Week 2 - Anxiety disorders

Question 1

________ is the immediate alarm reaction triggered by a perceived danger.

A) Fear

B) Anxiety

C) Stress

D) Panic

Answer 1

A) Fear

Question 2

Physiological changes in the human body in response to a perceived threat, including elevated heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension, are known as the:

A) Fight-or-flight response

B) Relaxation response

C) Homeostatic response

D) Stress adaptation response

Answer 2

A) Fight-or-flight response

Question 3

True alarm is fear that occurs in response to:

A) A direct and immediate danger, such as the impending attack of a wild animal

B) Long-term stress or ongoing anxiety

C) A general sense of unease or discomfort

D) Chronic worries about future events

Answer 3

A) A direct and immediate danger, such as the impending attack of a wild animal

Question 4

__________ alarms trigger the fight-or-flight response in situations that do not represent an immediate physical threat and are a hallmark of anxiety disorders.

A) Acute

B) Chronic

C) False

D) Situational

Answer 4

C) False

Question 5

Among Australian adults aged 16–85 years, approximately _______% will experience a mental disorder in their lifetime, with __________ disorders being the most common.

A) 30%, Depressive

B) 45%, Anxiety

C) 50%, Substance Use

D) 25%, Bipolar

Answer 5

B) 45%, Anxiety

Question 6

The triple vulnerability model includes:

A) Biological vulnerability, generalized psychological vulnerability, and specific psychological vulnerability

B) Genetic vulnerability, environmental stressors, and coping mechanisms

C) Neurological factors, cognitive distortions, and situational triggers

D) Emotional instability, social influences, and developmental factors

Answer 6

A) Biological vulnerability, generalized psychological vulnerability, and specific psychological vulnerability

Question 7

Answer 7

triple vulnerability

Question 8

Biological vulnerability is a ___________ predisposition of an individual to anxiety and depressive disorders.

A) Genetic

B) Environmental

C) Cultural

D) Behavioral

Answer 8

A) genetic

Question 9

The clustering of emotional disorders around a common genetic vulnerability has been called ‘the ________ ________ syndrome.’

A) Affective Spectrum

B) Mood Disorder

C) General Neurotic

D) Emotional Spectrum

Answer 9

c) general neurotic

(multiple emotional disorders co-occur due to a common underlying genetic vulnerability)

Question 10

Which of the following best describes generalised psychological vulnerability?

A) Believing that personal skills are always sufficient to handle any situation.
B) Perceiving the world as generally safe and events as controllable.
C) Believing that the world is dangerous and that events are beyond one’s control.
D) Assuming that positive outcomes are guaranteed in any circumstance.

Answer 10

C) Believing that the world is dangerous and that events are beyond one’s control.

(e.g. early life experiences of stress and loss have been found to foster a sense within the individual that s/he has minimal control over life events)

Question 11

Specific psychological vulnerability can be acquired through:

A) Observational learning
B) Classical conditioning
C) Operant conditioning
D) Cognitive restructuring

Answer 11

B) Classical conditioning

(pairing of a conditioned stimulus and aversive event such as being bitten by a dog), and includes factors that are specific to particular objects or situations that influence the expectation of a negative outcome when confronted with a specific object or event.

Question 12

The increase in the probability of future avoidance behavior due to relief from anxiety is an example of:

A) Positive reinforcement
B) Negative reinforcement
C) Classical conditioning
D) Observational learning

Answer 12

B) Negative reinforcement

(the behaviours of escape and avoidance have been negatively reinforced (i.e., rewarded) as a
result of the reduction in anxiety)

Question 13

Indirect pathways of conditioning include:

A) Operant and classical acquisition
B) Informational and vicarious acquisition
C) Cognitive and emotional acquisition
D) Reflexive and instinctual acquisition

Answer 13

B) Informational and vicarious acquisition

Question 14

The acquisition of fears or anxieties through verbal transmission of danger-related information from others is referred to as:

A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Informational learning
D) Observational learning

Answer 14

C) Informational learning

(e.g. wolf is dangerous)

Question 15

The acquisition of fears or anxieties through observing others reacting to fear is referred to as:

A) Classical conditioning
B) Informational learning
C) Vicarious learning
D) Operant conditioning

Answer 15

C) Vicarious learning

(observing a parent or friend fearfully reacting to a situation might make you fearful of the same situation)

Question 16

Answer 16

• Negative affectivity is subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust
  and anger.
• Positive affectivity involves feeling enthusiastic, active and alert. Therefore, low positive affectivity describes feelings of sadness and lethargy. These dimensions appear important in identifying
  factors that are shared across the anxiety disorders as well as those that are unique.

Question 17

According to the DSM-5, which of the following are classified as anxiety disorders?

A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder and Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
B) Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, and Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Major Depressive Disorder and Bipolar Disorder
D) Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder

Answer 17

B) Specific Phobia, Panic Disorder, Agoraphobia, Social Anxiety Disorder, and Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Question 18

Persistent fear in response to the presence or anticipation of a specific object or situation is known as:

A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Specific Phobia
D) Agoraphobia

Answer 18

C) specific phobia

Question 19

Recurrent unexpected panic attacks, _______ disorder.

Answer 19

panic

Question 20

Anxiety about being in situations where escape might be difficult or help may not be available is referred to as:

A) Specific Phobia
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Agoraphobia

Answer 20

D) Agoraphobia

(e.g., public transport,
open spaces, enclosed spaces, crowds, outside home alone).

Question 21

Fear of social situations where the person is exposed to possible scrutiny by others is known as:

A) Specific Phobia
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Social Anxiety Disorder
D) Agoraphobia

Answer 21

C) Social anxiety disorder
(social phobia)

(e.g., social interactions, being observed, performing).

Question 22

Excessive anxiety and worry about a number of events or activities is known as:

A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Specific Phobia
C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
D) Panic Disorder

Answer 22

C) Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD)

Question 23

According to ICD-10, specific phobias, agoraphobia, and social phobia are considered:

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorders
B) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorders
C) Phobic Anxiety Disorders
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorders

Answer 23

C) Phobic Anxiety Disorders

(e.g. someone with social phobia feels extreme
anxiety only when in social situations, and someone with a dog phobia feels extreme anxiety only when encountering a dog)

Question 24

According to the DSM-5, the major features of a specific phobia include out of proportion:

A) Intense fear, consistent fear, and persistent fear
B) Intense fear, occasional fear, and short-term fear
C) Mild fear, inconsistent fear, and temporary fear
D) Severe fear, rare fear, and long-term fear

Answer 24

A) Intense fear, consistent fear, and persistent fear

• intense fear
• consistent fear (almost EVERY TIME the trigger is encountered) and
• persistent fear (over a period of AT LEAST SIX
  MONTHS)

Question 25

According to the DSM-5, the four subtypes of specific phobia include:

A) Fear of animals, natural environments, blood-injection-injury, and situational phobias
B) Fear of animals, social situations, natural environments, and medical procedures
C) Fear of heights, crowds, animals, and social interactions
D) Fear of germs, darkness, public speaking, and confined spaces

Answer 25

A) Fear of animals, natural environments, blood-injection-injury, and situational phobias

Question 26

Most specific phobias begin in:

A) Adulthood and middle age
B) Childhood and early adolescence
C) Late adolescence and early adulthood
D) Middle childhood and late adulthood

Answer 26

B) childhood and early adolescence

Question 27

The prevalence of phobias is greater among children than among adults, and as children mature, many phobias tend to remit without treatment.

True/False

Answer 27

True

Question 28

The estimated lifetime prevalence of specific phobias
is ___-____ per cent, with a female-to-male ratio of 2:1.
Less than _____ per cent of individuals with
a specific phobia seek treatment, even though, in adults, phobias tend to be chronic if untreated.

Answer 28

7-9
1

Question 29

Which of the following pathways are likely to be involved in the development of specific phobias?

A) Only cognitive restructuring
B) Conditioning and indirect learning pathways (information or vicarious transmission)
C) Only genetic predisposition
D) Only pharmacological treatment

Answer 29

B) Conditioning and indirect learning pathways (information or vicarious transmission)

Question 30

According to Seligman’s theory of preparedness, people are predisposed to fear objects or situations that:

A) Are associated with positive experiences
B) Are new and unfamiliar
C) Were dangerous in prehistoric times
D) Are culturally irrelevant

Answer 30

C) Were dangerous in prehistoric times

Question 31

Specific phobias are ________ (true/false) alarms?

Answer 31

False

Question 32

Behavioural technique in which the client confronts the feared stimuli that was avoided to reduce anxiety, _________ therapy.

Answer 32

exposure

Question 33

The technique of behavior therapy in which clients confront their feared objects or situations in real life is known as:

A) Imaginal Exposure
B) Systematic Desensitization
C) In Vivo Exposure
D) Cognitive Restructuring

Answer 33

C) in vivo exposure

Question 34

The behavioral technique in which the client is intensively exposed to a feared object until anxiety diminishes is called:

A) Systematic Desensitization
B) Flooding
C) Gradual Exposure
D) Aversion Therapy

Answer 34

B) Flooding

since the highly anxiety-provoking nature of flooding may not be acceptable to individuals, exposure therapy
usually goes from the least to the most feared objects and situations)

Question 35

The process of eliminating a classically conditioned response by gradually decreasing the conditioned fear response is known as:

A) Habituation
B) Extinction
C) Spontaneous Recovery
D) Reinforcement

Answer 35

B) extinction

Question 36

Lessening of an organism’s response with repetition of the stimulus.

Answer 36

habituation

Question 37

The learning process where new associations between conditioned stimuli and unconditioned stimuli are developed during exposure therapy, without erasing the original associations, is called:

A) Extinction
B) Counterconditioning
C) Spontaneous Recovery
D) Inhibitory learning

Answer 37

D) inhibitory learning

(A person who feared all dogs because of a past bite learns that friendly, calm dogs are safe. Over time, their fear decreases as they form new, positive associations with dogs)

Question 38

Person’s belief that s/he has the ability to succeed in a specific situation.

Answer 38

self-efficacy

Question 39

An episode characterized by a rapid increase in physiological and cognitive symptoms of intense fear and discomfort is known as:

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Panic Attack
D) Phobia

Answer 39

C) panic attack

Question 40

The disorder diagnosed when a person experiences recurrent unexpected panic attacks along with at least ONE MONTH of persistent concern about additional attacks or significant behavioral changes related to the attacks is:

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Social Anxiety Disorder
C) Panic Disorder
D) Specific Phobia

Answer 40

C) Panic disorder

Question 41

According to the DSM-5, panic disorder is diagnosed as:

A) A single diagnosis combining agoraphobia
B) Separate diagnoses of panic disorder with agoraphobia and panic disorder without agoraphobia
C) A single diagnosis without distinguishing agoraphobia
D) A subtype of generalized anxiety disorder

Answer 41

B) Separate diagnoses of panic disorder with agoraphobia and panic disorder without agoraphobia

Question 42

Agoraphobia without panic disorder is diagnosed when fear of at least two of the following situations, public transport, open spaces, enclosed spaces, crowds or being outside alone) lasts for at least:

A) Three months
B) Six months
C) Twelve months
D) Two months

Answer 42

B) Six months

Question 43

The median ages of onset are 30 years for panic, and 22 years for agoraphobia.
As with most other anxiety disorders, panic disorder occurs somewhat more often among females
with the proportion of females to males increasing as the severity of agoraphobia increases. True/False

Answer 43

True

Question 44

Question 45

The personality trait characterized by a tendency to experience negative emotional states is:

A) Extraversion
B) Openness
C) Neuroticism
D) Agreeableness

Answer 45

C) neuroticism

Question 46

Belief that the bodily
symptoms of anxiety have harmful consequences, _______ sensitivity.

Answer 46

anxiety

Question 47

Old class of
antidepressant drugs such as imipramine and
amitriptyline.

Answer 47

tricyclic
antidepressants
(TCAs)

Question 48

Newer class of antidepressant
drugs (such as fluoxetine) that inhibit the reuptake of serotonin

Answer 48

selective serotonin
reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Question 49

High-potency drugs (such as Valium and
Xanax) that reduce anxiety and insomnia.

Answer 49

benzodiazepines

Question 50

Type of psychological treatment that combines both cognitive and behavioural concepts and techniques.

Answer 50

cognitive behaviour
therapy (CBT)

Question 51

The emphasis of exposure task is less on anxiety reduction and more on proving the individuals expectations of the situation wrong (e.g., ‘If I travel on a bus, I will panic and I will have to jump off or I will go crazy’).

True/False

Answer 51

True

(fear disconfirmation)

Question 52

The behavioral technique used for addressing internal phobic avoidance, such as fear of bodily sensations that may signal a panic attack, is called:

A) Systematic Desensitization
B) In Vivo Exposure
C) Interoceptive Exposure
D) Flooding

Answer 52

C) interoceptive exposure

(A person with panic disorder might be guided to engage in activities that mimic the physical sensations of a panic attack, such as rapid breathing or spinning in a chair. The goal is to help them learn that these sensations are not harmful and to decrease their anxiety over time)

Question 53

The fear of panic can also be addressed with cognitive techniques such as _____________ that aim to change the false beliefs a person has about panic and its sensations.

Answer 53

Psychoeducation

(usually the first step in effective treatments)

Question 54

The most troubling sensations visible to others, such as sweating, blushing, and shaking, along with fear of negative evaluation, are associated with:

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Specific Phobia
C) Social Anxiety Disorder
D) Panic Disorder

Answer 54

C) Social Anxiety Disorder

Question 55

In Australia, the prevalence of social anxiety disorder across a lifetime is approximately:

A) 5 percent, with women 2 times as likely as men
B) 8 percent, with women 1.5 times as likely as men
C) 10 percent, with women 1.2 times as likely as men
D) 6 percent, with women and men equally affected

Answer 55

B) 8 percent, with women 1.5 times as likely as men

Question 56

In addition to specific phobias, social anxiety disorder is known for being:

A) One of the least common anxiety disorders with onset in late adolescence
B) One of the most common anxiety disorders with a late onset, typically after 18 years of age
C) One of the most common anxiety disorders with an early onset, with half of sufferers reporting the onset before 12 years of age
D) Rare and typically onset in adulthood

Answer 56

C) One of the most common anxiety disorders with an early onset, with half of sufferers reporting the onset before 12 years of age

Question 57

Which of the following factors are involved in the etiology of social anxiety disorder?

A) Genetic vulnerability - relatives of individuals with the disorder have a significantly increased risk.
B) Psychological factors - (e.g. parental criticism, concerns about others’ opinions)
C) Cognitive factors - (self-focusing and negative self-evaluations)
D) All of the above

Answer 57

D) All of the above

Question 58

Which of the following are common treatments for social anxiety disorder?

A) Group or individual therapy
B) Psychoeducation
C) Exposure tasks
D) All of the above

Answer 58

D) All of the above

Question 59

Which of the following are characteristics of Generalized Anxiety Disorder according to the DSM-5?

A) Excessive anxiety about a single concern for at least 3 months
B) Anxiety and worry present most days for at least 6 months, and difficult to control
C) Anxiety about minor daily activities without difficulty in controlling the worry
D) Anxiety that is easy to dismiss and lasts less than 6 months

Answer 59

B) Anxiety and worry present most days for at least 6 months, and difficult to control

Question 60

Which of the following are symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?

A) Excessive anxiety about a single/multiple issues
B) Muscle tension and sleep disturbances
C) Feelings of restlessness and difficulty concentrating
D) All of the above

Answer 60

D) All of the above

Question 61

A catastrophizing style of thinking, where individuals imagine “worst-case scenarios,” is very common in individuals with:

A) Social Anxiety Disorder
B) Panic Disorder
C) Specific Phobia
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Answer 61

D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder

Question 62

GAD (Generalized Anxiety Disorder) is one of the most commonly experienced anxiety disorders, with a lifetime prevalence of _______ percent in Australia, and it occurs more frequently in _______ compared to men.

A) 4.2; men
B) 6.1; women
C) 8.5; women
D) 5.0; men

Answer 62

B) 6.1; women

Question 63

Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is associated with which of the following characteristics?

A) Delay in seeking help, early age onset, chronic course, and significant financial burden to the workforce
B) Rapid onset, short course, and minimal financial impact
C) Immediate help-seeking, late onset, and occasional financial burden
D) No impact on the workforce, early onset, and a short-term course

Answer 63

A) Delay in seeking help, early age onset, chronic course, and significant financial burden to the workforce

Question 64

According to the information processing model of anxiety:

A) Individuals ignore danger cues and avoid situations to reduce anxiety.
B) Vigilance and selective attention to danger cues lead to the activation of symptoms and avoidance behaviors, with perception of control helping to reduce anxiety.
C) Anxiety is reduced through immediate distraction from danger cues.
D) Triggers do not influence the expectation of threat or anxiety levels.

Answer 64

B) Vigilance and selective attention to danger cues lead to the activation of symptoms and avoidance behaviors, with perception of control helping to reduce anxiety.

Question 65

In the Stroop test, GAD individuals are found to be slower to name the colour as they are unable to ignore the meaning of the word.

True/False

Answer 65

True

Question 66

According to Wells’ Metacognitive Model of Anxiety:

A) Worry is seen as an effective coping strategy and does not lead to maladaptive behaviors.
B) Worry is used as a coping strategy, but it activates a range of maladaptive behaviors such as avoidance.
C) Avoidance is considered a helpful response to worry.
D) Worry does not influence anxiety levels or behaviors.

Answer 66

B) Worry is used as a coping strategy, but it activates a range of maladaptive behaviors such as avoidance.

Question 67

Beliefs about one’s own beliefs and those of others are known as:

A) Core beliefs
B) Cognitive distortions
C) Meta-beliefs
D) Schemas

Answer 67

C) Meta-beliefs

Question 68

Positive metacognitive beliefs reflect the idea that worrying:

A) Has harmful consequences and should be avoided
B) Has no impact on outcomes
C) Has beneficial outcomes, such as increased preparation
D) Leads to cognitive distortions and maladaptive behaviors

Answer 68

C) Has beneficial outcomes, such as increased preparation

Question 69

A negative meta-belief about worry would be the belief that:

A) Worry is helpful for preparation and planning
B) Worry has no effect on one’s well-being
C) Worry is harmful or unhelpful
D) Worry enhances cognitive functioning

Answer 69

C) Worry is harmful or unhelpful

(“If I can’t control my anxiety, it means I’m weak and incapable.” This belief involves a negative judgment about one’s ability to manage anxiety, leading to increased self-blame and feelings of inadequacy)

Question 70

“If I worry, I will be prepared” is an example of:

A) Positive meta-belief
B) Negative meta-belief
C) Core belief
D) Cognitive distortion

Answer 70

A) Positive meta-belief

Question 71

According to the avoidance theory of worry in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD):

A) Excessive worry helps individuals directly confront and resolve distressing images and fears.
B) worrying is used to avoid distressing images, as worry is less distressing than the images themselves.
C) GAD is associated with fewer past traumatic experiences.
D) Worry is seen as a strategy to increase the frequency of distressing images.

Answer 71

B) worrying is used to avoid distressing images, as worry is less distressing than the images themselves.

(e.g. a person spends excessive time worrying about their health rather than scheduling a routine check-up, believing that worry will help them be prepared for any health issues)

Question 72

“I cannot control my thinking.”
“Worrying will never help me solve problems.”
“If I worry, I am just being anxious and it won’t change anything.”

A) Positive meta-beliefs
B) Neutral meta-beliefs
C) Negative meta-beliefs
D) Irrelevant beliefs

Answer 72

C) Negative meta-beliefs

Question 73

According to the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model in Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD):

A) Certain outcomes are preferred, leading to increased positive emotional responses and less avoidance behavior.
B) Situations with uncertain outcomes trigger only cognitive responses, without affecting emotional or behavioral responses.
C) Situations and events with uncertain outcomes trigger negative emotional (anxious feelings), cognitive (threat beliefs), and behavioral (avoidance) responses.
D) Uncertainty leads to increased tolerance and reduced anxiety in individuals with GAD.

Answer 73

C) Situations and events with uncertain outcomes trigger negative emotional (anxious feelings), cognitive (threat beliefs), and behavioral (avoidance) responses.

Question 74

In the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), how might a person react to receiving an ambiguous email from their boss?

A) They feel calm and respond immediately, trusting that the email is positive.
B) They feel anxious, interpret the email as a potential problem, and may avoid addressing it.
C) They become excited and see the email as an opportunity for a promotion.
D) They ignore the email, assuming it’s not important and does not affect them.

Answer 74

B) They feel anxious, interpret the email as a potential problem, and may avoid addressing it.

Question 75

Which of the following are key processes in the Intolerance of Uncertainty Model for GAD?

A) Positive belief that worry is helpful
B) Poor problem orientation and low confidence
C) Worry inhibits distressing mental images
D) All of the above

Answer 75

D) All of the above

Question 76

Which of the following are treatments for GAD?

A) CBT, Acceptance and Mindfulness, Emotion Regulation Therapy, Attention Retraining, Medication
B) CBT and Medication only
C) Acceptance and Mindfulness and Attention Retraining only
D) Emotion Regulation Therapy and Medication only

Answer 76

A) CBT, Acceptance and Mindfulness, Emotion Regulation Therapy, Attention Retraining, Medication

Question 77

Fear is the immediate alarm reaction triggered by a(n):

actual danger
perceived danger
imminent danger
anticipated danger

Answer 77

perceived danger

Question 78

In vicarious conditioning of anxiety, fear responses are learned through ____________.

Answer 78

modelling

Question 79

Dimensions that appear important in identifying shared and unique factors across anxiety disorders are:

Multiple select question.

negative affectivity
aetiology
positive affectivity
epidemiology

Answer 79

negative affectivity

positive affectivity

Question 80

Which classification system separates phobic from other anxiety disorders:

ICD-9
DSM-IV
DSM-5
ICD-10

Answer 80

ICD-10

Question 81

The DSM-5 specifies _____ subtypes of phobias, categorised according to the primary focus of the fear.

6
7
5
4

Answer 81

4

Question 82

Barlow argues that
_________ alarms are the hallmark of anxiety disorders.

Answer 82

false

Question 83

___________ shapes expectations of negative events when confronted with a specific object or event.

Answer 83

Conditioning

Question 84

The greater prevalence of specific phobias in children has led some to suggest that they:

may remit without treatment

need separate diagnostic criteria to avoid overdiagnosis

are more impacted than adults

are developmentally normal

Answer 84

may remit without treatment

Question 85

The dimensions of emotion described by Brown and Barlow are:

Multiple select question.

positive affectivity
autonomic arousal
sympathetic arousal
negative affectivity

Answer 85

positive affectivity

autonomic arousal

negative affectivity

Question 86

According to the theory of prepared classical conditioning, it should be easier to develop phobic fears for:

Multiple select question.

birds
snakes
fish
spiders

Answer 86

snakes
spiders

Question 87

Specific phobias comprise fear reactions to a specific object/situation that are:

Multiple select question.

disproportionate
intense
consistent
transient

Answer 87

disproportionate
intense
consistent

Question 88

_____ involves confronting the most feared phobic stimuli and continuing exposure until the anxiety has decreased.

In vivo exposure
Extinction
Flooding
Habituation

Answer 88

Flooding

Question 89

For panic disorder to diagnosed, an individual must experience:

Multiple select question.

agoraphobia

recurrent panic attacks

persistent worry about future panic attacks

at least four panic attacks within a two-week period

Answer 89

recurrent panic attacks

persistent worry about future panic attacks

Question 90

The estimated lifetime prevalence of specific phobias is _______%.

18–20
3–5
7–9
13–15

Answer 90

7-9

Question 91

The lifetime prevalence estimate for agoraphobia in Australia is:

3.7
1.3
2.9
4.5

Answer 91

2.9

Question 92

______ models are best able to account for the aetiology of panic disorder and agoraphobia.

Cognitive
Behavioural
Learning
Psychodynamic

Answer 92

Cognitive

Question 93

Contemporary researchers agree that the theory of phobias being classically conditioned is unable to provide a(n) _______ explanation of their aetiology.

plausible
complete
possible
accurate

Answer 93

complete

Question 94

Effective medications for treating panic disorder and agoraphobia include which of the following?
Multiple answer choice:

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

benzodiazepines

antipsychotics

monoamine reuptake inhibitors

Answer 94

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

benzodiazepines

Question 95

Contemporary behavioural theorists emphasise the role of ________ in reducing phobic responses.

disinhibition
flooding
extinction
inhibitory learning

Answer 95

inhibitory learning
(Inhibitory learning involves the process of learning that certain feared stimuli or situations do not always lead to the feared outcome, which helps to reduce the phobic response over time. This approach focuses on creating new learning experiences that inhibit or counteract the fear response rather than simply exposing individuals to their fears)

Question 96

Coping strategies such as diaphragmatic breathing can _______ the effectiveness of exposure therapies by minimising the magnitude of the prediction error.

maximise
promote
enhance
undermine

Answer 96

enhance

Question 97

Which of the following situations is LEAST likely to be associated with agoraphobia?

waiting in line at the supermarket

catching the bus to work

going out with friends

going for a walk in the park

Answer 97

going out with friends

Question 98

On average, people will live with panic disorder for around _____
years before seeking treatment.

Answer 98

10

Question 99

The anxiety symptoms most troubling to sufferers of social anxiety disorder are those:

requiring medication

involving a physiological component

involving a cognitive component

visible to others

Answer 99

visible to others

Question 100

It is estimated that approximately ___% of the general population experience occasional panic attacks; however, only _____% go on to develop panic disorder.

5; 2
2; 1
7; 4
10; 3

Answer 100

10; 3

Question 101

On average, sufferers of social anxiety disorder seek treatment ___ years after onset.

14
8
10
12

Answer 101

14

Question 102

_______ exposure involves inducing physical sensations of panic.

Physiological
In vivo
Interoceptive
Graded

Answer 102

Interoceptive
(Interoceptive exposure is a technique used in cognitive-behavioral therapy to help individuals confront and reduce their fear of bodily sensations associated with panic attacks. By deliberately inducing these sensations in a controlled setting, individuals can learn to tolerate them and reduce their anxiety over time)

Question 103

Individuals with social anxiety disorder:

seek help soon after onset of the disorder

believe they have social deficits

create opportunities for social interaction

demonstrate underdeveloped social skills

Answer 103

believe they have social deficits

Question 104

Individuals with social anxiety disorder ultimately fear:

Multiple select question.

rejection
negative evaluation
abandonment
public speaking

Answer 104

rejection
negative evaluation

Question 105

According to Clark’s cognitive model of panic disorder, individuals misinterpret the physiological sensations of panic in a ______ way.

realistic
catastrophic
hypomanic
efficacious

Answer 105

catastrophic

Question 106

Some researchers have reported a mean duration of ______ years for untreated social anxiety disorder.

25
15
10
20

Answer 106

25

Question 107

From an inhibitory learning perspective, the emphasis of treatment is on:

gradual exposure to the feared situation

anxiety monitoring

habituation

identifying prediction errors

Answer 107

identifying prediction errors

Question 108

It is estimated that up to one ________ of the variability in familial transmission of social phobia is due to genetic factors.

third
half
fifth
quarter

Answer 108

third

Question 109

Safety behaviours are:

helpful in overcoming anxiety

those that protect the individual from objective danger

subtle avoidance behaviours

engaged following psychoeducation

Answer 109

subtle avoidance behaviours

Question 110

Individuals with generalised anxiety disorder tend to ________ the risk of negative events, and ______ their ability to manage them should they occur.

underestimate; overestimate

inaccurately; accurately

accurately; inaccurately

overestimate; underestimate

Answer 110

overestimate; underestimate

Question 111

The lifetime prevalence rate of GAD for the Australian population is ____%.

6.1
0.5
4.1
2.1

Answer 111

6.1

Question 112

In support of the information processing model of GAD are findings that sufferers:

selectively attend to threatening stimuli

demonstrate safety behaviours

interpret ambiguous scenarios as threatening

frequently engage in avoidance strategies to manage anxiety

Answer 112

selectively attend to threatening stimuli

interpret ambiguous scenarios as threatening

Question 113

Negative meta-beliefs:

are an example of Wells’ ‘Type 1’ worry

discriminate between GAD and other forms of anxiety

are present in all anxiety disorders

are largely accurate reflections of reality

Answer 113

discriminate between GAD and other forms of anxiety
(Negative meta-beliefs, such as the belief that worry is uncontrollable or inherently harmful, are often used to differentiate generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) from other anxiety disorders. These beliefs about the nature and consequences of worry play a significant role in GAD, distinguishing it from other conditions where worry or anxiety might manifest differently.)

Question 114

In the context of social anxiety disorder, the effectiveness of exposure therapy is enhanced when:

breathing retraining is included

social support is high

a cognitive rationale is provided

relaxation is concurrently engaged

Answer 114

a cognitive rationale is provided

Question 115

Barkovec and colleagues argue that worrying in thoughts:

takes less effort than worrying in images

emphasises the cognitive basis of GAD

is less distressing than processing emotional images

is an effective treatment for GAD

Answer 115

is less distressing than processing emotional images

Question 116

Despite the diversity of worries that occur in the context of GAD, most can be categorised as relating to:

Multiple select question.

social threat
physical threat
past negative events
fear of abandonment

Answer 116

social threat
physical threat

Question 117

GAD frequently co-occurs with:

Multiple select question.

psychosis
personality disorder
physical illness
panic disorder

Answer 117

personality disorder
panic disorder

Question 118

According to the information processing model, individuals with GAD overestimate:

Multiple select question.

the likelihood of negative events

the threat posed by others

the negative consequences of events

their ability to cope with everyday activities

Answer 118

the likelihood of negative events

the negative consequences of events

Question 119

Positive meta-beliefs maintain worry by promoting it as a helpful
__________ strategy.

Answer 119

coping

Question 120

Physiological arousal is lower when people worry:

in thoughts
in images
in the early morning
at night

Answer 120

in thoughts

Question 121

The intolerance of uncertainty model argues that people with GAD will:

experience better outcomes through therapies that emphasise ways of gaining control over the environment

readily seek treatment due to the impacts of the disorder

attempt to control situations with uncertain outcomes

be most distressed in situations in which they are able to assume control

Answer 121

attempt to control situations with uncertain outcomes

Question 122

GAD has a(n):

Multiple select question.

early age of onset
low prevalence rate
sporadic course
chronic course

Answer 122

early age of onset
chronic course

Question 123

The avoidance theory of worry posits that the everyday worries experienced by people with GAD:

are particularly adaptive during adolescence

encourage worry about underlying fears

help to protect against underlying fears

are less distressing than worries experienced by sufferers of social phobia

Answer 123

help to protect against underlying fears

(according to this theory, worrying serves as a protective mechanism by helping individuals avoid or distract themselves from more intense and distressing underlying fears or anxieties. It functions as a way to prevent these deeper fears from becoming overwhelming)

Question 124

Intolerance of uncertainty is argued to interact with:

Multiple select question.

high cognitive capacity

low physiological arousal

positive meta-beliefs about worry

have low problem-solving self-efficacy

Answer 124

positive meta-beliefs about worry

have low problem-solving self-efficacy

Question 125

Due to concerns with tolerance and dependence,
____________ are not considered the prescription of choice for GAD.

Answer 125

benzodiazepines

Question 126

The technique of worry exposure is often used in treating GAD when the source of worry:

requires strong imaginal exposure skills

has no possibility of ever occurring

is objectively distressing

is not able to be managed in real-life situations

Answer 126

is objectively distressing

Question 127

_____ meta-beliefs about worry may represent a vulnerability for anxiety in general.

Negative
Positive
Recurrent
Adaptive

Answer 127

Positive

Question 128

In mindfulness meditation, people learn to be more present-focused and learn to _________ their worries.

observe
ignore
change
challenge

Answer 128

observe

Question 129

A primary limitation of medication use in treating GAD is:

the costs associated with prescription medications

a return of symptoms once medication is ceased

high rates of addiction associated with their use

extreme side effects that impact wellbeing

Answer 129

a return of symptoms once medication is ceased

Question 130

CBT approaches to generalised anxiety disorder focus on:

removing reactions to worry

factors that maintain symptoms

removing triggers for worry from the environment

factors that triggered the initial worry

Answer 130

factors that maintain symptoms

Question 131

Which alternative approach to treating GAD has been found to result in improved outcomes compared to CBT?

cognitive therapy
mindfulness meditation
interoceptive exposure
interpersonal therapy

Answer 131

mindfulness meditation

Question 132

The intolerance of uncertainty model identifies three processes that maintain generalised anxiety disorder symptoms. One of them is:

a) holding positive beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.

b) holding negative beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.

c) having a high level of confidence in one’s ability to solve problems.

d) experiencing vivid negative images.

e) having low self-esteem.

Answer 132

a) holding positive beliefs about worry as a coping strategy.

Question 133

In the triple vulnerability model of anxiety, negative affectivity is:

a) feeling enthusiastic, active and alert.

b) feeling sad and lethargic.

c) subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger.

d) feeling grumpy and irritable.

e) a pessimistic display of emotions.

Answer 133

c) subjective distress involving anxiety, disgust and anger.

Question 134

According to Barlow (2002), the hallmark of anxiety is:

a) panic attacks.
b) vicarious acquisition.
c) true alarms.
d) false alarms.
e) distorted thoughts.

Answer 134

d) false alarms.

Question 135

Which of the following is not one of the new approaches for helping people with GAD?

a) interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT)
b) mindfulness meditation approaches
c) cognitive restructuring
d) increasing patient understanding of processes maintaining worry
e) eye movement desensitisation retraining (EMDR)

Answer 135

e) eye movement desensitisation retraining (EMDR)

Question 136

According to Clark’s model of panic disorder people with this disorder:

a) typically avoid places where a panic attack may occur.
b) are highly anxious.
c) are low on a measure of anxiety sensitivity.
d) catastrophise bodily sensations as dangerous.
e) hyperventilate.

Answer 136

d) catastrophise bodily sensations as dangerous.

Question 137

Seligman’s preparedness theory suggests that:

a) there is a biological/evolutionary component to phobic fears.
b) anxiety is due to expectation of negative outcomes.
c) phobias are founded in unconscious mental conflicts.
d) false alarms lead to heightened vigilance.
e) humans are prepared to deal with certain threats.

Answer 137

a) there is a biological/evolutionary component to phobic fears.

Question 138

An example of a social threat for sufferers of GAD is:

a) worrying about being the victim of a terrorist attack.
b) worrying about being involved in a car accident.
c) worrying about not being liked by others.
d) worrying about developing cancer.
e) None of the given options is correct.

Answer 138

c) worrying about not being liked by others.

Question 139

Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a lifetime prevalence in Australia of about:

a) 9.5 per cent.
b) 6.1 per cent.
c) 1.2 per cent.
d) 0.1 per cent.
e) 2.3 per cent.

Answer 139

b) 6.1 per cent.

Question 140

In vicarious acquisition, fear is acquired by:

a) classical conditioning.
b) verbal transmission of fear-related information.
c) observing another person responding with fear to a threat.
d) All of the given options are correct.
e) None of the given options is correct.

Answer 140

c) observing another person responding with fear to a threat.

Question 141

Which of the following is not a change to anxiety disorders in the DSM-5?

a) There is a minimum period to receive a specific phobia diagnosis.
b) Agoraphobia has become a distinct disorder from panic disorder.
c) A distinction is made between performance social phobia and generalised social phobia.
d) OCD is listed within ‘Anxiety and Obsessive-Compulsive Spectrum’.
e) Specific phobia and panic disorder are combined into one diagnosis.

Answer 141

e) Specific phobia and panic disorder are combined into one diagnosis.

Question 142

A panic disorder differs from a panic attack in that:

a) panic disorders are more extreme.
b) panic attacks come ‘out of the blue’.
c) a panic disorder is more likely to be comorbid with depression.
d) a panic disorder involves worry about having additional panic attacks.
e) None of the given options is correct.

Answer 142

d) a panic disorder involves worry about having additional panic attacks.

Question 143

In agoraphobia sufferers avoid being in situations where:

a) there is a need to relate easily to others.
b) a panic attack may occur and escape from the situation is difficult.
c) others may see them.
d) they are far away from home.
e) None of the given options is correct.

Answer 143

b) a panic attack may occur and escape from the situation is difficult.

Question 144

The relief from escape and avoiding a feared stimulus is an example of:
a) positive reinforcement.
b) negative reinforcement.
c) reinforcement of avoidance.
d) positive punishment.
e) None of the given options is correct.

Answer 144

b) negative reinforcement.

Question 145

Which of the following is not true of cognitive behaviour therapy in the treatment of generalised anxiety disorder?

a) Treatment gains are maintained after therapy stops.
b) Clients are assisted to identify negative beliefs.
c) By the end of therapy, at most only 57 per cent of clients score in the non-clinical range on measures of symptoms.
d) Clients are taught to suppress their worries.
e) Clients are taught to re-appraise negative predictions about threats.

Answer 145

d) Clients are taught to suppress their worries.

Question 146

The Rapee (1991) information processing model of the development of generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) suggests that individuals with GAD selectively attend to:
a) body sensations of impending panic.
b) memories of trauma.
c) stress neurochemicals.
d) threatening information.
e) negative social cues.

Answer 146

d) threatening information.