the other key criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder relate to: Multiple select question. comorbid anxiety disorders medication effectiveness distress negative impacts on functioning
distress negative impacts on functioning
49
The treatment of choice for OCD is: cognitive behaviour therapy danger ideation reduction therapy cognitive therapy psychodynamic therapy
cognitive behaviour therapy
50
Two of the most common compulsions experienced by individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder are _________ and __________.
checking washing
51
Brian has ongoing difficulties with getting rid of possessions, even those that are damaged and useless. His house is overflowing with items, but he cannot cope with the idea of decluttering. Brian would likely be diagnosed with ________ disorder. anxiety hoarding delusional obsessive-compulsive
hoarding
52
According to the authors of the Epidemiology Catchment Study, OCD is the _______ most common psychiatric condition across the world. A) Second B) Fifth C) Fourth D) Third
C) fourth
53
Behavioural _________ are complex sets of behaviours choreographed for specific situations, such as checking.
macros
54
The media extensively documented Michael Jackson's seeming obsession with changing his appearance. If this behaviour was due to perceived defects in appearance, it is possible he was suffering from which disorder? obsessive-compulsive social anxiety body dysmorphic delusional
body dysmorphic
55
Cognitive theorists suggest that __________ may mediate some compulsive behaviours. trauma history insight fear of death fear of fear
fear of death
56
It is suggested that the prevalence of clinically significant hoarding is approximately ___%. 4–8 3–7 2–6 1–5
2–6
57
The medication shown to have the greatest effectiveness in managing OCD is: clozapine valium clomipramine diazepam
clomipramine (tricyclic antidepressant) (only 40–60 per cent of sufferers seem to benefit from medication)
58
It is suggested that OCD is a relatively common disorder, with prevalence rates of approximately: 2–3% 10–11% 5–6% 8–9%
2–3%
59
Males with body dysmorphic disorder are likely to experience distressing thoughts regarding their: Multiple select question. general build weight nose body hair
general build body hair
60
__________ disorder is often seen as a comorbid condition in those with OCD or trichotillomania.
Excoriation
61
To meet criteria for trichotillomania, the individual must have: experienced the disorder before the age of 18 removed virtually all hair from the affected area tried to reduce his/her hair pulling sought treatment
tried to reduce his/her hair pulling
62
Psychological treatments for OCD-related disorders generally include: Multiple select question. cognitive restructuring exposure avoidance safety behaviours
cognitive restructuring exposure
63
It is estimated that up to _______ % of excoriation disorder sufferers are female.
75
64
Females with body dysmorphic disorder are likely to experience unhelpful thoughts about their: Multiple select question. body hair genitals nose weight
nose weight
65
The most common regions targeted by sufferers of trichotillomania are: Multiple select question. leg hair eyelashes head hair pubic hair
eyelashes head hair
66
Medications that increase the availability of the neurotransmitter ________ are widely used in the treatment of OCD-related disorders. serotonin norepinephrine GABA dopamine
serotonin
67
Leo has a pattern of picking his skin until it bleeds and scars. He continues to do this despite distress, and observable lesions. Leo would likely be diagnosed with: body dysmorphic disorder trichotillomania excoriation disorder obsessive compulsive disorder
excoriation disorder
68
Anxiety disorder that may develop after a traumatic experience.
posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
69
PTSD is characterised by the following four symptoms: 1) repeated re-experiencing of the traumatic event; 2) avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma or emotional numbing; 3) negative changes in cognitions and mood; and 4) increased arousal.
70
The DSM-5 classifies PTSD among __________. A) Mood Disorders B) Anxiety Disorders C) Psychotic Disorders D) Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
D) Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders
71
There is strong evidence of a relationship between the greater likelihood of PTSD development as the severity of ___________ increases.
trauma (Common examples of traumatic events associated with PTSD include war, natural disasters, rape, assault, car accidents and terrorism)
72
PTSD comprises four major clusters of symptoms: A) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Negative changes in cognitions and mood, Increased arousal B) Avoidance, Depression, Hypervigilance, Intrusive thoughts C) Re-experiencing, Depression, Hyperarousal, Dissociation D) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Mood swings, Increased arousal
A) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Negative changes in cognitions and mood, Increased arousal
73
The intrusive memories, flashbacks, and nightmares related to the traumatic event and distress when exposed to reminders of the trauma are part of the _____________ symptoms cluster. A) Avoidance B) Re-experiencing C) Negative changes in cognitions and mood D) Increased arousal
B) re-experiencing
74
Which of the following is an example of re-experiencing in PTSD? A) A person avoids driving after a car accident B) A person experiences nightmares and flashbacks about the car accident C) A person feels constantly on edge and has difficulty sleeping D) A person has difficulty feeling positive emotions and experiences persistent negative thoughts
B) A person experiences nightmares and flashbacks about the car accident
75
Avoidance of thoughts and reminders of the trauma are part of the _________ symptoms cluster. A) Re-experiencing B) Increased arousal C) Negative changes in cognitions and mood D) Avoidance
D) Avoidance
76
Which of the following is an example of avoidance in PTSD? A) A person frequently experiences distressing flashbacks related to the trauma B) A person starts avoiding places or situations that remind them of the traumatic event C) A person has difficulty sleeping and experiences heightened alertness D) A person feels numb and disconnected from others, struggling with persistent negative emotions
B) A person starts avoiding places or situations that remind them of the traumatic event
77
Emotional numbing, inability to recall an important aspect of the trauma, exaggerated negative expectations about oneself or the world, excessive blaming of the self or others, and pervasive negative affective states (e.g., fear, anger, guilt and shame) are part of the: A) Re-experiencing symptoms B) Avoidance symptoms C) Increased arousal symptoms D) Negative changes in mood
D) Negative changes in mood
78
Which of the following is an example of negative changes in cognition and mood in PTSD? A) After the traumatic event, Sarah avoids visiting places that remind her of it B) Following the trauma, John experiences persistent fear, anger, and a pervasive sense of guilt or shame C) Mary frequently has nightmares and flashbacks about the trauma D) Tom has heightened alertness and trouble sleeping
B) Following the trauma, John experiences persistent fear, anger, and a pervasive sense of guilt or shame
79
Exaggerated startle response, hypervigilance, sleeping and concentration difficulties, reckless or self-destructive behavior, and anger outbursts are part of the: A) Re-experiencing B) Avoidance C) Negative changes in cognition and mood D) Increased arousal
D) Increased arousal
80
Which of the following is an example of increased arousal symptoms in PTSD? A) Alex avoids places and activities that remind him of the traumatic event B) Emma feels persistent fear, anger, and guilt related to the trauma C) Mike becomes very jumpy, has trouble sleeping, and engages in reckless behavior D) Sophia frequently experiences flashbacks and nightmares about the trauma
C) Mike becomes very jumpy, has trouble sleeping, and engages in reckless behavior
81
To qualify for a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must have been present for at least: A) One week B) One month C) Three months D) Six months
B) One month
82
PTSD is strongly associated with a range of other psychiatric disorders such as: A) Major Depressive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder B) Schizophrenia and Bipolar Disorder C) Eating Disorders and Borderline Personality Disorder D) Autism Spectrum Disorder and Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
A) Major Depressive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder
83
PTSD tends not to be static but rather shifts over time, with individuals potentially transitioning from having PTSD to experiencing: A) Acute Stress Disorder and then PTSD B) Subsyndromal PTSD and even no PTSD C) Complex PTSD and Dissociative Identity Disorder D) Borderline Personality Disorder and Bipolar Disorder
B) Subsyndromal PTSD and even no PTSD ((e.g. 94 per cent of rape victims display sufficient symptoms two weeks after the trauma to meet the criteria for PTSD (excluding the one-month time requirement), this rate dropped to 47 per cent 11 weeks later)
84
Which statistical method is used to map the different trajectories of PTSD symptoms over time after trauma? a) Correlation analysis b) Regression analysis c) Growth modeling d) Factor analysis
growth (statistical technique used to analyze changes over time)
85
Growth modeling statistics found people tend to be either: (a) resilient (b) initially distressed but then gradually recovering (c) worsening over time (d) chronically distressed e) all of the above
e) all of the above (These patterns have been shown repeatedly in survivors of traumatic injury and SARS infection, women diagnosed with breast cancer, those who have experienced disasters or terrorist attacks and in military personnel).
86
Despite overall comparability between children’s and adults’ reactions to PTSD, how can the disorder manifest differently across stages of childhood? a) Preschool children exhibit more cognitive symptoms and greater avoidance than older children. b) Preschool children display fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance compared to older children. c) Preschool children experience similar symptoms to adults, including severe avoidance and intense re-experiencing. d) Older children show fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance than preschool children.
b) Preschool children display fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance compared to older children.
87
Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of developing PTSD? a) Higher intelligence levels and male gender. b) No prior traumatic experiences and high social support after the trauma. c) A history of psychological disturbance, female gender, prior traumatic experiences, and ongoing stressors. d) Decreased severity of traumatic exposure and low interpersonal trauma.
c) A history of psychological disturbance, female gender, prior traumatic experiences, and ongoing stressors.
88
According to cognitive model of PTSD, which of the following maladaptive appraisals or interpretations are central to the perpetuation of PTSD? a) Interpretation of traumatic event (‘I was weak because I did not stop the rape’), b) Individual's response (‘I am worthless because I am not coping better with the assault’), c) Environmental factors (‘I can never feel safe again after the assault’) d) All of the above
d) All of the above (There is much evidence that maladaptive thoughts about the trauma predict the development of the disorder)
89
Which of the following accounts of PTSD involve the application of classical conditioning principles to trauma, where a traumatic event (US) leads to a fear response (UR) and subsequent reminders of the trauma (CS) elicit fear reactions (CR)? a) Cognitive model b) Neurobiological model c) Learning model d) Sociocultural model
C) Learning model
90
Which of the following factors highlight the role of arousal in strengthening the fear conditioning process? a) Cognitive b) Biological c) Sociocultural d) Behavioral
Biological
91
Which of the following processes involves pairing a fear response with factors present at the time of experiencing the fear, such that subsequent exposure to these factors triggers a fear reaction? a) Operant conditioning b) Classical conditioning c) Observational learning d) Fear conditioning
d) Fear conditioning
92
Which of the following best describes how sympathetic arousal at the time of a traumatic event contributes to the development of PTSD? a) It results in the release of dopamine, leading to increased anxiety. b) It leads to the release of stress neurochemicals like noradrenaline and adrenaline, which strengthen the conditioning of fear responses with the associated memories. c) It causes a decrease in memory retention of the traumatic event. d) It suppresses the formation of fear associations by calming the nervous system.
b) It leads to the release of stress neurochemicals like noradrenaline and adrenaline, which strengthen the conditioning of fear responses with the associated memories. (When individuals with PTSD are asked to recall past traumatic events, they consistently produce larger psychophysiological responses, including heart rate and skin conductance, compared to individuals with a similar trauma history without PTSD)
93
Which of the following describes the activation of the sympathetic nervous system responsible for increased heart rate, respiration rate, and blood flow to the organs, allowing people to respond to threats? a) Fight-or-flight response b) Rest-and-digest response c) Homeostatic balance d) Parasympathetic activation
a) Fight-or-flight response
94
1. According to cognitive models, avoidance prevents people from having the opportunity to access corrective information that the perceived threats are no longer realistically dangerous. 2. According to learning processes with their biological bases, avoidance serves to impede the extinction of classically conditioned fear. 3. The combination of predisposing, cognitive, learning and biological factors that theorised to result in the development of PTSD.
95
Which of the following medications is an effective class of drugs for treating PTSD? a) Benzodiazepines b) Antipsychotics c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) d) Antihistamines
c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
96
Class of antidepressant drugs (such as fluoxetine) that inhibit the reuptake of serotonin.
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
97
Which of the following is a component of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for PTSD? a) Psychoeducation b) Anxiety management c) Cognitive restructuring d) Prolonged imaginal exposure e) All of the above
e) All of the above
98
Which of the following is commonly used in exposure treatments for PTSD? a) Only imaginal exposure b) Only in vivo exposure c) Graded exposure to trauma-related stimuli d) All of the above
d) All of the above
99
The duration of CBT for PTSD is typically: a) 5-10 sessions b) 9-12 sessions c) 20-30 sessions d) 30-40 sessions
b) 9-12 sessions
100
Individuals diagnosed with acute stress disorder are at higher risk for developing PTSD later. True/False
True
101
Across most trials of treating PTSD, nearly _____ percent of patients either drop out of treatment or do not respond. a) 10 b) 20 c) 40 d) 50
d) 50
102
Behavioural technique in which the client confronts the feared stimuli that s/he has avoided until his/her anxiety reduces; there are various types of exposure such as in vivo versus imaginal. a) Cognitive restructuring b) Exposure therapy c) Systematic desensitization d) Behavioural activation
b) Exposure therapy (found beneficial for child sexual abuse and adults following civilian trauma)
103
The process of extinction involves neural plasticity in the basolateral nucleus of the amygdala, and it is strongly reliant on NMDA receptors, which are a type of glutamate receptor. a) True b) False
a) True
104
Chris's daughter nearly died at birth, and had to undergo multiple surgeries to survive. Ever since then, Chris has avoided hospitals even when sick himself. Chris is demonstrating which symptoms associated with PTSD? re-experiencing avoidance negative mood and cognition alterations in arousal
avoidance
105
Researchers suggest that _________ are more likely to be exposed to trauma than ________. males; females children; women females; males children; men
males; females
106
It has been reported that up to ______% of individuals with PTSD will also meet criteria for major depression. 43 31 25 59
59
107
The higher rates of PTSD in women have led to the suggestion that being __________ is a risk for the development of PTSD.
female
108
Ever since his car accident, Philip has been emotionally numb—not just to reminders of the accident. Philip is demonstrating which feature of PTSD? negative changes in mood altered arousal levels re-experiencing symptoms avoidance
negative changes in mood
109
According to cognitive models of PTSD, which of the following is pivotal in perpetuating a sense of threat? positive self-talk negative appraisals self-efficacy access to support
negative appraisals
110
Despite the frequency of exposure to potentially traumatising events, few people: remember the traumatic event report distress develop PTSD are able to cope without intervention
develop PTSD
111
When people with PTSD recall past traumatic events, they demonstrate higher _________ and ___________ compared to individuals with a similar trauma history who have not developed PTSD. Multiple select question. accuracy of recall skin conductance processing of information increased heart rate
skin conductance increased heart rate
112
According to learning accounts of the aetiology of PTSD, fear is the: unconditioned stimulus unconditioned response conditioned stimulus conditioned response
unconditioned response
113
According to learning accounts of PTSD, reminders of the trauma act as: conditioned responses conditioned stimuli unconditioned stimuli unconditioned responses
conditioned stimuli
114
Which of the following disorders is most likely to be comorbidly diagnosed with PTSD? drug use disorder alcohol use disorder Major depression panic disorder
Major depression
115
Which of the following factors have been associated with an increased risk of developing PTSD following trauma? Multiple select question. being female prior trauma exposure minimal post-trauma stressors higher intelligence
being female prior trauma exposure
116
There is substantial evidence that ______ about the trauma predict the development of PTSD adaptive behaviours maladaptive actions adaptive processing maladaptive thoughts
maladaptive thoughts
117
Avoidance impedes the ___________ of classically conditioned fear.
extinction
118
Which of the following features of CBT for PTSD comprises providing information about the nature of the disorder, and validating distress in response to trauma? cognitive restructuring psychoeducation in vivo exposure relapse prevention
psychoeducation
119
Overactivation of which bodily system has been implicated in the development of PTSD? parasympathetic nervous system sympathetic nervous system central nervous system endocrine system
sympathetic nervous system
120
It is estimated that individuals with PTSD are almost ____ times more likely to develop major depression that those without PTSD. 2 10 5 7
10
121
There is a positive correlation between the experience of acute stress disorder and the later development of _______.
PTSD
122
Previous __________ increases the risk of developing PTSD in response to trauma exposure.
psychopathology
123
Avoidance prevents access to corrective information that ____________ threats are no longer realistically dangerous.
percived
124
CBT for PTSD is also referred to as ________- _______CBT.
trauma focused
125
Which stress neurochemicals are released into the cortex during extreme sympathetic arousal? Multiple select question. adrenaline noradrenaline GABA dopamine
adrenaline noradrenaline
126
A key difference between the use of debriefing and CBT to treat PTSD is: Multiple select question. the degree to which exposure is used to overcome symptoms debriefing is an early-intervention approach, whereas CBT is not CBT can be implemented only by clinical psychologists, whereas debriefing can be implemented by other professionals the amount of time elapsed before commencing intervention
the degree to which exposure is used to overcome symptoms the amount of time elapsed before commencing intervention
127
_________ tolerance skills can assist in retaining participants in the exposure component of trauma-focused CBT.
Distress
128
The role of avoidance in maintaining PTSD is recognised within which models describing the aetiology of the disorder? Multiple select question. biological social learning cognitive
biological learning cognitive
129
It is proposed that the release of stress neurochemicals into the cortex results in strong fear ____________ in people with PTSD.
conditioning
130
CBT-based interventions for PTSD typically span _________ sessions. 6–10 9–12 12–15 15–18
9–12
131
The process of extinction is highly reliant on ______ receptors.
NDMA
132
Due to questions regarding the generalisability of results from clinical trials, the efficacy of CBT for PTSD in ___________ settings remains unclear.
community
133
Extinction involves neural plasticity of structures in the: caudate pre-frontal cortex amygdala hippocampus
amygdala
134
NDMA agonists have been shown to enhance __________ when administered to PTSD sufferers prior to CBT sessions.
extinction
135
One of the biggest challenges in assessing the efficacy of treatments for PTSD is: the high drop-out rate of participants comparing the efficacy of markedly different treatment approaches the difficulty in obtaining ethics approval to conduct research with this population finding sufficient numbers of people who are suffering from the disorder
the high drop-out rate of participants
136
Which obsessive-compulsive disorder is reported to be associated with a substantial risk to health and safety? a. excessive concern about the appearance b. compulsive checking c. hoarding d. hand washing e. obsessional thoughts
c. hoarding
137
In the DSM-5, OCD is now grouped with related disorders. Which of the following is not a related disorder? a. body dysmorphic disorder b. hoarding disorder c. generalised anxiety and worry disorder d. trichotillomania e. excoriation (skin picking)
c. generalised anxiety and worry disorder
138
Research supports the view that obsessional thoughts experienced by OCD sufferers are no different from those experienced by the general population. However, in OCD sufferers: a. the obsessional thoughts are very negative. b. the obsessional thoughts are very aggressive and/or sexual in nature. c. the obsessional thoughts are awarded a special significance. d. the obsessional thoughts arise 'out of the blue'. e. None of the options listed is correct.
c. the obsessional thoughts are awarded a special significance.
139
Which of these is not a common task in cognitive-behavioural treatment of OCD a. exposure b. behavioural experiments c. confronting patients with germs and disease d. challenging irrational beliefs e. psychoeducation
c. confronting patients with germs and disease (While confronting patients with germs and disease can be part of exposure therapy for those with contamination fears, it is not a general or standard task across all types of OCD treatment. Instead, exposure is typically tailored to the individual's specific fears and compulsions)
140
According to the DSM-5, the presence of OCD is diagnosed using which criteria? a. Obsessions and compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning. b. Obsessions or compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning. c. Obsessions, compulsions, poor insight, history of a tic disorder and distress that interfere with social and occupational functioning. d. Obsessions and/or compulsions that cause distress, are time-consuming, interfere with social and occupational functioning and are not attributed to a substance, medical condition or other disorder. e. Obsessions and/or compulsions that are not a product of the person’s own mind and that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning.
d. Obsessions and/or compulsions that cause distress, are time-consuming, interfere with social and occupational functioning and are not attributed to a substance, medical condition or other disorder.
141
Which of the following options is an accurate description of the symptoms following trauma? a. It is common to experience PTSD-like symptoms in the initial weeks after trauma exposure. b. It is common to experience PTSD symptoms on and off for six months. c. It is common to have a diagnosis of PTSD in the first two weeks, but less common after two weeks. d. It is common to develop symptoms of PTSD in the immediate aftermath, but only after interpersonal trauma. e. None of the given options is correct.
a. It is common to experience PTSD-like symptoms in the initial weeks after trauma exposure.
142
According to Australian research, what is a common element of obsession in individuals with OCD in the Australian population? a. Being contaminated by germs. b. Fire, robbery or being assaulted. c. Acting on an impulse such as stabbing a friend. d. All of the listed options are correct. e. Losing one’s mind.
d. All of the listed options are correct.
143
If John spends eight hours a day checking that electrical appliances in his house are switched off, he is: a. showing poor insight into his behaviour. b. being obsessive. c. being overly cautious. d. distracting himself from unwanted impulses. e. being compulsive.
e. being compulsive.
144
In the current refugee crisis, there are 65 million refugees and internally displaced peoples. Regarding PTSD treatment, this event has highlighted: a. that the diagnosis of PTSD needs to be broadened. b. that NDMA agonists are promising in treating large groups of people at one time. c. the lack of resources to disseminate evidence-based treatments to a large number of people. d. that PTSD differs between cultures. e. All of the given options are correct.
c. the lack of resources to disseminate evidence-based treatments to a large number of people
145
Which of the following options is not an example of a re-experiencing symptom of PTSD? a. intrusive memories b. flashbacks c. nightmares d. avoidance e. reliving the event
d. avoidance
146
Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing PTSD after exposure to a trauma? a. a history of psychological problems pre-dating the trauma b. male gender c. ongoing stressors after the trauma d. low social support after the trauma e. more severe trauma
b. male gender
147
Based on research evidence, which of the following is more likely to result in PTSD? a. war-related trauma b. natural disasters c. interpersonal trauma d. sudden accidents e. None of the given options is correct.
c. interpersonal trauma (Interpersonal trauma, such as physical or sexual abuse, domestic violence, or other forms of direct violence inflicted by another person, tends to be associated with a higher risk of developing PTSD compared to other types of trauma. This increased risk is often due to the relational and personal nature of the trauma, which can deeply affect an individual's sense of safety and trust.)
148
Studies have shown that the normative response following trauma is to: a. develop PTSD. b. adapt to the experience. c. develop acute stress disorder in the initial days following the event. d. exhibit traumatic stress for longer than one month. e. experience nightmares and shock for up to two weeks following the event.
b. adapt to the experience.
149
Which of the following is not a core feature of posttraumatic stress disorder? a. prolonged signs of grief b. avoidance of stimuli related to the trauma c. symptoms of re-experiencing the trauma d. increased arousal e. exaggerated startle response
a. prolonged signs of grief