Week 3 - OCD and related disorders/trauma and stress related disorders

Question 1

Anxiety disorder characterised by obsessions and/or compulsions.

Answer 1

obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD)

Question 2

According to the DSM-5, is Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) listed as part of the anxiety disorders or as a separate disorder?

A) Part of the anxiety disorders
B) A separate disorder, but adjacent to anxiety disorders
C) As a subtype of Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) As a mood disorder

Answer 2

B) A separate disorder, but adjacent to anxiety disorders

(to reflect close relationship with each other)

Question 3

4 diagnostic criteria for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder:
1.obsessions and compulsions
2. marked distress (for MORE THAN ONE HOUR A DAY difficulty functioning)
3. symptoms are not
attributable to a substance (drugs, meds)
4. content of obsessions or compulsions cannot
be restricted to another disorder that is present (E.g. excessive concern about appearance in
an individual with body dysmorphic disorder would not warrant the additional diagnosis of OCD)

Question 4

Which of the following are additional criteria for diagnosing Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

1. Good or fair insight: Recognizing OCD beliefs are probably not true
2. Poor insight: Believing OCD beliefs are probably true
3. Absent insight (delusional beliefs): Being completely convinced OCD beliefs are true
4. Current or past history of tic disorder

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) All of the above

Answer 4

D) All of the above

Question 5

The inclusion of an ‘absent insight’ specifier in OCD diagnosis:

A) Helps differentiate OCD from mood disorders
B) Simplifies the diagnosis of OCD
C) Makes the distinction between OCD and psychotic conditions more difficult
D) Clarifies the presence of tics in OCD

Answer 5

C) Makes the distinction between OCD and psychotic conditions more difficult

Question 6

Which of the following correctly defines obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?

A) Persistent and uncontrollable thoughts, images, ideas, or impulses that cause significant anxiety or distress, and the person recognizes these come from their own mind and actively tries to ignore them.
B) Excessive worries about real-life problems that are manageable and controllable.
C) Temporary thoughts that are easily dismissed and not associated with significant anxiety.
D) Ordinary concerns that do not intrude upon consciousness.

Answer 6

A) Persistent and uncontrollable thoughts, images, ideas, or impulses that cause significant anxiety or distress, and the person recognizes these come from their own mind and ACTIVLY TRIES TO IGNORE.

Question 7

Repetitive behaviours or mental acts that an individual feels s/he must perform.

Answer 7

compulsions

Question 8

According to the APA, why is OCD separated from anxiety disorders and grouped with body dysmorphic and hoarding disorders?

A) To reflect commonalities in diagnostic features and treatment approaches
B) To simplify the treatment process
C) To differentiate between OCD and mood disorders
D) To integrate OCD into a new anxiety disorder category

Answer 8

A) To reflect commonalities in diagnostic features and treatment approaches

Question 9

Despite a good description of OCD, what does the DSM-5 fail to indicate?

A) The severity of symptoms in OCD
B) The breadth of possible presentations and the wide variation in obsessions
C) The effectiveness of different treatments
D) The historical context of OCD diagnosis

Answer 9

B) The breadth of possible presentations and the wide variation in obsessions

(more than any other psychiatric condition, OCD varies considerably from case to case with an endless list of objects to become obsessed about).

Question 10

In addition to washing/cleaning, what is another common feature of OCD?

A) Compulsive checking
B) Excessive worry about real-life problems
C) Frequent mood swings
D) Avoidance of social interactions

Answer 10

A) Compulsive checking

Question 11

OCD is a relatively common disorder, with a prevalence rate in the ___ - ___ per cent range, with an average age of onset of _____ years, and it usually remains throughout a lifetime.

A) 1 - 3 per cent; 20 years
B) 2 - 3 per cent; 10.3 years
C) 3 - 5 per cent; 25 years
D) 4 - 6 per cent; 30 years

Answer 11

B) 2 - 3 per cent; 10.3 years

Question 12

The aetiology of OCD is supported by two strong models: the _____________ and ___________.

A) Behavioral and biological
B) Neuropsychological and cognitive
C) Environmental and genetic
D) Developmental and psychoanalytic

Answer 12

B) neuropsychological
and cognitive

Question 13

The Neuropsychological model suggests that OCD results from a failure of inhibitory pathways in the ___________ ganglia of the brain to stop behaviors triggered by stimuli (behavioural macros)

A) Basal
B) Limbic
C) Temporal
D) Cerebellar

Answer 13

A) Basal

(behavioural macros = behaviours triggered in response to internal or external stimuli)

Question 14

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral macro in OCD?

A) Repeatedly checking if the door is locked
B) Following a specific routine for hand washing due to fear of contamination
C) Avoiding social interactions due to shyness
D) Having frequent mood swings without specific triggers

Answer 14

B) Following a specific routine for hand washing due to fear of contamination

(behaviour triggered after touching a door knob for example)

Question 15

Group of large nuclei in the forebrain; involved in the control of
motor behaviour and may be relevant to obsessive/compulsive disorder.

Answer 15

basal ganglia

Question 16

The Salkovskis _________ model emphasizes that OCD results from the misinterpretation of intrusive thoughts.

A) Behavioral
B) Neuropsychological
C) Cognitive
D) Developmental

Answer 16

C) cognitive

Question 17

The cognitive model of OCD is supported by the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral approaches to treatment that are based on the ___________ model.

A) Behavioral
B) Neuropsychological
C) Cognitive
D) Developmental

Answer 17

C) Cognitive

Question 18

According to the correlational study by Jones and Menzies, what did the researchers find regarding threat appraisals in OCD?

A) Threat appraisals have a causal role in compulsive washing
B) Threat appraisals trigger compulsive washing and related symptoms but no causal role has been established
C) Threat appraisals are unrelated to compulsive behaviors
D) Threat appraisals only affect avoidance behaviors, not compulsive washing

Answer 18

B) Threat appraisals trigger compulsive washing and related symptoms but no causal role has been established

(individuals with OCD might interpret an everyday situation, like touching a doorknob, as highly threatening. This negative appraisal can trigger compulsive behaviors, such as excessive hand washing, to alleviate anxiety and avoid perceived contamination. However, the study did not establish a causal link between these threat appraisals and the compulsive behaviors, only showing a correlation between the two)

Question 19

Common treatments for OCD include:

1. CBT
   Exposure and response prevention
   Behavioral experiment
   Cognitive restructuring
2. Pharmacotherapy

Question 20

Which treatment is used in about 75% of OCD cases?

A) Pharmacotherapy
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
C) Psychoanalysis
D) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

Answer 20

B) cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT)

Question 21

What is the name of the behavioral technique where the client is exposed to feared stimuli and prevented from using any responses aimed at escaping their anxiety?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Exposure and response prevention
C) Behavioral experiment
D) Mindfulness training

Answer 21

B) exposure and response
prevention

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) in treating OCD?

A) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and then immediately washes their hands.
B) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and is prevented from washing their hands, allowing them to face their anxiety.
C) A person with OCD avoids touching any doorknobs to prevent anxiety.
D) A person with OCD reads about the risks of contamination without any behavioral exposure.

Answer 22

B) A person with OCD touches a dirty doorknob and is prevented from washing their hands, allowing them to face their anxiety.

Question 23

What is the cognitive technique where a client participates in a planned activity to test the accuracy of their beliefs?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Behavioral experiment
C) Thought record
D) Mindfulness training

Answer 23

B) behavioural experiment

Question 24

Which of the following is an example of a behavioral experiment?

A) A person with social anxiety gives a speech to a small group to test if their fear of being ridiculed is accurate.
B) A person writes down their thoughts about public speaking and challenges them with positive statements.
C) A person practices mindfulness to manage anxiety about public speaking.
D) A person avoids public speaking entirely to prevent anxiety.

Answer 24

A) A person with social anxiety gives a speech to a small group to test if their fear of being ridiculed is accurate.

Question 25

Which cognitive technique involves learning to identify, challenge, and replace dysfunctional beliefs with more realistic or helpful ones?

A) Cognitive restructuring
B) Behavioral experiment
C) Exposure therapy
D) Thought stopping

Answer 25

C) cognitive restructuring

Question 26

Which of the following is an example of cognitive restructuring?

A) A person with OCD believes they must check the door five times to prevent something terrible from happening. After therapy, they learn to replace this belief with, “One thorough check is usually enough.”
B) A person with social anxiety avoids public speaking entirely to prevent embarrassment.
C) A person with OCD performs a behavioral experiment by touching a dirty doorknob and observing the outcome.
D) A person practices mindfulness to observe their thoughts without judgment.

Answer 26

A) A person with OCD believes they must check the door five times to prevent something terrible from happening. After therapy, they learn to replace this belief with, “One thorough check is usually enough.”

Question 27

What is Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT), developed by Jones and Menzies for compulsive washers?

A) A technique for exposure and response prevention to reduce compulsions
B) A therapy focusing on psychoeducation about disease and immune function, and using cognitive strategies to lower risk estimates of illness
C) A cognitive technique for restructuring negative beliefs
D) A method for managing social anxiety through group therapy

Answer 27

B) A therapy focusing on psychoeducation about disease and immune function, and using cognitive strategies to lower risk estimates of illness

Question 28

Which of the following is an example of Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT) for compulsive washers?

A) A therapist educates a patient on the actual minimal risk of illness from everyday objects and helps them challenge their exaggerated fears about contamination.
B) A patient is exposed to feared contaminants and prevented from engaging in handwashing rituals.
C) A patient participates in cognitive restructuring to challenge negative beliefs about public speaking.
D) A patient practices mindfulness to reduce overall anxiety.

Answer 28

A) A therapist educates a patient on the actual minimal risk of illness from everyday objects and helps them challenge their exaggerated fears about contamination.

Question 29

Which of the following statements about Danger Ideation Reduction Therapy (DIRT) is true?

A) DIRT is typically used as a first-line treatment for OCD and is ineffective for individuals who do not respond to exposure and response prevention.
B) DIRT has been found helpful for individuals who have not benefited from exposure and response prevention and medication and can result in rapid recovery, sometimes in as few as 8 one-hour sessions.
C) DIRT focuses solely on medication management and has no role in cognitive or behavioral therapy.
D) DIRT is most effective for individuals with social anxiety rather than compulsive washing.

Answer 29

B) DIRT has been found helpful for individuals who have not benefited from exposure and response prevention and medication and can result in rapid recovery, sometimes in as few as 8 one-hour sessions.

Question 30

In addition to its original design to address washing, the DIRT program has been extended to address compulsive __________.

A) Checking
B) Hoarding
C) Counting
D) Avoidance

Answer 30

A) checking

Question 31

Persistent difficulty in discarding
possessions, with a high level of distress associated with removing the items.

Answer 31

hoarding disorder

Question 32

The point prevalence of body dysmorphic disorder is estimated at approximately _____% with similar numbers of male and female sufferers.

Answer 32

2.5

Question 33

Condition that involves recurrent skin picking, commonly affecting the hands, face, and arms, is known as:

A) Trichotillomania
B) Dermatitis
C) Excoriation Disorder
D) Psoriasis

Answer 33

C) excoriation disorder

Question 34

Prevalence of hoarding disorder is -_ percent with slightly more ______ than ______.

A) 2-6 percent; women than men
B) 1-4 percent; men than women
C) 3-5 percent; women than men
D) 5-8 percent; men than women

Answer 34

A) 2-6 percent; women than men

Question 35

Disorder involving obsessive concern regarding a part of the body the individual believes is defective.

Answer 35

body dysmorphic disorder

Question 36

Condition that involves the recurrent pulling out of one’s own hair is known as:

A) Trichotillomania
B) Excoriation Disorder
C) Dermatitis
D) Psoriasis

Answer 36

A) Trichotillomania

Question 37

Which of the following are criteria for diagnosing trichotillomania according to the DSM-5?

A) Recurrent pulling of one’s own hair, leading to noticeable hair loss and repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair-pulling
B) Significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
C) The hair-pulling is not due to a medical condition or another mental disorder
D) All of the above

Answer 37

D) All of the above

Question 38

Evidence suggests that up to _____ per cent of people seeking
cosmetic surgery meet criteria for body dysmorphic disorder.

A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 30

Answer 38

B) 15

Question 39

Prevalence of trichotillomania is approximately -__ percent, with estimates 10:1 between females and males.

A) 1-2 percent
B) 1-4 percent
C) 2-5 percent
D) 3-7 percent

Answer 39

A) 1-2

Question 40

Excoriation disorder is often seen as a comorbid condition in those with:

A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) or Trichotillomania
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) or Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) or Bipolar Disorder
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) or Schizophrenia

Answer 40

A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) or Trichotillomania

Question 41

The lifetime prevalence of excoriation disorder is approximately _______ per cent, with up to 75 per cent of sufferers being female.

A) 1.5 percent
B) 2-5 percent
C) 5-7 percent
D) 8-10 percent

Answer 41

A) 1.5 percent

Question 42

This relatively low prevalence figure for excoriation is probably due to the low level of interference in functioning associated with mild cases of the condition.

True/False

Answer 42

False

(low prevalence is likely due to factors such as underreporting and stigma, or individuals with mild cases might not seek help or be diagnosed)

Question 43

Prior to the DSM-5, obsessive-compulsive disorder was conceptualized as an ________ disorder.

A) Anxiety
B) Mood
C) Psychotic
D) Somatoform

Answer 43

A) anxiety

Question 44

Researchers have demonstrated obsessive-compulsive disorder to have one of the most __________ presentations between individuals with the same disorder.

diverse
predictable
similar
unusual

Answer 44

diverse

Question 45

It has been suggested that up to _______% of adult sufferers of OCD recall symptom onset before 18 years of age.

a) 30%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 80%

Answer 45

d) 80%

Question 46

According to the neuropsychological model, OCD results from a failure of inhibitory pathways in the ____.

limbic system
basal ganglia
amygdala
prefrontal cortext

Answer 46

basal ganglia

Question 47

The __________ model of OCD remains the only theoretical perspective able to account for the full phenomenology of the disorder.

Answer 47

cognitive

Question 48

In addition to obsessions and compulsions, the other key criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder relate to:

Multiple select question.

comorbid anxiety disorders

medication effectiveness

distress

negative impacts on functioning

Answer 48

distress

negative impacts on functioning

Question 49

The treatment of choice for OCD is:

cognitive behaviour therapy

danger ideation reduction therapy

cognitive therapy

psychodynamic therapy

Answer 49

cognitive behaviour therapy

Question 50

Two of the most common compulsions experienced by individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder are _________
and __________.

Answer 50

checking
washing

Question 51

Brian has ongoing difficulties with getting rid of possessions, even those that are damaged and useless. His house is overflowing with items, but he cannot cope with the idea of decluttering. Brian would likely be diagnosed with ________ disorder.

anxiety
hoarding
delusional
obsessive-compulsive

Answer 51

hoarding

Question 52

According to the authors of the Epidemiology Catchment Study, OCD is the _______ most common psychiatric condition across the world.

A) Second
B) Fifth
C) Fourth
D) Third

Answer 52

C) fourth

Question 53

Behavioural _________ are complex sets of behaviours choreographed for specific situations, such as checking.

Answer 53

macros

Question 54

The media extensively documented Michael Jackson’s seeming obsession with changing his appearance. If this behaviour was due to perceived defects in appearance, it is possible he was suffering from which disorder?

obsessive-compulsive
social anxiety
body dysmorphic
delusional

Answer 54

body dysmorphic

Question 55

Cognitive theorists suggest that __________ may mediate some compulsive behaviours.

trauma history
insight
fear of death
fear of fear

Answer 55

fear of death

Question 56

It is suggested that the prevalence of clinically significant hoarding is approximately ___%.

4–8
3–7
2–6
1–5

Answer 56

2–6

Question 57

The medication shown to have the greatest effectiveness in managing OCD is:

clozapine
valium
clomipramine
diazepam

Answer 57

clomipramine (tricyclic antidepressant)

(only 40–60 per cent of sufferers seem to benefit from medication)

Question 58

It is suggested that OCD is a relatively common disorder, with prevalence rates of approximately:

2–3%
10–11%
5–6%
8–9%

Answer 58

2–3%

Question 59

Males with body dysmorphic disorder are likely to experience distressing thoughts regarding their:

Multiple select question.

general build
weight
nose
body hair

Answer 59

general build
body hair

Question 60

__________ disorder is often seen as a comorbid condition in those with OCD or trichotillomania.

Answer 60

Excoriation

Question 61

To meet criteria for trichotillomania, the individual must have:

experienced the disorder before the age of 18

removed virtually all hair from the affected area

tried to reduce his/her hair pulling

sought treatment

Answer 61

tried to reduce his/her hair pulling

Question 62

Psychological treatments for OCD-related disorders generally include:

Multiple select question.

cognitive restructuring
exposure
avoidance
safety behaviours

Answer 62

cognitive restructuring
exposure

Question 63

It is estimated that up to
_______ % of excoriation disorder sufferers are female.

Answer 63

75

Question 64

Females with body dysmorphic disorder are likely to experience unhelpful thoughts about their:

Multiple select question.

body hair
genitals
nose
weight

Answer 64

nose
weight

Question 65

The most common regions targeted by sufferers of trichotillomania are:

Multiple select question.

leg hair
eyelashes
head hair
pubic hair

Answer 65

eyelashes
head hair

Question 66

Medications that increase the availability of the neurotransmitter ________ are widely used in the treatment of OCD-related disorders.

serotonin
norepinephrine
GABA
dopamine

Answer 66

serotonin

Question 67

Leo has a pattern of picking his skin until it bleeds and scars. He continues to do this despite distress, and observable lesions. Leo would likely be diagnosed with:

body dysmorphic disorder

trichotillomania

excoriation disorder

obsessive compulsive disorder

Answer 67

excoriation disorder

Question 68

Anxiety disorder that may develop after a traumatic experience.

Answer 68

posttraumatic stress
disorder
(PTSD)

Question 69

PTSD is characterised by the following four symptoms:
1) repeated re-experiencing of the traumatic event;
2) avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma or emotional numbing;
3) negative changes in cognitions and mood; and
4) increased arousal.

Question 70

The DSM-5 classifies PTSD among __________.

A) Mood Disorders
B) Anxiety Disorders
C) Psychotic Disorders
D) Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders

Answer 70

D) Trauma- and Stressor-Related Disorders

Question 71

There is strong evidence of a relationship
between the greater likelihood of PTSD development as the severity of ___________ increases.

Answer 71

trauma
(Common examples of traumatic events associated with PTSD include war, natural disasters, rape, assault, car accidents and terrorism)

Question 72

PTSD comprises four major clusters of symptoms:

A) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Negative changes in cognitions and mood, Increased arousal
B) Avoidance, Depression, Hypervigilance, Intrusive thoughts
C) Re-experiencing, Depression, Hyperarousal, Dissociation
D) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Mood swings, Increased arousal

Answer 72

A) Re-experiencing, Avoidance, Negative changes in cognitions and mood, Increased arousal

Question 73

The intrusive memories, flashbacks, and nightmares related to the traumatic event and distress when exposed to reminders of the trauma are part of the _____________ symptoms cluster.

A) Avoidance
B) Re-experiencing
C) Negative changes in cognitions and mood
D) Increased arousal

Answer 73

B) re-experiencing

Question 74

Which of the following is an example of re-experiencing in PTSD?

A) A person avoids driving after a car accident
B) A person experiences nightmares and flashbacks about the car accident
C) A person feels constantly on edge and has difficulty sleeping
D) A person has difficulty feeling positive emotions and experiences persistent negative thoughts

Answer 74

B) A person experiences nightmares and flashbacks about the car accident

Question 75

Avoidance of thoughts and reminders of the trauma are part of the _________ symptoms cluster.

A) Re-experiencing
B) Increased arousal
C) Negative changes in cognitions and mood
D) Avoidance

Answer 75

D) Avoidance

Question 76

Which of the following is an example of avoidance in PTSD?

A) A person frequently experiences distressing flashbacks related to the trauma
B) A person starts avoiding places or situations that remind them of the traumatic event
C) A person has difficulty sleeping and experiences heightened alertness
D) A person feels numb and disconnected from others, struggling with persistent negative emotions

Answer 76

B) A person starts avoiding places or situations that remind them of the traumatic event

Question 77

Emotional numbing, inability to recall an important aspect of the trauma, exaggerated negative expectations about oneself or the world, excessive blaming of the self or others, and pervasive negative affective states (e.g., fear, anger, guilt and shame) are part of the:

A) Re-experiencing symptoms
B) Avoidance symptoms
C) Increased arousal symptoms
D) Negative changes in mood

Answer 77

D) Negative changes in mood

Question 78

Which of the following is an example of negative changes in cognition and mood in PTSD?

A) After the traumatic event, Sarah avoids visiting places that remind her of it
B) Following the trauma, John experiences persistent fear, anger, and a pervasive sense of guilt or shame
C) Mary frequently has nightmares and flashbacks about the trauma
D) Tom has heightened alertness and trouble sleeping

Answer 78

B) Following the trauma, John experiences persistent fear, anger, and a pervasive sense of guilt or shame

Question 79

Exaggerated startle response, hypervigilance, sleeping and concentration difficulties, reckless or self-destructive behavior, and anger outbursts are part of the:

A) Re-experiencing
B) Avoidance
C) Negative changes in cognition and mood
D) Increased arousal

Answer 79

D) Increased arousal

Question 80

Which of the following is an example of increased arousal symptoms in PTSD?

A) Alex avoids places and activities that remind him of the traumatic event
B) Emma feels persistent fear, anger, and guilt related to the trauma
C) Mike becomes very jumpy, has trouble sleeping, and engages in reckless behavior
D) Sophia frequently experiences flashbacks and nightmares about the trauma

Answer 80

C) Mike becomes very jumpy, has trouble sleeping, and engages in reckless behavior

Question 81

To qualify for a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must have been present for at least:

A) One week
B) One month
C) Three months
D) Six months

Answer 81

B) One month

Question 82

PTSD is strongly associated with a range of other psychiatric disorders such as:

A) Major Depressive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Schizophrenia and Bipolar Disorder
C) Eating Disorders and Borderline Personality Disorder
D) Autism Spectrum Disorder and Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

Answer 82

A) Major Depressive Disorder and Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Question 83

PTSD tends not to be static but rather shifts over time, with individuals potentially transitioning from having PTSD to experiencing:

A) Acute Stress Disorder and then PTSD
B) Subsyndromal PTSD and even no PTSD
C) Complex PTSD and Dissociative Identity Disorder
D) Borderline Personality Disorder and Bipolar Disorder

Answer 83

B) Subsyndromal PTSD and even no PTSD

((e.g. 94 per cent of rape victims display sufficient symptoms two weeks after the trauma to meet the criteria for PTSD (excluding
the one-month time requirement), this rate dropped to 47 per cent 11 weeks later)

Question 84

Which statistical method is used to map the different trajectories of PTSD symptoms over time after trauma?

a) Correlation analysis
b) Regression analysis
c) Growth modeling
d) Factor analysis

Answer 84

growth

(statistical technique used to analyze changes over time)

Question 85

Growth modeling statistics found people tend to be either:

(a) resilient
(b) initially distressed but then gradually recovering
(c) worsening over time
(d) chronically distressed
e) all of the above

Answer 85

e) all of the above

(These patterns have been shown repeatedly in survivors of traumatic injury and SARS infection, women diagnosed with breast cancer, those who have experienced disasters or terrorist
attacks and in military personnel).

Question 86

Despite overall comparability between children’s and adults’ reactions to PTSD, how can the disorder manifest differently across stages of childhood?

a) Preschool children exhibit more cognitive symptoms and greater avoidance than older children.

b) Preschool children display fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance compared to older children.

c) Preschool children experience similar symptoms to adults, including severe avoidance and intense re-experiencing.

d) Older children show fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance than preschool children.

Answer 86

b) Preschool children display fewer cognitive symptoms and less avoidance compared to older children.

Question 87

Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of developing PTSD?

a) Higher intelligence levels and male gender.

b) No prior traumatic experiences and high social support after the trauma.

c) A history of psychological disturbance, female gender, prior traumatic experiences, and ongoing stressors.

d) Decreased severity of traumatic exposure and low interpersonal trauma.

Answer 87

c) A history of psychological disturbance, female gender, prior traumatic experiences, and ongoing stressors.

Question 88

According to cognitive model of PTSD, which of the following maladaptive appraisals or interpretations are central to the perpetuation of PTSD?

a) Interpretation of traumatic event (‘I was weak because I did not stop the rape’),
b) Individual’s response (‘I am worthless because I am not coping better with the assault’),
c) Environmental factors (‘I can never feel safe again after the assault’)
d) All of the above

Answer 88

d) All of the above

(There is much evidence that maladaptive thoughts about the trauma predict the development of the disorder)

Question 89

Which of the following accounts of PTSD involve the application of classical conditioning principles to trauma, where a traumatic event (US) leads to a fear response (UR) and subsequent reminders of the trauma (CS) elicit fear reactions (CR)?

a) Cognitive model
b) Neurobiological model
c) Learning model
d) Sociocultural model

Answer 89

C) Learning model

Question 90

Which of the following factors highlight the role of arousal in strengthening the fear conditioning process?

a) Cognitive
b) Biological
c) Sociocultural
d) Behavioral

Answer 90

Biological

Question 91

Which of the following processes involves pairing a fear response with factors present at the time of experiencing the fear, such that subsequent exposure to these factors triggers a fear reaction?

a) Operant conditioning
b) Classical conditioning
c) Observational learning
d) Fear conditioning

Answer 91

d) Fear conditioning

Question 92

Which of the following best describes how sympathetic arousal at the time of a traumatic event contributes to the development of PTSD?

a) It results in the release of dopamine, leading to increased anxiety.
b) It leads to the release of stress neurochemicals like noradrenaline and adrenaline, which strengthen the conditioning of fear responses with the associated memories.
c) It causes a decrease in memory retention of the traumatic event.
d) It suppresses the formation of fear associations by calming the nervous system.

Answer 92

b) It leads to the release of stress neurochemicals like noradrenaline and adrenaline, which strengthen the conditioning of fear responses with the associated memories.

(When individuals with PTSD are asked to recall past traumatic events, they consistently produce larger psychophysiological responses, including heart rate and skin conductance,
compared to individuals with a similar trauma history without PTSD)

Question 93

Which of the following describes the activation of the sympathetic nervous system responsible for increased heart rate, respiration rate, and blood flow to the organs, allowing people to respond to threats?

a) Fight-or-flight response
b) Rest-and-digest response
c) Homeostatic balance
d) Parasympathetic activation

Answer 93

a) Fight-or-flight response

Question 94

Answer 94

1. According to cognitive models, avoidance prevents people from having the opportunity to access corrective information that the perceived threats are no longer realistically dangerous.
2. According to learning processes with their biological bases, avoidance serves to impede the extinction of classically conditioned fear.
3. The combination of predisposing, cognitive, learning and biological factors that theorised to result in the development of PTSD.

Question 95

Which of the following medications is an effective class of drugs for treating PTSD?

a) Benzodiazepines
b) Antipsychotics
c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
d) Antihistamines

Answer 95

c) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Question 96

Class of antidepressant drugs (such as fluoxetine) that inhibit the reuptake of serotonin.

Answer 96

selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

Question 97

Which of the following is a component of Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for PTSD?

a) Psychoeducation
b) Anxiety management
c) Cognitive restructuring
d) Prolonged imaginal exposure
e) All of the above

Answer 97

e) All of the above

Question 98

Which of the following is commonly used in exposure treatments for PTSD?

a) Only imaginal exposure
b) Only in vivo exposure
c) Graded exposure to trauma-related stimuli
d) All of the above

Answer 98

d) All of the above

Question 99

The duration of CBT for PTSD is typically:

a) 5-10 sessions
b) 9-12 sessions
c) 20-30 sessions
d) 30-40 sessions

Answer 99

b) 9-12 sessions

Question 100

Individuals diagnosed with acute stress disorder are at higher risk for developing PTSD later.

True/False

Answer 100

True

Question 101

Across most trials of treating PTSD, nearly _____ percent of patients either drop out of treatment or do not respond.

a) 10
b) 20
c) 40
d) 50

Answer 101

d) 50

Question 102

Behavioural technique in which the client confronts the feared stimuli that s/he has avoided until his/her anxiety reduces; there are various types of exposure such as in vivo versus imaginal.

a) Cognitive restructuring
b) Exposure therapy
c) Systematic desensitization
d) Behavioural activation

Answer 102

b) Exposure therapy

(found beneficial for child sexual abuse and adults following civilian trauma)

Question 103

The process of extinction involves neural plasticity in the basolateral nucleus of the amygdala, and it is strongly reliant on NMDA receptors, which are a type of glutamate receptor.

a) True
b) False

Answer 103

a) True

Question 104

Chris’s daughter nearly
died at birth, and had to undergo multiple surgeries to survive. Ever since then, Chris has avoided hospitals even when sick himself. Chris is demonstrating which symptoms associated with PTSD?

re-experiencing
avoidance
negative mood and cognition
alterations in arousal

Answer 104

avoidance

Question 105

Researchers suggest that _________ are more likely to be exposed to trauma than ________.

males; females
children; women
females; males
children; men

Answer 105

males; females

Question 106

It has been reported that up to ______% of individuals with PTSD will also meet criteria for major depression.

43
31
25
59

Answer 106

59

Question 107

The higher rates of PTSD in women have led to the suggestion that being __________
is a risk for the development of PTSD.

Answer 107

female

Question 108

Ever since his car accident, Philip has been emotionally numb—not just to reminders of the accident. Philip is demonstrating which feature of PTSD?

negative changes in mood

altered arousal levels

re-experiencing symptoms

avoidance

Answer 108

negative changes in mood

Question 109

According to cognitive models of PTSD, which of the following is pivotal in perpetuating a sense of threat?

positive self-talk
negative appraisals
self-efficacy
access to support

Answer 109

negative appraisals

Question 110

Despite the frequency of exposure to potentially traumatising events, few people:

remember the traumatic event

report distress

develop PTSD

are able to cope without intervention

Answer 110

develop PTSD

Question 111

When people with PTSD recall past traumatic events, they demonstrate higher _________ and ___________ compared to individuals with a similar trauma history who have not developed PTSD.

Multiple select question.

accuracy of recall

skin conductance

processing of information

increased heart rate

Answer 111

skin conductance
increased heart rate

Question 112

According to learning accounts of the aetiology of PTSD, fear is the:

unconditioned stimulus
unconditioned response
conditioned stimulus
conditioned response

Answer 112

unconditioned response

Question 113

According to learning accounts of PTSD, reminders of the trauma act as:

conditioned responses
conditioned stimuli
unconditioned stimuli
unconditioned responses

Answer 113

conditioned stimuli

Question 114

Which of the following disorders is most likely to be comorbidly diagnosed with PTSD?

drug use disorder
alcohol use disorder
Major depression
panic disorder

Answer 114

Major depression

Question 115

Which of the following factors have been associated with an increased risk of developing PTSD following trauma?

Multiple select question.

being female

prior trauma exposure

minimal post-trauma stressors

higher intelligence

Answer 115

being female

prior trauma exposure

Question 116

There is substantial evidence that ______ about the trauma predict the development of PTSD

adaptive behaviours
maladaptive actions
adaptive processing
maladaptive thoughts

Answer 116

maladaptive thoughts

Question 117

Avoidance impedes the
___________ of classically conditioned fear.

Answer 117

extinction

Question 118

Which of the following features of CBT for PTSD comprises providing information about the nature of the disorder, and validating distress in response to trauma?

cognitive restructuring
psychoeducation
in vivo exposure
relapse prevention

Answer 118

psychoeducation

Question 119

Overactivation of which bodily system has been implicated in the development of PTSD?

parasympathetic nervous system

sympathetic nervous system

central nervous system

endocrine system

Answer 119

sympathetic nervous system

Question 120

It is estimated that individuals with PTSD are almost ____ times more likely to develop major depression that those without PTSD.

2
10
5
7

Answer 120

10

Question 121

There is a positive correlation between the experience of acute stress disorder and the later development of
_______.

Answer 121

PTSD

Question 122

Previous __________
increases the risk of developing PTSD in response to trauma exposure.

Answer 122

psychopathology

Question 123

Avoidance prevents access to corrective information that ____________ threats are no longer realistically dangerous.

Answer 123

percived

Question 124

CBT for PTSD is also referred to as
________- _______CBT.

Answer 124

trauma focused

Question 125

Which stress neurochemicals are released into the cortex during extreme sympathetic arousal?

Multiple select question.

adrenaline
noradrenaline
GABA
dopamine

Answer 125

adrenaline
noradrenaline

Question 126

A key difference between the use of debriefing and CBT to treat PTSD is:

Multiple select question.

the degree to which exposure is used to overcome symptoms

debriefing is an early-intervention approach, whereas CBT is not

CBT can be implemented only by clinical psychologists, whereas debriefing can be implemented by other professionals

the amount of time elapsed before
commencing intervention

Answer 126

the degree to which exposure is used to overcome symptoms

the amount of time elapsed before commencing intervention

Question 127

_________ tolerance skills can assist in retaining participants in the exposure component of trauma-focused CBT.

Answer 127

Distress

Question 128

The role of avoidance in maintaining PTSD is recognised within which models describing the aetiology of the disorder?

Multiple select question.

biological
social
learning
cognitive

Answer 128

biological
learning
cognitive

Question 129

It is proposed that the release of stress neurochemicals into the cortex results in strong fear ____________
in people with PTSD.

Answer 129

conditioning

Question 130

CBT-based interventions for PTSD typically span _________ sessions.

6–10
9–12
12–15
15–18

Answer 130

9–12

Question 131

The process of extinction is highly reliant on ______ receptors.

Answer 131

NDMA

Question 132

Due to questions regarding the generalisability of results from clinical trials, the efficacy of CBT for PTSD in ___________ settings remains unclear.

Answer 132

community

Question 133

Extinction involves neural plasticity of structures in the:

caudate
pre-frontal cortex
amygdala
hippocampus

Answer 133

amygdala

Question 134

NDMA agonists have been shown to enhance __________ when administered to PTSD sufferers prior to CBT sessions.

Answer 134

extinction

Question 135

One of the biggest challenges in assessing the efficacy of treatments for PTSD is:

the high drop-out rate of participants

comparing the efficacy of markedly different treatment approaches

the difficulty in obtaining ethics approval to conduct research with this population

finding sufficient numbers of people who are suffering from the disorder

Answer 135

the high drop-out rate of participants

Question 136

Which obsessive-compulsive disorder is reported to be associated with a substantial risk to health and safety?

a.
excessive concern about the appearance

b.
compulsive checking

c.
hoarding

d.
hand washing

e.
obsessional thoughts

Answer 136

c.
hoarding

Question 137

In the DSM-5, OCD is now grouped with related disorders. Which of the following is not a related disorder?

a.
body dysmorphic disorder

b.
hoarding disorder

c.
generalised anxiety and worry disorder

d.
trichotillomania

e.
excoriation (skin picking)

Answer 137

c.
generalised anxiety and worry disorder

Question 138

Research supports the view that obsessional thoughts experienced by OCD sufferers are no different from those experienced by the general population. However, in OCD sufferers:

a.
the obsessional thoughts are very negative.

b.
the obsessional thoughts are very aggressive and/or sexual in nature.

c.
the obsessional thoughts are awarded a special significance.

d.
the obsessional thoughts arise ‘out of the blue’.

e.
None of the options listed is correct.

Answer 138

c.
the obsessional thoughts are awarded a special significance.

Question 139

Which of these is not a common task in cognitive-behavioural treatment of OCD

a.
exposure

b.
behavioural experiments

c.
confronting patients with germs and disease

d.
challenging irrational beliefs

e.
psychoeducation

Answer 139

c.
confronting patients with germs and disease

(While confronting patients with germs and disease can be part of exposure therapy for those with contamination fears, it is not a general or standard task across all types of OCD treatment. Instead, exposure is typically tailored to the individual’s specific fears and compulsions)

Question 140

According to the DSM-5, the presence of OCD is diagnosed using which criteria?

a.
Obsessions and compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning.

b.
Obsessions or compulsions that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning.

c.
Obsessions, compulsions, poor insight, history of a tic disorder and distress that interfere with social and occupational functioning.

d.
Obsessions and/or compulsions that cause distress, are time-consuming, interfere with social and occupational functioning and are not attributed to a substance, medical condition or other disorder.

e.
Obsessions and/or compulsions that are not a product of the person’s own mind and that cause distress and interfere with social and occupational functioning.

Answer 140

d.
Obsessions and/or compulsions that cause distress, are time-consuming, interfere with social and occupational functioning and are not attributed to a substance, medical condition or other disorder.

Question 141

Which of the following options is an accurate description of the symptoms following trauma?

a.
It is common to experience PTSD-like symptoms in the initial weeks after trauma exposure.

b.
It is common to experience PTSD symptoms on and off for six months.

c.
It is common to have a diagnosis of PTSD in the first two weeks, but less common after two weeks.

d.
It is common to develop symptoms of PTSD in the immediate aftermath, but only after interpersonal trauma.

e.
None of the given options is correct.

Answer 141

a.
It is common to experience PTSD-like symptoms in the initial weeks after trauma exposure.

Question 142

According to Australian research, what is a common element of obsession in individuals with OCD in the Australian population?

a.
Being contaminated by germs.

b.
Fire, robbery or being assaulted.

c.
Acting on an impulse such as stabbing a friend.

d.
All of the listed options are correct.

e.
Losing one’s mind.

Answer 142

d.
All of the listed options are correct.

Question 143

If John spends eight hours a day checking that electrical appliances in his house are switched off, he is:

a.
showing poor insight into his behaviour.

b.
being obsessive.

c.
being overly cautious.

d.
distracting himself from unwanted impulses.

e.
being compulsive.

Answer 143

e.
being compulsive.

Question 144

In the current refugee crisis, there are 65 million refugees and internally displaced peoples. Regarding PTSD treatment, this event has highlighted:

a.
that the diagnosis of PTSD needs to be broadened.

b.
that NDMA agonists are promising in treating large groups of people at one time.

c.
the lack of resources to disseminate evidence-based treatments to a large number of people.

d.
that PTSD differs between cultures.

e.
All of the given options are correct.

Answer 144

c.
the lack of resources to disseminate evidence-based treatments to a large number of people

Question 145

Which of the following options is not an example of a re-experiencing symptom of PTSD?

a.
intrusive memories

b.
flashbacks

c.
nightmares

d.
avoidance

e.
reliving the event

Answer 145

d.
avoidance

Question 146

Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing PTSD after exposure to a trauma?

a.
a history of psychological problems pre-dating the trauma

b.
male gender

c.
ongoing stressors after the trauma

d.
low social support after the trauma

e.
more severe trauma

Answer 146

b.
male gender

Question 147

Based on research evidence, which of the following is more likely to result in PTSD?

a.
war-related trauma

b.
natural disasters

c.
interpersonal trauma

d.
sudden accidents

e.
None of the given options is correct.

Answer 147

c.
interpersonal trauma
(Interpersonal trauma, such as physical or sexual abuse, domestic violence, or other forms of direct violence inflicted by another person, tends to be associated with a higher risk of developing PTSD compared to other types of trauma. This increased risk is often due to the relational and personal nature of the trauma, which can deeply affect an individual’s sense of safety and trust.)

Question 148

Studies have shown that the normative response following trauma is to:

a.
develop PTSD.

b.
adapt to the experience.

c.
develop acute stress disorder in the initial days following the event.

d.
exhibit traumatic stress for longer than one month.

e.
experience nightmares and shock for up to two weeks following the event.

Answer 148

b.
adapt to the experience.

Question 149

Which of the following is not a core feature of posttraumatic stress disorder?
a.
prolonged signs of grief

b.
avoidance of stimuli related to the trauma

c.
symptoms of re-experiencing the trauma

d.
increased arousal

e.
exaggerated startle response

Answer 149

a.
prolonged signs of grief