Week 2 - Anxiety disorders Flashcards
1
Q
________ is the immediate alarm reaction triggered by a perceived danger.
A) Fear
B) Anxiety
C) Stress
D) Panic
A
A) Fear
2
Q
Physiological changes in the human body in response to a perceived threat, including elevated heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension, are known as the:
A) Fight-or-flight response
B) Relaxation response
C) Homeostatic response
D) Stress adaptation response
A
A) Fight-or-flight response
3
Q
True alarm is fear that occurs in response to:
A) A direct and immediate danger, such as the impending attack of a wild animal
B) Long-term stress or ongoing anxiety
C) A general sense of unease or discomfort
D) Chronic worries about future events
A
A) A direct and immediate danger, such as the impending attack of a wild animal
4
Q
__________ alarms trigger the fight-or-flight response in situations that do not represent an immediate physical threat and are a hallmark of anxiety disorders.
A) Acute
B) Chronic
C) False
D) Situational
A
C) False
5
Q
Among Australian adults aged 16–85 years, approximately _______% will experience a mental disorder in their lifetime, with __________ disorders being the most common.
A) 30%, Depressive
B) 45%, Anxiety
C) 50%, Substance Use
D) 25%, Bipolar
A
B) 45%, Anxiety
6
Q
The triple vulnerability model includes:
A) Biological vulnerability, generalized psychological vulnerability, and specific psychological vulnerability
B) Genetic vulnerability, environmental stressors, and coping mechanisms
C) Neurological factors, cognitive distortions, and situational triggers
D) Emotional instability, social influences, and developmental factors
A
A) Biological vulnerability, generalized psychological vulnerability, and specific psychological vulnerability
7
Q
A
triple vulnerability
8
Q
Biological vulnerability is a ___________ predisposition of an individual to anxiety and depressive disorders.
A) Genetic
B) Environmental
C) Cultural
D) Behavioral
A
A) genetic
9
Q
The clustering of emotional disorders around a common genetic vulnerability has been called ‘the ________ ________ syndrome.’
A) Affective Spectrum
B) Mood Disorder
C) General Neurotic
D) Emotional Spectrum
A
c) general neurotic
(multiple emotional disorders co-occur due to a common underlying genetic vulnerability)
10
Q
Which of the following best describes generalised psychological vulnerability?
A) Believing that personal skills are always sufficient to handle any situation.
B) Perceiving the world as generally safe and events as controllable.
C) Believing that the world is dangerous and that events are beyond one’s control.
D) Assuming that positive outcomes are guaranteed in any circumstance.
A
C) Believing that the world is dangerous and that events are beyond one’s control.
(e.g. early life experiences of stress and loss have been found to foster a sense within the individual that s/he has minimal control over life events)
11
Q
Specific psychological vulnerability can be acquired through:
A) Observational learning
B) Classical conditioning
C) Operant conditioning
D) Cognitive restructuring
A
B) Classical conditioning
(pairing of a conditioned stimulus and aversive event such as being bitten by a dog), and includes factors that are specific to particular objects or situations that influence the expectation of a negative outcome when confronted with a specific object or event.
12
Q
The increase in the probability of future avoidance behavior due to relief from anxiety is an example of:
A) Positive reinforcement
B) Negative reinforcement
C) Classical conditioning
D) Observational learning
A
B) Negative reinforcement
(the behaviours of escape and avoidance have been negatively reinforced (i.e., rewarded) as a
result of the reduction in anxiety)
13
Q
Indirect pathways of conditioning include:
A) Operant and classical acquisition
B) Informational and vicarious acquisition
C) Cognitive and emotional acquisition
D) Reflexive and instinctual acquisition
A
B) Informational and vicarious acquisition
14
Q
The acquisition of fears or anxieties through verbal transmission of danger-related information from others is referred to as:
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Informational learning
D) Observational learning
A
C) Informational learning
(e.g. wolf is dangerous)
15
Q
The acquisition of fears or anxieties through observing others reacting to fear is referred to as:
A) Classical conditioning
B) Informational learning
C) Vicarious learning
D) Operant conditioning
A
C) Vicarious learning
(observing a parent or friend fearfully reacting to a situation might make you fearful of the same situation)
16
Q
A
- Negative affectivity is subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust
and anger. - Positive affectivity involves feeling enthusiastic, active and alert. Therefore, low positive affectivity describes feelings of sadness and lethargy. These dimensions appear important in identifying
factors that are shared across the anxiety disorders as well as those that are unique.
17
Q
According to the DSM-5, which of the following are classified as anxiety disorders?
A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
B) Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, and Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorder
D) Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder
A
B) Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, and Generalized Anxiety Disorder
18
Q
Persistent fear in response to the presence or anticipation of a specific object or situation is known as:
A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Specific Phobia
D) Agoraphobia
A
C) specific phobia
19
Q
Recurrent unexpected panic attacks, _______ disorder.
A
panic
20
Q
Anxiety about being in situations where escape might be difficult or help may not be available is referred to as:
A) Specific Phobia
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Agoraphobia
A
D) Agoraphobia
(e.g., public transport,
open spaces, enclosed spaces, crowds, outside home alone).
21
Q
Fear of social situations where the person is exposed to possible scrutiny by others is known as:
A) Specific Phobia
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Social Anxiety Disorder
D) Agoraphobia
A
C) Social anxiety disorder
(social phobia)
(e.g., social interactions, being observed, performing).
22
Q
Excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities is known as:
A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Specific Phobia
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Panic Disorder
A
C) Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)
23
Q
According to ICD-10, specific phobias, agoraphobia, and social phobia are considered:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorders
B) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
C) Phobic Anxiety Disorders
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorders
A
C) Phobic Anxiety Disorders
(e.g. someone with social phobia feels extreme
anxiety only when in social situations, and someone with a dog phobia feels extreme anxiety only when encountering a dog)
24
Q
According to the DSM-5, the major features of a specific phobia include out of proportion:
A) Intense fear, consistent fear, and persistent fear
B) Intense fear, occasional fear, and short-term fear
C) Mild fear, inconsistent fear, and temporary fear
D) Severe fear, rare fear, and long-term fear
A
A) Intense fear, consistent fear, and persistent fear
- intense fear
- consistent fear (almost EVERY TIME the trigger is encountered) and
- persistent fear (over a period of AT LEAST SIX
MONTHS)
25
According to the DSM-5, the four subtypes of specific phobia include:
A) Fear of animals, natural environments, blood-injection-injury, and situational phobias
B) Fear of animals, social situations, natural environments, and medical procedures
C) Fear of heights, crowds, animals, and social interactions
D) Fear of germs, darkness, public speaking, and confined spaces
A) Fear of animals, natural environments, blood-injection-injury, and situational phobias
26
Most specific phobias begin in:
A) Adulthood and middle age
B) Childhood and early adolescence
C) Late adolescence and early adulthood
D) Middle childhood and late adulthood
B) childhood and early adolescence
27
The prevalence of phobias is greater among children than among adults, and as children mature, many phobias tend to remit without treatment.
True/False
True
28
The estimated lifetime prevalence of specific phobias
is ___-____ per cent, with a female-to-male ratio of 2:1.
Less than _____ per cent of individuals with
a specific phobia seek treatment, even though, in adults, phobias tend to be chronic if untreated.
7-9
1
29
Which of the following pathways are likely to be involved in the development of specific phobias?
A) Only cognitive restructuring
B) Conditioning and indirect learning pathways (information or vicarious transmission)
C) Only genetic predisposition
D) Only pharmacological treatment
B) Conditioning and indirect learning pathways (information or vicarious transmission)
30
According to Seligman’s theory of preparedness, people are predisposed to fear objects or situations that:
A) Are associated with positive experiences
B) Are new and unfamiliar
C) Were dangerous in prehistoric times
D) Are culturally irrelevant
C) Were dangerous in prehistoric times
31
Specific phobias are ________ (true/false) alarms?
False
32
Behavioural technique in which the client confronts the feared stimuli that was avoided to reduce anxiety, _________ therapy.
exposure
33
The technique of behavior therapy in which clients confront their feared objects or situations in real life is known as:
A) Imaginal Exposure
B) Systematic Desensitization
C) In Vivo Exposure
D) Cognitive Restructuring
C) in vivo exposure
34
The behavioral technique in which the client is intensively exposed to a feared object until anxiety diminishes is called:
A) Systematic Desensitization
B) Flooding
C) Gradual Exposure
D) Aversion Therapy
B) Flooding
since the highly anxiety-provoking nature of flooding may not be acceptable to individuals, exposure therapy
usually goes from the least to the most feared objects and situations)
35
The process of eliminating a classically conditioned response by gradually decreasing the conditioned fear response is known as:
A) Habituation
B) Extinction
C) Spontaneous Recovery
D) Reinforcement
B) extinction
36
Lessening of an organism’s response with repetition of the stimulus.
habituation
37
The learning process where new associations between conditioned stimuli and unconditioned stimuli are developed during exposure therapy, without erasing the original associations, is called:
A) Extinction
B) Counterconditioning
C) Spontaneous Recovery
D) Inhibitory learning
D) inhibitory learning
(A person who feared all dogs because of a past bite learns that friendly, calm dogs are safe. Over time, their fear decreases as they form new, positive associations with dogs)
38
Person’s belief that s/he has the ability to succeed in a specific situation.
self-efficacy
39
An episode characterized by a rapid increase in physiological and cognitive symptoms of intense fear and discomfort is known as:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Panic Attack
D) Phobia
C) panic attack
40
The disorder diagnosed when a person experiences recurrent unexpected panic attacks along with at least ONE MONTH of persistent concern about additional attacks or significant behavioral changes related to the attacks is:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Panic Disorder
D) Specific Phobia
C) Panic disorder
41
According to the DSM-5, panic disorder is diagnosed as:
A) A single diagnosis combining agoraphobia
B) Separate diagnoses of panic disorder with agoraphobia and panic disorder without agoraphobia
C) A single diagnosis without distinguishing agoraphobia
D) A subtype of generalized anxiety disorder
B) Separate diagnoses of panic disorder with agoraphobia and panic disorder without agoraphobia
42
Agoraphobia without panic disorder is diagnosed when fear of at least two of the following situations, public transport, open spaces, enclosed spaces, crowds or being outside alone) lasts for at least:
A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Twelve months
D) Two months
B) Six months
43
The median ages of onset are 30 years for panic, and 22 years for agoraphobia.
As with most other anxiety disorders, panic disorder occurs somewhat more often among females
with the proportion of females to males increasing as the severity of agoraphobia increases. True/False
True
44
45
The personality trait characterized by a tendency to experience negative emotional states is:
A) Extraversion
B) Openness
C) Neuroticism
D) Agreeableness
C) neuroticism
46
Belief that the bodily
symptoms of anxiety have harmful consequences, _______ sensitivity.
anxiety
47
Old class of
antidepressant drugs such as imipramine and
amitriptyline.
tricyclic
antidepressants
(TCAs)
48
Newer class of antidepressant
drugs (such as fluoxetine) that inhibit the reuptake of serotonin
selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
49
High-potency drugs (such as Valium and
Xanax) that reduce anxiety and insomnia.
benzodiazepines
50
Type of psychological treatment that combines both cognitive and behavioural concepts and techniques.
cognitive behaviour
therapy (CBT)
51
The emphasis of exposure task is less on anxiety reduction and more on proving the individuals expectations of the situation wrong (e.g., ‘If I travel on a bus, I will panic and I will have to jump off or I will go crazy’).
True/False
True
(fear disconfirmation)
52
The behavioral technique used for addressing internal phobic avoidance, such as fear of bodily sensations that may signal a panic attack, is called:
A) Systematic Desensitization
B) In Vivo Exposure
C) Interoceptive Exposure
D) Flooding
C) interoceptive exposure
(A person with panic disorder might be guided to engage in activities that mimic the physical sensations of a panic attack, such as rapid breathing or spinning in a chair. The goal is to help them learn that these sensations are not harmful and to decrease their anxiety over time)
53
The fear of panic can also be addressed with cognitive techniques such as _____________ that aim to change the false beliefs a person has about panic and its sensations.
Psychoeducation
(usually the first step in effective treatments)
54
The most troubling sensations visible to others, such as sweating, blushing, and shaking, along with fear of negative evaluation, are associated with:
A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Specific Phobia
C) Social Anxiety Disorder
D) Panic Disorder
C) Social Anxiety Disorder
55
In Australia, the prevalence of social anxiety disorder across a lifetime is approximately:
A) 5 percent, with women 2 times as likely as men
B) 8 percent, with women 1.5 times as likely as men
C) 10 percent, with women 1.2 times as likely as men
D) 6 percent, with women and men equally affected
B) 8 percent, with women 1.5 times as likely as men
56
In addition to specific phobias, social anxiety disorder is known for being:
A) One of the least common anxiety disorders with onset in late adolescence
B) One of the most common anxiety disorders with a late onset, typically after 18 years of age
C) One of the most common anxiety disorders with an early onset, with half of sufferers reporting the onset before 12 years of age
D) Rare and typically onset in adulthood
C) One of the most common anxiety disorders with an early onset, with half of sufferers reporting the onset before 12 years of age
57
Which of the following factors are involved in the etiology of social anxiety disorder?
A) Genetic vulnerability - relatives of individuals with the disorder have a significantly increased risk.
B) Psychological factors - (e.g. parental criticism, concerns about others' opinions)
C) Cognitive factors - (self-focusing and negative self-evaluations)
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
58
Which of the following are common treatments for social anxiety disorder?
A) Group or individual therapy
B) Psychoeducation
C) Exposure tasks
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
59
Which of the following are characteristics of Generalized Anxiety Disorder according to the DSM-5?
A) Excessive anxiety about a single concern for at least 3 months
B) Anxiety and worry present most days for at least 6 months, and difficult to control
C) Anxiety about minor daily activities without difficulty in controlling the worry
D) Anxiety that is easy to dismiss and lasts less than 6 months
B) Anxiety and worry present most days for at least 6 months, and difficult to control
60
Which of the following are symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
A) Excessive anxiety about a single/multiple issues
B) Muscle tension and sleep disturbances
C) Feelings of restlessness and difficulty concentrating
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
61
A catastrophizing style of thinking, where individuals imagine "worst-case scenarios," is very common in individuals with:
A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Panic Disorder
C) Specific Phobia
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
62
GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder) is one of the most commonly experienced anxiety disorders, with a lifetime prevalence of _______ percent in Australia, and it occurs more frequently in _______ compared to men.
A) 4.2; men
B) 6.1; women
C) 8.5; women
D) 5.0; men
B) 6.1; women
63
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is associated with which of the following characteristics?
A) Delay in seeking help, early age onset, chronic course, and significant financial burden to the workforce
B) Rapid onset, short course, and minimal financial impact
C) Immediate help-seeking, late onset, and occasional financial burden
D) No impact on the workforce, early onset, and a short-term course
A) Delay in seeking help, early age onset, chronic course, and significant financial burden to the workforce
64
According to the information processing model of anxiety:
A) Individuals ignore danger cues and avoid situations to reduce anxiety.
B) Vigilance and selective attention to danger cues lead to the activation of symptoms and avoidance behaviors, with perception of control helping to reduce anxiety.
C) Anxiety is reduced through immediate distraction from danger cues.
D) Triggers do not influence the expectation of threat or anxiety levels.
B) Vigilance and selective attention to danger cues lead to the activation of symptoms and avoidance behaviors, with perception of control helping to reduce anxiety.
65
In the Stroop test, GAD individuals are found to be slower to name the colour as they are unable to ignore the meaning of the word.
True/False
True
66
According to Wells' Metacognitive Model of Anxiety:
A) Worry is seen as an effective coping strategy and does not lead to maladaptive behaviors.
B) Worry is used as a coping strategy, but it activates a range of maladaptive behaviors such as avoidance.
C) Avoidance is considered a helpful response to worry.
D) Worry does not influence anxiety levels or behaviors.
B) Worry is used as a coping strategy, but it activates a range of maladaptive behaviors such as avoidance.
67
Beliefs about one’s own beliefs and those of others are known as:
A) Core beliefs
B) Cognitive distortions
C) Meta-beliefs
D) Schemas
C) Meta-beliefs
68
Positive metacognitive beliefs reflect the idea that worrying:
A) Has harmful consequences and should be avoided
B) Has no impact on outcomes
C) Has beneficial outcomes, such as increased preparation
D) Leads to cognitive distortions and maladaptive behaviors
C) Has beneficial outcomes, such as increased preparation
69
A negative meta-belief about worry would be the belief that:
A) Worry is helpful for preparation and planning
B) Worry has no effect on one’s well-being
C) Worry is harmful or unhelpful
D) Worry enhances cognitive functioning
C) Worry is harmful or unhelpful
("If I can’t control my anxiety, it means I’m weak and incapable." This belief involves a negative judgment about one's ability to manage anxiety, leading to increased self-blame and feelings of inadequacy)
70
“If I worry, I will be prepared” is an example of:
A) Positive meta-belief
B) Negative meta-belief
C) Core belief
D) Cognitive distortion
A) Positive meta-belief
71
According to the avoidance theory of worry in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD):
A) Excessive worry helps individuals directly confront and resolve distressing images and fears.
B) worrying is used to avoid distressing images, as worry is less distressing than the images themselves.
C) GAD is associated with fewer past traumatic experiences.
D) Worry is seen as a strategy to increase the frequency of distressing images.
B) worrying is used to avoid distressing images, as worry is less distressing than the images themselves.
(e.g. a person spends excessive time worrying about their health rather than scheduling a routine check-up, believing that worry will help them be prepared for any health issues)
72
"I cannot control my thinking."
"Worrying will never help me solve problems."
"If I worry, I am just being anxious and it won’t change anything."
A) Positive meta-beliefs
B) Neutral meta-beliefs
C) Negative meta-beliefs
D) Irrelevant beliefs
C) Negative meta-beliefs
73
According to the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD):
A) Certain outcomes are preferred, leading to increased positive emotional responses and less avoidance behavior.
B) Situations with uncertain outcomes trigger only cognitive responses, without affecting emotional or behavioral responses.
C) Situations and events with uncertain outcomes trigger negative emotional (anxious feelings), cognitive (threat beliefs), and behavioral (avoidance) responses.
D) Uncertainty leads to increased tolerance and reduced anxiety in individuals with GAD.
C) Situations and events with uncertain outcomes trigger negative emotional (anxious feelings), cognitive (threat beliefs), and behavioral (avoidance) responses.
74
In the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), how might a person react to receiving an ambiguous email from their boss?
A) They feel calm and respond immediately, trusting that the email is positive.
B) They feel anxious, interpret the email as a potential problem, and may avoid addressing it.
C) They become excited and see the email as an opportunity for a promotion.
D) They ignore the email, assuming it’s not important and does not affect them.
B) They feel anxious, interpret the email as a potential problem, and may avoid addressing it.
75
Which of the following are key processes in the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model for GAD?
A) Positive belief that worry is helpful
B) Poor problem orientation and low confidence
C) Worry inhibits distressing mental images
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
76
Which of the following are treatments for GAD?
A) CBT, Acceptance and Mindfulness, Emotion Regulation Therapy, Attention Retraining, Medication
B) CBT and Medication only
C) Acceptance and Mindfulness and Attention Retraining only
D) Emotion Regulation Therapy and Medication only
A) CBT, Acceptance and Mindfulness, Emotion Regulation Therapy, Attention Retraining, Medication
77
Fear is the immediate alarm reaction triggered by a(n):
actual danger
perceived danger
imminent danger
anticipated danger
perceived danger
78
In vicarious conditioning of anxiety, fear responses are learned through ____________.
modelling
79
Dimensions that appear important in identifying shared and unique factors across anxiety disorders are:
Multiple select question.
negative affectivity
aetiology
positive affectivity
epidemiology
negative affectivity
positive affectivity
80
Which classification system separates phobic from other anxiety disorders:
ICD-9
DSM-IV
DSM-5
ICD-10
ICD-10
81
The DSM-5 specifies _____ subtypes of phobias, categorised according to the primary focus of the fear.
6
7
5
4
4
82
Barlow argues that
_________ alarms are the hallmark of anxiety disorders.
false
83
___________ shapes expectations of negative events when confronted with a specific object or event.
Conditioning
84
The greater prevalence of specific phobias in children has led some to suggest that they:
may remit without treatment
need separate diagnostic criteria to avoid overdiagnosis
are more impacted than adults
are developmentally normal
may remit without treatment
85
The dimensions of emotion described by Brown and Barlow are:
Multiple select question.
positive affectivity
autonomic arousal
sympathetic arousal
negative affectivity
positive affectivity
autonomic arousal
negative affectivity
86
According to the theory of prepared classical conditioning, it should be easier to develop phobic fears for:
Multiple select question.
birds
snakes
fish
spiders
snakes
spiders
87
Specific phobias comprise fear reactions to a specific object/situation that are:
Multiple select question.
disproportionate
intense
consistent
transient
disproportionate
intense
consistent
88
_____ involves confronting the most feared phobic stimuli and continuing exposure until the anxiety has decreased.
In vivo exposure
Extinction
Flooding
Habituation
Flooding
89
For panic disorder to diagnosed, an individual must experience:
Multiple select question.
agoraphobia
recurrent panic attacks
persistent worry about future panic attacks
at least four panic attacks within a two-week period
recurrent panic attacks
persistent worry about future panic attacks
90
The estimated lifetime prevalence of specific phobias is _______%.
18–20
3–5
7–9
13–15
7-9
91
The lifetime prevalence estimate for agoraphobia in Australia is:
3.7
1.3
2.9
4.5
2.9
92
______ models are best able to account for the aetiology of panic disorder and agoraphobia.
Cognitive
Behavioural
Learning
Psychodynamic
Cognitive
93
Contemporary researchers agree that the theory of phobias being classically conditioned is unable to provide a(n) _______ explanation of their aetiology.
plausible
complete
possible
accurate
complete
94
Effective medications for treating panic disorder and agoraphobia include which of the following?
Multiple answer choice:
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
benzodiazepines
antipsychotics
monoamine reuptake inhibitors
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
benzodiazepines
95
Contemporary behavioural theorists emphasise the role of ________ in reducing phobic responses.
disinhibition
flooding
extinction
inhibitory learning
inhibitory learning
(Inhibitory learning involves the process of learning that certain feared stimuli or situations do not always lead to the feared outcome, which helps to reduce the phobic response over time. This approach focuses on creating new learning experiences that inhibit or counteract the fear response rather than simply exposing individuals to their fears)
96
Coping strategies such as diaphragmatic breathing can _______ the effectiveness of exposure therapies by minimising the magnitude of the prediction error.
maximise
promote
enhance
undermine
enhance
97
Which of the following situations is LEAST likely to be associated with agoraphobia?
waiting in line at the supermarket
catching the bus to work
going out with friends
going for a walk in the park
going out with friends
98
On average, people will live with panic disorder for around _____
years before seeking treatment.
10
99
The anxiety symptoms most troubling to sufferers of social anxiety disorder are those:
requiring medication
involving a physiological component
involving a cognitive component
visible to others
visible to others
100
It is estimated that approximately ___% of the general population experience occasional panic attacks; however, only _____% go on to develop panic disorder.
5; 2
2; 1
7; 4
10; 3
10; 3
101
On average, sufferers of social anxiety disorder seek treatment ___ years after onset.
14
8
10
12
14
102
_______ exposure involves inducing physical sensations of panic.
Physiological
In vivo
Interoceptive
Graded
Interoceptive
(Interoceptive exposure is a technique used in cognitive-behavioral therapy to help individuals confront and reduce their fear of bodily sensations associated with panic attacks. By deliberately inducing these sensations in a controlled setting, individuals can learn to tolerate them and reduce their anxiety over time)
103
Individuals with social anxiety disorder:
seek help soon after onset of the disorder
believe they have social deficits
create opportunities for social interaction
demonstrate underdeveloped social skills
believe they have social deficits
104
Individuals with social anxiety disorder ultimately fear:
Multiple select question.
rejection
negative evaluation
abandonment
public speaking
rejection
negative evaluation
105
According to Clark's cognitive model of panic disorder, individuals misinterpret the physiological sensations of panic in a ______ way.
realistic
catastrophic
hypomanic
efficacious
catastrophic
106
Some researchers have reported a mean duration of ______ years for untreated social anxiety disorder.
25
15
10
20
25
107
From an inhibitory learning perspective, the emphasis of treatment is on:
gradual exposure to the feared situation
anxiety monitoring
habituation
identifying prediction errors
identifying prediction errors
108
It is estimated that up to one ________ of the variability in familial transmission of social phobia is due to genetic factors.
third
half
fifth
quarter
third
109
Safety behaviours are:
helpful in overcoming anxiety
those that protect the individual from objective danger
subtle avoidance behaviours
engaged following psychoeducation
subtle avoidance behaviours
110
Individuals with generalised anxiety disorder tend to ________ the risk of negative events, and ______ their ability to manage them should they occur.
underestimate; overestimate
inaccurately; accurately
accurately; inaccurately
overestimate; underestimate
overestimate; underestimate
111
The lifetime prevalence rate of GAD for the Australian population is ____%.
6.1
0.5
4.1
2.1
6.1
112
In support of the information processing model of GAD are findings that sufferers:
selectively attend to threatening stimuli
demonstrate safety behaviours
interpret ambiguous scenarios as threatening
frequently engage in avoidance strategies to manage anxiety
selectively attend to threatening stimuli
interpret ambiguous scenarios as threatening
113
Negative meta-beliefs:
are an example of Wells' 'Type 1' worry
discriminate between GAD and other forms of anxiety
are present in all anxiety disorders
are largely accurate reflections of reality
discriminate between GAD and other forms of anxiety
(Negative meta-beliefs, such as the belief that worry is uncontrollable or inherently harmful, are often used to differentiate generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) from other anxiety disorders. These beliefs about the nature and consequences of worry play a significant role in GAD, distinguishing it from other conditions where worry or anxiety might manifest differently.)
114
In the context of social anxiety disorder, the effectiveness of exposure therapy is enhanced when:
breathing retraining is included
social support is high
a cognitive rationale is provided
relaxation is concurrently engaged
a cognitive rationale is provided
115
Barkovec and colleagues argue that worrying in thoughts:
takes less effort than worrying in images
emphasises the cognitive basis of GAD
is less distressing than processing emotional images
is an effective treatment for GAD
is less distressing than processing emotional images
116
Despite the diversity of worries that occur in the context of GAD, most can be categorised as relating to:
Multiple select question.
social threat
physical threat
past negative events
fear of abandonment
social threat
physical threat
117
GAD frequently co-occurs with:
Multiple select question.
psychosis
personality disorder
physical illness
panic disorder
personality disorder
panic disorder
118
According to the information processing model, individuals with GAD overestimate:
Multiple select question.
the likelihood of negative events
the threat posed by others
the negative consequences of events
their ability to cope with everyday activities
the likelihood of negative events
the negative consequences of events
119
Positive meta-beliefs maintain worry by promoting it as a helpful
__________ strategy.
coping
120
Physiological arousal is lower when people worry:
in thoughts
in images
in the early morning
at night
in thoughts
121
The intolerance of uncertainty model argues that people with GAD will:
experience better outcomes through therapies that emphasise ways of gaining control over the environment
readily seek treatment due to the impacts of the disorder
attempt to control situations with uncertain outcomes
be most distressed in situations in which they are able to assume control
attempt to control situations with uncertain outcomes
122
GAD has a(n):
Multiple select question.
early age of onset
low prevalence rate
sporadic course
chronic course
early age of onset
chronic course
123
The avoidance theory of worry posits that the everyday worries experienced by people with GAD:
are particularly adaptive during adolescence
encourage worry about underlying fears
help to protect against underlying fears
are less distressing than worries experienced by sufferers of social phobia
help to protect against underlying fears
(according to this theory, worrying serves as a protective mechanism by helping individuals avoid or distract themselves from more intense and distressing underlying fears or anxieties. It functions as a way to prevent these deeper fears from becoming overwhelming)
124
Intolerance of uncertainty is argued to interact with:
Multiple select question.
high cognitive capacity
low physiological arousal
positive meta-beliefs about worry
have low problem-solving self-efficacy
positive meta-beliefs about worry
have low problem-solving self-efficacy
125
Due to concerns with tolerance and dependence,
____________ are not considered the prescription of choice for GAD.
benzodiazepines
126
The technique of worry exposure is often used in treating GAD when the source of worry:
requires strong imaginal exposure skills
has no possibility of ever occurring
is objectively distressing
is not able to be managed in real-life situations
is objectively distressing
127
_____ meta-beliefs about worry may represent a vulnerability for anxiety in general.
Negative
Positive
Recurrent
Adaptive
Positive
128
In mindfulness meditation, people learn to be more present-focused and learn to _________ their worries.
observe
ignore
change
challenge
observe
129
A primary limitation of medication use in treating GAD is:
the costs associated with prescription medications
a return of symptoms once medication is ceased
high rates of addiction associated with their use
extreme side effects that impact wellbeing
a return of symptoms once medication is ceased
130
CBT approaches to generalised anxiety disorder focus on:
removing reactions to worry
factors that maintain symptoms
removing triggers for worry from the environment
factors that triggered the initial worry
factors that maintain symptoms
131
Which alternative approach to treating GAD has been found to result in improved outcomes compared to CBT?
cognitive therapy
mindfulness meditation
interoceptive exposure
interpersonal therapy
mindfulness meditation
132
The intolerance of uncertainty model identifies three processes that maintain generalised anxiety disorder symptoms. One of them is:
a) holding positive beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.
b) holding negative beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.
c) having a high level of confidence in one's ability to solve problems.
d) experiencing vivid negative images.
e) having low self-esteem.
a) holding positive beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.
133
In the triple vulnerability model of anxiety, negative affectivity is:
a) feeling enthusiastic, active and alert.
b) feeling sad and lethargic.
c) subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger.
d) feeling grumpy and irritable.
e) a pessimistic display of emotions.
c) subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger.
134
According to Barlow (2002), the hallmark of anxiety is:
a) panic attacks.
b) vicarious acquisition.
c) true alarms.
d) false alarms.
e) distorted thoughts.
d) false alarms.
135
Which of the following is not one of the new approaches for helping people with GAD?
a) interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)
b) mindfulness meditation approaches
c) cognitive restructuring
d) increasing patient understanding of processes maintaining worry
e) eye movement desensitisation retraining (EMDR)
e) eye movement desensitisation retraining (EMDR)
136
According to Clark’s model of panic disorder people with this disorder:
a) typically avoid places where a panic attack may occur.
b) are highly anxious.
c) are low on a measure of anxiety sensitivity.
d) catastrophise bodily sensations as dangerous.
e) hyperventilate.
d) catastrophise bodily sensations as dangerous.
137
Seligman's preparedness theory suggests that:
a) there is a biological/evolutionary component to phobic fears.
b) anxiety is due to expectation of negative outcomes.
c) phobias are founded in unconscious mental conflicts.
d) false alarms lead to heightened vigilance.
e) humans are prepared to deal with certain threats.
a) there is a biological/evolutionary component to phobic fears.
138
An example of a social threat for sufferers of GAD is:
a) worrying about being the victim of a terrorist attack.
b) worrying about being involved in a car accident.
c) worrying about not being liked by others.
d) worrying about developing cancer.
e) None of the given options is correct.
c) worrying about not being liked by others.
139
Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a lifetime prevalence in Australia of about:
a) 9.5 per cent.
b) 6.1 per cent.
c) 1.2 per cent.
d) 0.1 per cent.
e) 2.3 per cent.
b) 6.1 per cent.
140
In vicarious acquisition, fear is acquired by:
a) classical conditioning.
b) verbal transmission of fear-related information.
c) observing another person responding with fear to a threat.
d) All of the given options are correct.
e) None of the given options is correct.
c) observing another person responding with fear to a threat.
141
Which of the following is not a change to anxiety disorders in the DSM-5?
a) There is a minimum period to receive a specific phobia diagnosis.
b) Agoraphobia has become a distinct disorder from panic disorder.
c) A distinction is made between performance social phobia and generalised social phobia.
d) OCD is listed within 'Anxiety and Obsessive-Compulsive Spectrum'.
e) Specific phobia and panic disorder are combined into one diagnosis.
e) Specific phobia and panic disorder are combined into one diagnosis.
142
A panic disorder differs from a panic attack in that:
a) panic disorders are more extreme.
b) panic attacks come 'out of the blue'.
c) a panic disorder is more likely to be comorbid with depression.
d) a panic disorder involves worry about having additional panic attacks.
e) None of the given options is correct.
d) a panic disorder involves worry about having additional panic attacks.
143
In agoraphobia sufferers avoid being in situations where:
a) there is a need to relate easily to others.
b) a panic attack may occur and escape from the situation is difficult.
c) others may see them.
d) they are far away from home.
e) None of the given options is correct.
b) a panic attack may occur and escape from the situation is difficult.
144
The relief from escape and avoiding a feared stimulus is an example of:
a) positive reinforcement.
b) negative reinforcement.
c) reinforcement of avoidance.
d) positive punishment.
e) None of the given options is correct.
b) negative reinforcement.
145
Which of the following is not true of cognitive behaviour therapy in the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder?
a) Treatment gains are maintained after therapy stops.
b) Clients are assisted to identify negative beliefs.
c) By the end of therapy, at most only 57 per cent of clients score in the non-clinical range on measures of symptoms.
d) Clients are taught to suppress their worries.
e) Clients are taught to re-appraise negative predictions about threats.
d) Clients are taught to suppress their worries.
146
The Rapee (1991) information processing model of the development of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) suggests that individuals with GAD selectively attend to:
a) body sensations of impending panic.
b) memories of trauma.
c) stress neurochemicals.
d) threatening information.
e) negative social cues.
d) threatening information.
