Week 4 - Depressive and bipolar disorders Flashcards

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1
Q

Disorder characterised by persistent sad, empty, or irritable mood accompanied by a range of other features, such as feelings of worthlessness, a sense of failure, and low energy.

a) Depressive Disorder
b) Bipolar Disorder
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

A

a) Depressive disorder

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2
Q

Which of the following disorders involves one or more major depressive episodes?

a) Major Depressive Disorder
b) Persistent Depressive Disorder
c) Bipolar Disorder
d) Seasonal Affective Disorder

A

a) Major depressive disorder

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3
Q

In ancient Greece, the term used to denote a mental condition characterized by fear and depression was:

a) Mania
b) Melancholia
c) Psychosis
d) Neurosis

A

b) melancholia

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4
Q

German psychiatrist __________ ___________ (1896) identified ‘manic depressive insanity’ as one of the major categories of mental illness. Manic depressive insanity encompassed the conditions that are currently categorized as bipolar disorders and depressive disorders.

a) Emil Kraepelin
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Carl Jung
d) Kurt Schneider

A

a) Emil Kraepelin

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5
Q

Kraepelin’s concept was controversial because it:

a) Classified all disorders of mood together
b) Focused solely on depressive episodes
c) Emphasized the biological over the psychological aspects
d) Ignored manic episodes completely

A

a) Classified all disorders of mood together

(Classified all disorders of mood together, rather than distinguishing between those who experience depressive episodes alone and those who experience both depressive and manic episodes (currently termed depressive disorders and bipolar disorders, respectively)

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6
Q

Which psychiatrist made a distinction between depression and bipolar disorder, influencing the current classification system?

a) Emil Kraepelin
b) Karl Leonhard
c) Sigmund Freud
d) Aaron Beck

A

b) Karl Leonhard

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7
Q

Which term is commonly used to refer to major depressive disorder as classified in the DSM-5’s chapter on ‘Depressive Disorders’?

a) Clinical depression
b) Chronic depression
c) Major depression
d) Persistent depression

A

c) Major depression

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8
Q

In ICD-10, major depression is known as _____ ______ disorder:

a) Major depressive
b) Severe depressive
c) Recurrent depressive
d) Clinical depressive

A

c) Recurrent depressive

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9
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Major Depressive Disorder include:

a) A period of at least 1 week with symptoms of anxiety and loss of interest.
b) A period of at least 2 weeks with feelings of depression, sadness, or loss of interest in nearly all activities.
c) A period of at least 3 weeks with significant weight changes and sleep issues.
d) A period of at least 4 weeks with symptoms of irritability and difficulty concentrating.

A

b) A period of at least 2 weeks with feelings of depression, sadness, or loss of interest in nearly all activities.

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10
Q

Inability to experience pleasure from previously pleasurable activities is known as:

a) Anhedonia
b) Dysphoria
c) Hyperthymia
d) Euphoria

A

a) Anhedonia

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11
Q

This period of low mood must represent a change in the person’s functioning and be accompanied by at least ________ of the following symptoms:
∙ significant weight loss when not dieting, or weight gain, or a decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
∙ insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
∙ loss of energy or fatigue nearly every day
∙ motor restlessness (‘psychomotor agitation’) or slowed movements (‘psychomotor retardation’) nearly every day and observable to others
∙ diminished concentration or ability to think, or indecisiveness nearly every day
∙ feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
∙ recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a plan or a suicide attempt or a
specific plan for committing suicide.

A

four

(these symptoms also need to cause significant
distress and impairment in the person’s life—impacting on his/her social, occupational and other important roles)

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12
Q

An extension to the diagnosis used by DSM-5 that further clarifies the course, severity, or special features of the disorder is known as:

A) Diagnostic Criteria
B) Specifiers
C) Subtypes
D) Comorbidities

A

B) specifier

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13
Q

Which of the following is a specifier for Major Depressive Disorder according to the DSM-5?

A) Severity (mild, moderate, or severe)
B) Number of Episodes (single or recurrent)
C) Degree of Recovery (in partial remission or in full remission)
D) Presence of Psychotic Features
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

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14
Q

Depression in which the person experiences delusions and/or hallucinations is referred to as Major Depressive Disorder with:

A) Anxious Distress
B) Melancholic Features
C) Psychotic Features
D) Atypical Features

A

C) psychotic features

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15
Q

Which of the following is a hallmark of Major Depressive Disorder with melancholic features?

A) Increased appetite and weight gain with a lack of early morning awakening

B) Severe anhedonia, worsening mood in the morning, early morning awakening, and significant weight loss

C) Frequent mood swings and psychomotor agitation without significant appetite changes

D) Stable mood with psychomotor retardation and no excessive guilt

A

B) Severe anhedonia, worsening mood in the morning, early morning awakening, and significant weight loss

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16
Q

Which feature of Major Depressive Disorder involves movement disturbances like immobility or excessive, purposeless activity?

A) Melancholic features

B) Atypical features

C) Catatonic features

D) Psychotic features

A

C) Catatonic features

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17
Q

Women with psychosocial stressors such as lack of support, feeding difficulties, and a history of depression are at higher risk of major depressive disorder with which onset?

A) Late-onset

B) Peripartum

C) Seasonal

D) Post-traumatic

A

B) peripartum

(during pregnancy or within four weeks after childbirth)

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18
Q

Which of the following is considered more serious than the “baby blues” and includes severe symptoms during and after pregnancy?

A) Postpartum anxiety

B) Peripartum depression

C) Seasonal affective disorder

D) Generalized anxiety disorder

A

B) Peripartum depression

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19
Q

Episodes of depressed mood, often referred to as ‘the baby blues,’ can occur in up to what percentage of women within 1–10 days after childbirth?

A) 30%

B) 50%

C) 60%

D) 70%

A

D) 70%

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20
Q

Major depressive disorder with which pattern is characterized by episodes that occur at a specific time of the year, often in autumn or winter?

A) Melancholic

B) Peripartum

C) Seasonal

D) Atypical

A

C) seasonal

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21
Q

Major depressive disorder with significant anxiety symptoms, such as irrational worry and a sense of impending threat, is known as major depressive disorder with:

A) Atypical features

B) Anxious distress

C) Catatonic features

D) Psychotic features

A

B) anxious distress

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22
Q

Comorbidity between depression and anxiety, is found in about
______ per cent of people with major depressive disorder.

a) 20
b) 30
c) 50
d) 70

A

c) 50

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23
Q

The presence of anxiety in depression increases the risk of suicide and predicts a longer length of the depressive episode.

True/False

A

True

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24
Q

Under DSM-5, which change allows for the diagnosis of major depressive disorder in individuals with symptoms similar to bereavement?

A) Bereavement is no longer an exclusion criterion.

B) Bereavement symptoms are now treated with medication.

C) Bereavement is categorized as a psychotic disorder.

D) Bereavement is considered a mood disorder.

A

A) Bereavement is no longer an exclusion criterion

(In previous editions of the DSM, the presence of depressive symptoms in the context of bereavement was often excluded from a diagnosis of MDD. However, the DSM-5 recognizes that major depressive disorder can occur in the context of bereavement and allows for diagnosis if the symptoms are severe enough and cause significant impairment)

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25
Q

According to DSM-5 guidelines and to minimise the chances of inappropriately diagnosing with mental illness, which of the following is a key distinction between non-pathological grief and major depressive disorder?

A) Grief involves a lack of interest in daily activities, while depression does not.

B) Grief is characterized by preoccupation with thoughts about the deceased, while depression involves self-critical thoughts.

C) Grief results in significant weight gain, while depression does not.

D) Grief includes hallucinations, while depression does not.

A

B) Grief is characterized by preoccupation with thoughts about the deceased, while depression involves self-critical thoughts.

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26
Q

DSM-5 replaced dysthymic disorder with which term to describe a depressive disorder lasting more than two years with mood disturbance and at least two other symptoms?

A) Major depressive disorder

B) Persistent depressive disorder

C) Atypical depressive disorder

D) Seasonal affective disorder

A

B) Persistent depressive disorder

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27
Q

Which new diagnostic category introduced in the DSM-5 is characterized by severe and persistent irritability in children, with temper outbursts that are out of proportion to the situation?

A) Major depressive disorder

B) Persistent depressive disorder

C) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

D) Oppositional defiant disorder

A

C) Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

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28
Q

What is a limitation of diagnosing disruptive mood dysregulation disorder due to its similarity with other DSM-5 diagnoses as viewed in Europe and Australasia ?

A) It lacks treatment options.

B) It is rarely diagnosed in children.

C) It overlaps with disorders emphasizing behavioral and emotional dysregulation.

D) It is exclusively diagnosed in adults.

A

C) It overlaps with disorders emphasizing behavioral and emotional dysregulation.

(Diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is highly prevalent in the US)

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29
Q

Diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is challenging due to its similarity with which other disorders?

A) Schizophrenia and PTSD

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder and social anxiety disorder

C) Oppositional defiant disorder, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, impulse control disorders, and bipolar disorder

D) Generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder

A

C) Oppositional defiant disorder, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, impulse control disorders, and bipolar disorder

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30
Q

According to the Australian subtyping model, which three broad classes of depressive disorders are suggested?

A) Psychotic, atypical, and bipolar

B) Melancholic, non-melancholic, and seasonal

C) Psychotic, melancholic, and non-melancholic

D) Anxious, psychotic, and neurotic

A

C) Psychotic, melancholic, and non-melancholic

(psychotic,
melancholic (both biologically based) and non-melancholic (driven by life-event stressors and psychological factors).

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31
Q

Depressive disorders are among the most prevalent psychological problems in Australia with higher rates in ________ 5.1% compared to _________ 3.1%.

A) Men; women

B) Women; men

C) Adolescents; adults

D) Rural areas; urban areas

A

B) Women; men

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32
Q

Rates of dysthymia are about _____ %for men and ______% for women.

A

1
1.5

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33
Q

It has been estimated that ______ in 10 Australians are affected by someone close to them suffering from a mood disorder

A

1

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34
Q

Psychological distress in the Australian population has significantly reduced between 1995 and 2011 due to effective treatments.

True/False

A

False

(has not changed despite available treatments)

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35
Q

Depressive disorders in children and adolescents have been steadily ___________ (increasing/decreasing) over the past 5–10 years in most developed countries.

A

Increasing

(girls have higher rates than boys)

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36
Q

Women are found to be twice as likely to experience depression, which is believed to be due to:

A) Women talking more readily about it and biological factors such as hormones

B) Increased rates of substance abuse and lack of social support

C) Economic disparity and lifestyle choices

D) Higher prevalence of chronic illness and social isolation

A

A) Women talking more readily about it and biological factors such as hormones

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37
Q

Australian data released in 2015 indicated that _____ per cent of Australian adolescents (aged 12–17 years) had depressive disorders, including major depressive disorder and dysthymia, over a 12-month period.

A

5

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38
Q

Depressive disorders can affect people at any age. Onset of a first episode of depression can occur from as young as ______ years of age

A

3

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39
Q

Median age of onset for mood disorders is about ______ years of age.

A) 10

B) 15

C) 25

D) 30

A

D) 30

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40
Q

In Australia, studies have found that approximately _____ percent of those who experience depression meet criteria by the age of 25.

A) 20%

B) 50%

C) 60%

D) 70%

A

A) 20%

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41
Q

Follow-up studies have demonstrated that up to ______ per cent of those with a depressive disorder will recover within the first six months following treatment.

A

50

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42
Q

Major depressive disorder has a highly recurrent character. About _____ percent of people who recover from a first episode will have no further episodes, while many will experience additional episodes or not recover fully from the first episode.

A) 25%

B) 50%

C) 65%

D) 75%

A

B) 50%

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43
Q

Which of the following are the four main problems associated with depression?

A) Increased risk of suicide

B) Difficulties with occupational and social activities

C) Anxiety disorders

D) Physical health problems

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

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44
Q

The rate of suicide in the community from
depressive disorders is estimated to be approximately 3.5 per cent, with a higher preponderance
of _______ suicides (6.9%) over ________ suicides (1.1%)

A

male
female

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45
Q

Depression is associated with an increased rate of suicide attempts and successful suicide, with as many as _____ percent of people who take their own life suffering from depression.

A) 20%

B) 40%

C) 60%

D) 75%

A

D) 75%

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46
Q

Suicide rates in Australia appear to have been _________ (increasing/declining) since the late 1990s?

A

declining

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47
Q

The aetiology of depression is believed to include a combination of which factors?

A) Biological, psychological, social, and environmental

B) Genetic, cognitive, cultural, and economic

C) Behavioral, interpersonal, educational, and familial

D) Neurological, developmental, geographical, and historical

A

A) Biological, psychological, social, and environmental

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48
Q

Genetics play a significant part in the development of depression. Current understanding highlights the interplay between genetic vulnerability and stressful life events. Which example illustrates this interplay?

A) Inherited anxious traits in children may lead to the development of chronic physical illnesses.

B) Genetic factors alone can determine the onset of depression without any environmental influence.

C) Inherited anxious traits in children may contribute to overprotective or authoritarian parenting styles, potentially undermining the child’s sense of mastery and increasing vulnerability to anxiety and depression.

D) Genetic predispositions are irrelevant in the presence of stressful life events.

A

C) Inherited anxious traits in children may contribute to overprotective or authoritarian parenting styles, potentially undermining the child’s sense of mastery and increasing vulnerability to anxiety and depression.

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49
Q

The main neurotransmitters implicated in depression include:

A) Serotonin

B) Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

C) Dopamine

D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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50
Q

Catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline, and dopamine) and serotonin belong to a family of neurotransmitters called __________.

A) Amino acids

B) Monoamines

C) Peptides

D) Neurohormones

A

B) Monoamines

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51
Q

Monoamines are concentrated in the __________ system, a part of the brain associated with integrating goal-directed activities.

A) Limbic

B) Somatic

C) Autonomic

D) Reward

A

A) Limbic

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52
Q

Early theories suggested that depression was caused by a reduction in the availability of __________ neurotransmitters. More recent theories have implicated abnormalities in the number and sensitivity of receptors in __________.

A) amino acid; the brainstem

B) monoamine; synapses

C) peptide; the hypothalamus

D) cholinergic; the cerebellum

A

B) monoamine; synapses

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53
Q

Euroendocrine (hormonal) theories suggest that hyperactivity in the __________ axis plays a role in the development of depression.

A) Hypothalamic-pituitary/adrenal (HPA)

B) Thyroid-stimulating

C) Sympathetic-parasympathetic

D) Renin-angiotensin

A

A) Hypothalamic-pituitary/adrenal (HPA)

(This axis is critical to the body’s response to stress and produces stress hormones involved in the fight or flight response)

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54
Q

Neurophysiological theories focus on structural or functional abnormalities in certain brain structures, including the:

A) Pre-frontal cortex, hippocampus, anterior cingulate cortex, and amygdala

B) Cerebellum, basal ganglia, occipital lobe, and thalamus

C) Medulla, pons, temporal lobe, and substantia nigra

D) Hypothalamus, pituitary gland, parietal lobe, and corpus callosum

A

A) Pre-frontal cortex, hippocampus, anterior cingulate cortex, and amygdala

(Research yet to determine whether
these abnormalities are a cause or a consequence of depression)

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55
Q

Environmental factors (job loss, divorce, loss of loved one) are suggested to precede a depressive episode by how many months?

A) 1-3 months

B) 3-6 months

C) 6-9 months

D) 9-12 months

A

C) 6-9 months

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56
Q

Early cognitive theories, such as the learned helplessness model of depression (Seligman), proposed that depression is a learned response to adverse events perceived as:

A) Controllable

B) Avoidable

C) Uncontrollable

D) Predictable

A

C) Uncontrollable

(based on observation from electric shock experiment on animals who gave up trying to escape)

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57
Q

The depressive attributional style interprets negative life events due to:

A) Internal, global, and stable factors

B) External, specific, and temporary factors

C) Internal, specific, and unstable factors

D) External, global, and stable factors

A

A) Internal, global, and stable factors

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58
Q

Which of the following is an example of an internal attribution in the depressive attributional style?

A) “I failed because the test was too hard.”

B) “I failed because I didn’t study enough.”

C) “I failed because the teacher doesn’t like me.”

D) “I failed because of bad luck.”

A

B) “I failed because I didn’t study enough.

(the individual’s own fault)

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59
Q

Which of the following is an example of a global attribution in the depressive attributional style?

A) “I’m bad at this job, so I must be bad at all jobs.”

B) “I failed this task because I wasn’t focused.”

C) “I didn’t get the promotion because the competition was tough.”

D) “I made a mistake in this project due to a lack of experience.”

A

A) “I’m bad at this job, so I must be bad at all jobs.”

(applicable to all situations)

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60
Q

Which of the following is an example of a stable attribution in the depressive attributional style?

A) “I didn’t succeed because I had an off day.”

B) “I always struggle with tasks like this.”

C) “I didn’t do well because I was distracted.”

D) “I failed because of temporary external factors.”

A

B) “I always struggle with tasks like this.”

(unchanging or invariable)

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61
Q

Aaron Beck’s major cognitive theory of depression proposed that negative experiences in childhood may result in the development of dysfunctional core beliefs about the:

A) Self, others, and world

B) Self, family, and friends

C) Self, environment, and fate

D) Self, success, and relationships

A

A) Self, others, and world

(Individuals generally deal with these negative core beliefs by adopting compensatory
strategies or rules that protect them from developing depression (e.g., ‘as long as I’m in relationship then I’m lovable’).

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62
Q

According to Beck, the negative view of the self, the world, and the future is maintained by cognitive distortions. Which of the following are errors in thinking likely to be engaged in by depressed people?

A) Arbitrary inference

B) Magnification and minimization

C) Personalization

D) Overgeneralization

E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

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63
Q

When a person draws a conclusion in the absence of supporting evidence or despite the presence of contradictory evidence.

A) Arbitrary inference

B) Selective inference

C) Overgeneralization

D) Catastrophic thinking

A

A) Arbitrary inference

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64
Q

Which of the following is an example of arbitrary inference?

A) “I didn’t get the job because I wasn’t qualified enough.”

B) “I didn’t get invited to the party, so I must have done something to offend them.”

C) “I forgot to call back, so I’m a bad friend.”

D) “I didn’t understand the lecture, so I must be bad at this subject.”

A

B) “I didn’t get invited to the party, so I must have done something to offend them.”

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65
Q

A statement in which a person magnifies perceived failure, such as ‘I couldn’t answer that question in class, everyone thinks I am such an idiot,’ is an example of ___________.

A) Arbitrary inference

B) Personalization

C) Magnification

D) Overgeneralization

A

C) Magnification

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66
Q

Statement in which a person minimises or discounts his/her achievements such as ‘I managed to get a part-time job in the company but they were probably desperate to hire someone’ is an example of:

A) Self-deprecation
B) Minimisation
C) Rationalisation
D) Overgeneralisation

A

B) Minimisation

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67
Q

What is the dominant behavioral theory proposal regarding the aetiology and maintenance of depression?

A) Cognitive distortions lead to depression.
B) Life events reduce positive reinforcement opportunities and in turn increase the risk of depression
C) Unresolved unconscious conflicts cause depression.
D) Neurochemical imbalances are the primary cause.

A

B) Life events reduce positive reinforcement opportunities and in turn increase the risk of depression

(e.g. life events, poor coping skills)

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68
Q

When a person draws a conclusion based on a single event (e.g., ‘My boyfriend broke up with me last week. I’m hopeless with relationships’).

A) Catastrophising
B) Personalisation
C) Overgeneralisation
D) All-or-Nothing Thinking

A

C) Overgeneralisation

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69
Q

Relating events to oneself in the absence of any clear evidence (e.g., ‘Terry was frowning when he saw me in the shop. I must have done something to make him angry’).

A) Catastrophising
B) Personalisation
C) Overgeneralisation
D) Discounting

A

B) Personalisation

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70
Q

Which theory holds that depression is a form of pathological grief.

A) Cognitive
B) Behavioral
C) Psychoanalytic
D) Biological

A

C) Psychoanalytic

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71
Q
A
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72
Q

Conditions or variables associated with a reduced risk or chance of developing a disorder are known as:

A) Risk factors
B) Protective factors
C) Precipitating factors
D) Maintaining factors

A

B) Protective factors

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73
Q

Family interaction style in which family members are overly protective and self-sacrificing towards the person with a psychological disorder while also expressing high levels of criticism and hostility, potentially contributing to the person’s relapse, is known as:

A) Expressed Emotion
B) Family Systems Theory
C) Enmeshment
D) Emotional Support

A

A) Expressed Emotion

(EE) = social factors

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74
Q

Which of the following categories includes medications for the treatment of depression

A) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
B) Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
C) Serotonin Noradrenalin Reuptake Inhibitors (SNRIs)
D) monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

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75
Q

Medications frequently used for depression that work by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters or increasing the sensitivity of neuron receptors in the brain are known as:

A) Antipsychotics
B) Antidepressants
C) Anxiolytics
D) Stimulants

A

B) Antidepressants

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76
Q

Medications are used to treat psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations.

A) Antidepressant
B) Anxiolytic
C) Antipsychotic
D) Mood Stabilize

A

B) Antipsychotic

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77
Q

In terms of efficacy, newer forms of antidepressants (such as SSRIs) were similar to tricyclic antidepressants for the treatment of depression; however, newer meds have a lower dropout rate due to:

A) Higher efficacy
B) Fewer side effects
C) Greater cost-effectiveness
D) Faster onset of action

A

B) Fewer side effects

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78
Q

(rTMS) is a biological treatment that exposes patients to repeated, high-intensity magnetic pulses that are focused on particular brain structures in order to stimulate them.

A) Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation
B) Repetitive Transcranial Microstimulation
C) Radiological Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation
D) Reactive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation

A

A) Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation

(approved in US, further research is required to refine and develop rTMS as a general treatment for depressive disorders)

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79
Q

Biological treatment in which the vagus nerve (the part of the autonomic nervous system that carries information from the head, neck, thorax, and abdomen to several areas of the brain) is stimulated by a small electronic device similar to a cardiac pacemaker, which is surgically implanted under a patient’s skin in the left chest wall, is known as:

A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
B) Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)
C) Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)
D) Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS)

A

C) Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)

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80
Q

Treatment that involves exposure to bright light and is used particularly during the winter months for individuals with seasonal affective disorder is known as:

A) Light Therapy
B) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
C) Electroconvulsive Therapy
D) Interpersonal Therapy

A

A) Light Therapy

(one study showed it to be more effective than pharmacotherapy)

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81
Q

Treatment for mood disorders that involves the induction of a brain seizure by passing an electrical current through the patient’s brain while they are anaesthetised is known as:

A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
B) Repetitive Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (rTMS)
C) Vagus Nerve Stimulation (VNS)
D) Deep Brain Stimulation (DBS)

A

A) Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

(for severe cases)

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82
Q

ECT is usually delivered to the __________ side of the brain to minimize the likelihood of long-term memory and learning problems.

A) Right
B) Left
C) Both
D) Neither

A

A) Right

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83
Q

Scheduling is a behavioral technique entailing planning a gradual increase in the level of pleasant activities the client engages in as a way of improving his/her mood.

A) Pleasant Activity
B) Behavioral Activation
C) Activity Monitoring
D) Cognitive Restructuring

A

A) Pleasant Activity

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84
Q

A key cognitive technique is __________ restructuring, where the client is introduced to the ________ model in which activating events trigger dysfunctional beliefs that in turn result in negative consequences (i.e., negative mood and behaviors).

A) Behavioral; DEI
B) Cognitive; ABC
C) Emotional; DEF
D) Rational; XYZ

A

B) cognitive; ABC

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85
Q
A
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86
Q

(IPT) is a short-term psychological treatment originally developed by Gerald Klerman, Myrna Weissman, and their colleagues for the treatment of depression; it addresses the client’s interpersonal problems as a way of improving their psychological symptoms.

A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
B) Interpersonal Therapy
C) Dialectical Behavior Therapy
D) Psychodynamic Therapy

A

B) Interpersonal Therapy

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87
Q

Current treatment guidelines state that IPT is as effective as CBT in the treatment of:

A) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
B) Schizophrenia
C) Moderately Severe Depression
D) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder

A

C) Moderately Severe Depression

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88
Q

Therapies focused on uncovering and resolving unconscious conflicts that drive psychological symptoms.

A

psychodynamic
therapies

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89
Q

Historically, the term
____________ was used to describe both mental illness characterised by fear and depression, as well as a depressed.

A

melancholia

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90
Q

The risk of suicide increases if depression is comorbid with _______.

A

anxiety

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91
Q

Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder is most likely to be diagnosed in ___________who behave in developmentally inappropriate ways.

A

children

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92
Q

Among Australian adults, the prevalence of major depressive disorder is estimated to be ___% for women over a 12-month period.

1.1
3.1
5.1
7.1

A

5.1

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93
Q

Which of the following have been associated with a heightened risk of developing depression in young people?

Multiple select question.

substance abuse
genetic vulnerability
high social
connectedness
trauma history

A

substance abuse
genetic vulnerability
trauma history

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94
Q

Epidemiological data suggest that the median age of onset for mood disorders is about ______ years of age.

A

30

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95
Q

The distinction between depression and bipolar disorder was first made by:

Karl Leonhand
Emil Kraeplin
Edward Thorndike
Hippocrates

A

Karl Leonhand

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96
Q

Zoe gave birth to her second child three weeks ago. During the first two weeks following the birth, she experienced some symptoms of depressed mood. Zoe was most likely suffering from:

major depressive disorder with peripartum onset

‘baby blues’

dysthymia

major depressive disorder with melancholic features

A

‘baby blues’

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97
Q

Which of the following
have been associated with an increased risk of relapse for major depressive disorder?

Multiple select question.

earlier age of onset

ongoing life stressors

full resolution of symptoms following the first episode

fewer previous depressive episodes

A

earlier age of onset

ongoing life stressors

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98
Q

A mood disturbance characterised by severe temper outbursts and persistent irritability is referred to as _____.

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

bipolar disorder

intermittent explosive disorder

PTSD

A

disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

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99
Q

Approximately ______% of depressed individuals hospitalised for their disorder successfully complete suicide.

15
35
25
45

A

15

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100
Q

Among Australian adults, the prevalence of major depressive disorder is estimated to be ___% for men over a 12-month period.

3.1
1.1
5.1
7.1

A

3.1

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101
Q

Australian data from 2015 indicates that up to ______% of adolescents will experience a depressive disorder within any 12-month period.

12
5
7
15

A

5

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102
Q

Australian researchers have found that approximately 20% of individuals who experience depression meet criteria by the age of ______ years.

18
25
15
21

A

25

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103
Q

Researchers have demonstrated that up to ______% of those with a depressive disorder will recover within the first six months of treatment.

60
70
50
40

A

50

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104
Q

Suicidal _________
refers to thoughts about suicide.

A

ideation

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105
Q

For younger sufferers, depression can negatively impact academic __________.

A

achievement

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106
Q

Which of the following anxiety disorders commonly precede the development of depressive disorders?

Multiple select question.

specific phobia
OCD
GAD
panic disorder

A

GAD
panic disorder

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107
Q

Researchers have found an association between the experience of depression and the following physical health conditions:

Multiple select question.

cerebral palsy
diabetes
cancer
cardiovascular disease

A

diabetes
cancer
cardiovascular disease

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108
Q

Neuroendocrine theorists emphasise the role of hyperactivity in the _____

pre-frontal cortex
limbic system
synapses
HPA axis

A

HPA axis

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109
Q

It has been estimated that as many as ________% of people who complete suicide suffered from depression.

90
75
80
85

A

75

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110
Q

Higher rates of sick leave from work associated with depression can result in:

Multiple select question.

financial strain

lowered work productivity

increased motivation for change

increased social support provision

A

financial strain

lowered work productivity

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111
Q

It is suggested that environmental factors are more likely to trigger depression when they interact with:

Multiple select question.

high social support

biological vulnerabilities

pre-existing resilient capabilities

learnt psychological vulnerabilities

A

biological vulnerabilities

learnt psychological vulnerabilities

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112
Q

Depression has been correlated with poorer
__________ functioning, which may increase the risk of physical illness.

A

immune

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113
Q

Individuals with a family history of depression are _______ times more likely to develop the disorder.

3–4
1–2
2–3
4–5

A

2–3

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114
Q

Life events that include a sense of ______ and _______ are frequently associated with the onset of a depressive episode.

Multiple select question.

failure
satisfaction
loss
empowerment

A

failure
loss

115
Q

Rachel was in a busy shopping centre when she saw her friend Lynn across the other side of the food court. She called out to her, but Lynn did not answer. Objectively, this was because she may not have heard her. However, Rachel interpreted this as Lynn being angry at her. This is an example of what type of cognitive error?.

arbitrary inference
overgeneralisation
magnification
personalisation

A

personalisation

116
Q

Behavioural theories of depression focus on the
___________ associated with depressed and non-depressed behaviours.

A

contingencies

117
Q

Psychoanalytic theories of depression conceptualise the experience as a form of:

pathological grief
negative behaviour
negative cognitions
melancholia

A

pathological grief

118
Q

The absence of an intimate relationship can be a risk factor for depression, particularly for _________,

A

women

119
Q

The main neurotransmitters implicated in depression are:

Multiple select question.

dopamine
GABA
serotonin
noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

A

dopamine

serotonin

noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

120
Q

Laura was recently told she was unsuccessful in gaining the job she applied for. When telling her mum, Laura said ‘I’ll never get a job. I’m never going to be good enough.’ This type of thinking is an example of what cognitive distortion?

arbitrary inference
overgeneralisation
magnification
personalisation

A

overgeneralisation

121
Q

Which of the following factors may protect against the development of depression?

Multiple select question.

high family cohesion
high expressed emotion
high anxiety
high social connectedness

A

high family cohesion
high social connectedness

122
Q

As the symptoms of depression can negatively impact social interactions, this can lead to greater social ______.

interaction
support
competence
isolation

A

isolation

123
Q

Compared to tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs:

have more side effects

are markedly less effective in managing symptoms

are markedly more effective in managing symptoms

have fewer side effects

A

have fewer side effects

124
Q

Serotonin, noradrenaline and dopamine belong to a family of neurotransmitters called __________.

A

monoamines

125
Q

Beck argues that there is a relationship between negative cognitions and depressive symptoms, such that:

they perpetuate each other

negative cognitions cannot occur in the absence of depressive symptoms

both will respond to the effects of medication

depressive symptoms will always precede negative cognitions

A

they perpetuate each other

126
Q

The purpose of pleasant activity scheduling is to:

improve sleep

decrease reliance on medication

decrease engagement in negative activities

improve mood

A

improve mood

127
Q

Within interpersonal psychotherapy, key target areas for treatment include:

Multiple select question.

dysfunctional cognitions
interpersonal disputes
grief from loss
life transitions

A

interpersonal disputes
grief from loss
life transitions

128
Q

Psychodynamic therapists assist a client to gain insight into the ______ that underpin their depressive symptoms.

negative behaviours
dysfunctional cognitions
interpersonal stressors
conflicts

A

conflicts

129
Q

Bright light therapy may be particularly effective for the treatment of depression with:

catatonia
peripartum onset
seasonal pattern
psychotic features

A

seasonal pattern

130
Q

The most common method of relapse prevention for depression in Australia is to:

continue medication use
begin use of medication
change the medication being used
cease use of medication

A

continue medication use

131
Q

In the ABC model, activating events trigger dysfunctional __________
which result in negative consequences.

A

beliefs

132
Q

According to Beck’s theory of depression, individuals have dysfunctional negative beliefs about:

Multiple select question.

the world
themselves
the past
others

A

the world
themselves
others

133
Q

IPT targets ________ that maintain or exacerbate factors contributing to depression.

the cognitive triad

negative cognitions

negative self-referent thoughts

maladaptive interpersonal skills

A

maladaptive interpersonal skills

134
Q

Most interventions to prevent depression teach skills in which areas?

Multiple select question.

interpersonal skills
sleep management
coping skills
meditation

A

interpersonal skills

coping skills

135
Q

Many empirically validated methods of relapse prevention for depression are based on ______ principles.

mindfulness
ACT
CBT
IPT

A

CBT

136
Q

_________ monitoring forms can assist a client to identify dysfunctional thinking patterns.

A

Thought

137
Q

Prevention programs for depression that are directed towards all members of a population have shown
_________ effect.

A

inconsistent

138
Q

Prevention programs for depression have been found to be most effective when the targeted group:

has some risk of developing depression

has internet access

have no history of depression

is highly educated

A

has some risk of developing depression

139
Q

Interpersonal psychotherapy focuses on interpersonal problems that may trigger or __________
a depressive episode.

A

maintain

140
Q

Mood disorder marked by manic/hypomanic episodes and depressive episodes (previously called manic-depression) is known as:

A) Major Depressive Disorder
B) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C) Bipolar Disorder
D) Schizoaffective Disorder

A

C) Bipolar disorder

141
Q

Throughout most of history, mania and depression were viewed as separate illnesses. However, a turning point for the contemporary view of bipolar disorder took place in the 19th century in France when Jean-Pierre _________ referred to the condition as the cycle of madness.

A) Pinel
B) Falret
C) Esquirol
D) Charcot

A

B) Falret

142
Q

During the late 19th century, __________ formally made the landmark distinction between ‘manic depressive insanity’ and other forms of severe mental illness, particularly ‘dementia praecox’ (an early term for schizophrenia).

A) Sigmund Freud
B) Emil Kraepelin
C) Jean-Pierre Falret
D) Karl Jaspers

A

B) Emil Kraepelin

143
Q

Who argued that the term ‘manic depressive insanity’ was too inclusive and coined the term bipolar disorder to refer to a condition where individuals experience both depressive and manic episodes, and distinguished this condition from one involving depressive episodes alone.

A) Emil Kraepelin
B) John Cade
C) Karl Leonhard
D) Sigmund Freud

A

Karl Leonhard

144
Q

Discovered by Australian psychiatrist John Cade, __________ carbonate is a drug classified as a mood stabilizer that is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.

A) Lithium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Calcium

A

A) Lithium

145
Q

The DSM-5 includes a chapter entitled ‘Bipolar and Related Disorders’ to reflect the fact that the term ‘bipolar disorder’ actually embraces a spectrum of disorders, primarily consisting of:

A) Major Depressive Disorder and Persistent Depressive Disorder
B) Schizophrenia and Schizoaffective Disorder
C) Bipolar I Disorder, Bipolar II Disorder, and Cyclothymic Disorder
D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Panic Disorder

A

C) Bipolar I Disorder, Bipolar II Disorder, and Cyclothymic Disorder

146
Q

State of persistently elevated or irritable mood and abnormally increased goal-directed activity accompanied by symptoms such as inflated self-esteem, decreased need for sleep, racing thoughts, pressured speech, and impulsive, self-destructive behaviors is known as:

A) Major Depressive Episode
B) Hypomanic Episode
C) Manic Episode
D) Cyclothymic Episode

A

C) Manic episode

147
Q

Diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires a manic episode to last for at least a WEEK, and to have 3 of the following symptoms:

1) Grandiosity (inflated self-esteem)
2) Decreased need for sleep
3) Being talkative more than usual
4) Thoughts racing from one idea to another
5) Heightened activity
6) Risky behaviors

A
148
Q

For a diagnosis of a manic episode, the symptoms must be out of character for the individual, and the mood disturbance must be severe enough to impair functioning. This often requires hospitalization.

A) True
B) False

A

A) True

149
Q

Inflated belief about one’s worth, power, knowledge, ability, or identity; when extreme, may constitute a grandiose delusion is known as:

A) Paranoia
B) Delusion of Reference
C) Grandiosity
D) Depersonalization

A

C) Grandiosity

150
Q

Which condition has symptoms similar to mania but is less severe and does not require hospitalization?

A) Hypomania
B) Cyclothymia
C) Major Depressive Episode
D) Mixed Episode

A

A) Hypomania

151
Q

The difference between hypomania and mania includes which of the following?

A) Less severe symptoms and no interfere with daily functioning
B) No hospitalization
C) Lacks hallucinations or delusions
D) Shorter duration
E) All of the above

A

E) All of the above

152
Q

What is the change in the DSM-5 to meet manic or hypomanic criteria?

A) Increased activity or energy is now required (along with mood changes) to meet the criteria for a manic or hypomanic episode.

B) The criteria for a depressive episode now include more symptoms.

C) Hallucinations and delusions are no longer considered for diagnosis.

D) The duration of episodes has been extended.

A

A) Increased activity or energy is now required (along with mood changes) to meet the criteria for a manic or hypomanic episode.

153
Q

Diagnostic requirement of increased energy (along with mood changes) is consistent with the idea that bipolar disorder is fundamentally a disorder of:

A) Cognition
B) Perception
C) Motivation
D) Emotion

A

C) Motivation

154
Q

Form of bipolar disorder characterized by manic episodes; major depressive episodes often occur but are not necessary for the diagnosis.

A) Bipolar I Disorder
B) Bipolar II Disorder
C) Cyclothymic Disorder
D) Major Depressive Disorder

A

A) Bipolar I disorder

155
Q

What are the requirements for diagnosing hypomania according to the DSM-5 criteria?

A) A period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting for at least 2 days.

B) A period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting for at least 4 days, clearly different from the individual’s usual non-depressed mood.

C) A period of persistently elevated mood lasting for at least 1 week, with severe impairment.

D) A period of persistently depressed mood lasting for at least 2 weeks.

A

B) A period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood lasting for at least 4 days, clearly different from the individual’s usual non-depressed mood.

156
Q

What are the characteristics of bipolar disorders?

A) Occurrence of various combinations of manic episodes, hypomanic episodes, and major depressive episodes across time.

B) Presence of generalized anxiety, panic attacks, and major depressive episodes.

C) Occurrence of mood swings between severe depression and hypomanic episodes only.

D) Presence of hallucinations, delusions, and depressive episodes.

A

A) Occurrence of various combinations of manic episodes, hypomanic episodes, and major depressive episodes across time.

157
Q

Form of bipolar disorder characterized by hypomanic and major depressive episodes:

A) Bipolar I Disorder
B) Bipolar II Disorder
C) Cyclothymic Disorder
D) Major Depressive Disorder

A

B) Bipolar II disorder

158
Q

Manic episodes are seen in which type of bipolar disorder?

A) Bipolar I Disorder and Bipolar II Disorder
B) Bipolar II Disorder only
C) Bipolar I Disorder only
D) Neither Bipolar I nor Bipolar II Disorder

A

C) Bipolar I Disorder only

159
Q

Who were the first to distinguish between bipolar I and bipolar II disorders?

A) Kraepelin and Fieve
B) Dunner and Fieve
C) Akiskal and Beck
D) Clayton and Rothschild

A

B) Dunner and Fieve

160
Q

There is ongoing debate as to whether Bipolar I and II represent distinct forms of the condition or simply differences in severity.
True/False

A

True

161
Q

Around what percentage of people with bipolar disorder experience multiple episodes of mood disturbance during their lifetime, with episodes occurring over weeks or months rather than days?

A) 70%
B) 80%
C) 90%
D) 100%

A

C) 90%

162
Q

Which term describes a pattern in bipolar disorder where an individual experiences four or more episodes of mania or depression within a single year?

A) Mixed episode
B) Rapid cycling
C) Seasonal pattern
D) Persistent depressive disorder

A

B) Rapid cycling

163
Q

What does rapid cycling in bipolar disorder include?

A) Only those who recover fully between episodes
B) Only those who switch continually between manic and depressive states
C) Both those who recover between episodes and those who switch continually between states
D) Only those with a seasonal pattern of episodes

A

C) Both those who recover between episodes and those who switch continually between states

164
Q

Which of the following is a specifier for bipolar disorder?

A) With mixed features
B) With anxious distress
C) With seasonal pattern
D) Both A and B

A

D) Both A and B

165
Q

What distinguishes cyclothymic disorder from bipolar I or II disorders?

A) It involves more severe manic episodes
B) Symptoms are more chronic but less severe
C) It includes only depressive episodes
D) It is characterized by psychotic features

A

B) Symptoms are more chronic but less severe

166
Q

What is the relationship between cyclothymic disorder and bipolar I or II disorders in terms of family history?

A) Cyclothymic disorder is less common in the families of individuals with bipolar I or II disorders.
B) Increased rates of cyclothymic disorder are found in the family members of individuals with bipolar I or II disorders.
C) Cyclothymic disorder is unrelated to bipolar I or II disorders in terms of familial patterns.
D) Family history of cyclothymic disorder is a reliable predictor of developing bipolar I or II disorders.

A

B) Increased rates of cyclothymic disorder are found in the family members of individuals with bipolar I or II disorders.

167
Q

Underdiagnosis or misdiagnosis of bipolar disorder often includes which of the following for men and women?

A) For men: Schizophrenia; For women: Generalized anxiety disorder
B) For men: Schizophrenia; For women: Depression
C) For men: Borderline personality disorder; For women: Psychotic disorder
D) For men: Major depressive disorder; For women: Schizophrenia

A

B) For men: Schizophrenia; For women: Depression

168
Q

Overdiagnosis of bipolar II disorder is common in individuals with which of the following conditions, due to misinterpreting brief periods of elevated mood as hypomania?

A) Schizophrenia
B) Unipolar depression
C) Borderline personality disorder
D) Both B and C

A

D) Both B and C

169
Q

What is the median age of onset for bipolar disorder, and what percentage of individuals experience onset by age 17?

A) 30 years; 15%
B) 25 years; 25%
C) 20 years; 30%
D) 35 years; 10%

A

B) 25 years; 25%

170
Q

Bipolar disorder is relatively rare after which age?

A) 20
B) 25
C) 30
D) 35

A

C) 30

171
Q

In Australia, what are the prevalence rates of bipolar disorder for major symptoms in any 12-month period and over the lifetime?

A) 0.9% and 1.3%
B) 2% and 4%
C) 3% and 5%
D) 4% and 6%

A

A) 0.9% and 1.3%

172
Q

Women and men are equally likely to develop bipolar I disorder, while bipolar II disorder is more common in:

A) Men
B) Women
C) Both genders equally
D) Adolescents

A

B) Women

173
Q

For Bipolar I disorder, what percentage of time is typically spent in depression and in mania or hypomania?

A) Depression: 25%, Mania: 15%
B) Depression: 32%, Mania: 9%
C) Depression: 40%, Mania: 20%
D) Depression: 50%, Mania: 10%

A

B) Depression: 32%, Mania: 9%

174
Q

For Bipolar II disorder, what percentage of time is typically spent in depression and hypomania?

A) Depression: 40%, Hypomania: 10%
B) Depression: 50%, Hypomania: 1%
C) Depression: 60%, Hypomania: 5%
D) Depression: 30%, Hypomania: 15%

A

B) Depression: 50%, Hypomania: 1%

175
Q

What is the median duration for bipolar depressive episodes, manic episodes, and hypomanic episodes?

A) Depression: 10 weeks, Mania: 5 weeks, Hypomania: 2 weeks
B) Depression: 20 weeks, Mania: 10 weeks, Hypomania: 4 weeks
C) Depression: 15 weeks, Mania: 7 weeks, Hypomania: 3 weeks
D) Depression: 12 weeks, Mania: 8 weeks, Hypomania: 6 weeks

A

C) Depression: 15 weeks, Mania: 7 weeks, Hypomania: 3 weeks

176
Q

Lithium fully protects only what percentage of patients against further episodes, and what is a common issue with its use?

A) 20-30 percent; High efficacy
B) 25-50 percent; Compliance issues
C) 40-50 percent; Low cost
D) 50-60 percent; Lack of side effects

A

B) 25-50 percent; Compliance issues

177
Q

What is the less severe form of a manic episode that is an essential feature of bipolar II disorder?

A) Mania
B) Hypomania
C) Mixed episode
D) Depression

A

B) Hypomania

178
Q

What percentage of bipolar disorder patients relapse within one year, two years, and five years?

A) 30%, 50%, 70%
B) 40%, 60%, 73%
C) 50%, 65%, 80%
D) 45%, 55%, 75%

A

B) 40%, 60%, 73%

179
Q

Comorbidity between
anxiety disorders and bipolar disorder is believed to be greater than between anxiety disorders and depression. True/False

A

True

180
Q
A
181
Q

Australian research found that about what percentage of people with bipolar disorder had a concurrent anxiety disorder?

A) 40 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 70 percent

A

B) 50 percent

182
Q

Which stimulant drug can produce symptoms such as euphoria, self-confidence, alertness, agitation, paranoia, perceptual illusions, and depression?

A) Cocaine
B) Heroin
C) Amphetamines
D) Benzodiazepines

A

C) Amphetamines

183
Q

Bipolar disorder is strongly associated with substance misuse, which is reported in what percentage of people with bipolar disorder?

A) 20 percent
B) 30 percent
C) 39 percent
D) 50 percent

A

C) 39 percent

184
Q

Following manic episodes, almost one-third of patients cannot work for how many months, and what percentage return to work at their former skill level?

A) 3 months; 25%
B) 6 months; 20%
C) 6 months; 30%
D) 12 months;15%

A

B) 6 months; 20%

185
Q

The suicide rate in people with bipolar disorder is approximately how many times that of the general population, and what percentage of these suicides occur during the depressive phase?

A) 10 times; 70%
B) 15 times; 80%
C) 20 times; 60%
D) 25 times; 90%

A

B) 15 times; 80%

186
Q

At least what percentage of patients with bipolar disorder will attempt suicide, and what percentage will complete suicide?

A) 15 percent; 5-10 percent
B) 20 percent; 5-10 percent
C) 25 percent; 10-20 percent
D) 30 percent; 15-25 percent

A

C) 25 percent; 10-20 percent

187
Q

The counselling strategy that encourages clients to consider both the positives and negatives of a particular behavior is called:

A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
B) Solution-Focused Therapy
C) Motivational Interviewing
D) Dialectical Behavior Therapy

A

C) Motivational Interviewing

188
Q

Bipolar disorder has a strong genetic component.

True/False

A

True

189
Q

In studies of bipolar disorder, what is the estimated heritability rate, and what is the increased risk of bipolar disorder in first-degree relatives of affected individuals?

A) Heritability rate: 70 percent; Increased risk: 10-fold
B) Heritability rate: 80 percent; Increased risk: 15-fold
C) Heritability rate: 85 percent; Increased risk: 13-fold
D) Heritability rate: 90 percent; Increased risk: 20-fold

A

C) Heritability rate: 85 percent; Increased risk: 13-fold

190
Q

Life stresses and poor coping strategies that disrupt which type of function can lead to early signs of mood disturbance and potentially result in a full-blown manic or depressive episode?

A) Cognitive
B) Emotional
C) Circadian
D) Social

A

C) Circadian

191
Q

A part of the nervous system adapted to coordinate the organism’s interaction with the light/dark cycle, and ensure optimal timing of internal physiological processes.

A

circadian system

192
Q

The model originally developed in the context of schizophrenia that suggests abnormality is caused by the combination of a vulnerability or predisposition and life events is known as:

A) Cognitive Behavioral Model
B) Psychodynamic Model
C) Diathesis-Stress Model
D) Humanistic Model

A

C) Diathesis-Stress Model

193
Q
A
194
Q

The theory that manic episodes may be triggered by dysregulated goal pursuit, involving excessive involvement in the pursuit of goals, is called:

A) Cognitive Behavioral Theory
B) Goal Dysregulation Theory
C) Stress-Vulnerability Theory
D) Psychoanalytic Theory

A

B) Goal dysregulation model

195
Q

According to the goal dysregulation theory, which scenario illustrates how manic episodes can be triggered by excessive involvement in goal pursuit?

A) A person starts a new hobby and spends weekends working on it.
B) A person becomes overly focused on a business idea, sets unrealistic goals, works non-stop, and makes risky investments.
C) A person attends therapy and follows a structured daily routine.
D) A person maintains a balanced lifestyle with moderate exercise and social activities.

A

B) A person becomes overly focused on a business idea, sets unrealistic goals, works non-stop, and makes risky investments.

196
Q

The model that suggests increases in goal-setting and time spent pursuing goals can accelerate the development of hypomanic or manic symptoms is called:

A) Goal Attainment Model
B) Goal Dysregulation Model
C) Goal Management Model
D) Goal Achievement Model

A

B) Goal Dysregulation Model

197
Q

Individuals with a history of bipolar I disorder, even when not in an episode, tend to:

A) Place less emphasis on rewards and show minimal goal pursuit
B) Focus equally on rewards and goal pursuit as those without the disorder
C) Place a higher emphasis on rewards and be excessively engaged in pursuing goals
D) Avoid setting goals and reward-driven activities

A

C) Place a higher emphasis on rewards and be excessively engaged in pursuing goals

198
Q

Individuals with bipolar disorder have
greater ________ (positive/negative) beliefs regarding their worth, leading to ________ (higher/lower) self-esteem.

A

negative
lower
(when negative events activate low self-esteem, the person may respond defensively with
grandiose ideas, which inhibit negative thoughts about the self)

199
Q

According to Thomas and Bentall (2002), hypomania and mania are thought to represent:

A) A genetic predisposition to mood disorders
B) A deliberate, defensive attempt to avoid negative cognitions and emotions associated with depression and low self-esteem
C) An innate personality trait that causes emotional instability
D) A result of substance abuse and environmental stressors

A

B) A deliberate, defensive attempt to avoid negative cognitions and emotions associated with depression and low self-esteem

200
Q

According to Thomas and Bentall (2002), what coping styles were found to predict higher scores on a measure of hypomania?

A) Avoidance, meditation, and relaxation
B) Rumination, distraction, and risk-taking
C) Social support, problem-solving, and planning
D) Acceptance, cognitive restructuring, and mindfulness

A

B) Rumination, distraction, and risk-taking

201
Q

Which term refers to the innate aspects of personality, such as mood and emotional reactivity, that are believed to be genetically based?

A) Personality traits
B) Behavioral tendencies
C) Temperament
D) Cognitive styles

A

C) Temperament

202
Q

Temperamental traits such as perfectionism and sociotropy are:

A) Less prevalent in individuals with bipolar disorder than those with a depressive disorder
B) Equally prevalent in individuals with bipolar disorder and those with a depressive disorder
C) More prevalent in individuals with bipolar disorder than those with a depressive disorder
D) Not associated with either bipolar disorder or depressive disorder

A

C) More prevalent in individuals with bipolar disorder than those with a depressive disorder

203
Q

How can temperamental tendencies affect individuals with bipolar disorder?

A) They improve treatment adherence and reduce relapse risk
B) They have no impact on treatment or relapse risk
C) They can adversely affect acceptance of the illness, leading to poor treatment compliance and higher relapse risk
D) They make it easier to adapt to the illness and follow treatment

A

C) They can adversely affect acceptance of the illness, leading to poor treatment compliance and higher relapse risk

204
Q

Which of the following are commonly used bipolar self-report measures in Australia?

A) Depression Anxiety Stress Scale (DASS-21)/Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale (DAS-24)
B) BIS/BAS Scales (Behavioral Inhibition and Behavioral Activation Scale)
C) Response Style Questionnaire (RSQ)/Internal State Scale (ISS)
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

205
Q

The group of drugs, including lithium and anticonvulsants, used to treat bipolar disorder and aim to prevent mood shifts to the opposite pole are called:

A) Antidepressants
B) Antipsychotics
C) Mood Stabilizers
D) Anxiolytics

A

C) Mood stabilisers

206
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly administered as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder?

A) Lithium
B) Carbamazepine
C) Valproate
D) Olanzapine
E) Quetiapine
F) Fluoxetine

A

F) Fluoxetine (antidepressant not mood stabliser)

(six mood stabilisers commonly administered: lithium,
carbamazepine,
valproate,
olanzapine,
quetiapine,
lamotrigine)

207
Q

The main role of which intervention includes providing education about early signs of relapse, medication adherence, and managing risk and protective factors?

A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
B) Psychoeducation
C) Dialectical Behavior Therapy
D) Interpersonal Therapy

A

B) Psychoeducation

208
Q

According to a study, the addition of 7–12 sessions of psychoeducation to medication resulted in a reduction of manic relapse rates by what percentage compared to medication alone?

A) 20 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 30 percent
D) 35 percent

A

C) 30 percent

209
Q

Encouraging clients to keep structured _____ diaries helps in identifying triggers to mood shifts and associated changes in thoughts and feelings.

A) Behavioral
B) Mood
C) Cognitive
D) Activity

A

B) Mood

210
Q

Cognitive restructuring for bipolar disorder involves which of the following?

A) Identifying and challenging hyper-positive cognitions
B) Addressing negative underlying beliefs
C) Cognitive adaptation to the experience of mental illness
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

211
Q

Interpersonal and Social Rhythm Therapy (IPSRT) is targeted towards reducing disruptions in which of the following to help manage bipolar episodes?

A) Medication adherence and therapy frequency
B) Daily routines and sleep/wake cycles
C) Social interactions and cognitive patterns
D) Nutritional habits and exercise routines

A

B) Daily routines and sleep/wake cycles

212
Q

The type of interventions that aim to reduce relapse by improving the family’s knowledge about bipolar disorder, communication, and problem-solving skills is called:

A) Cognitive Behavioral Therapy
B) Psychoeducation
C) Family-Focused Interventions
D) Dialectical Behavior Therapy

A

C) Family-Focused Interventions

(effectively used since 1970s for bipolar patients)

213
Q
A

B) Inherent mood instability and interaction with external stressors or internal biological factors

214
Q

How does the involvement of consumers benefit the development of psychological interventions for bipolar disorder?

A) It increases the number of research studies conducted
B) It helps better align interventions with the values and preferences of end-users and provides new directions for interventions
C) It focuses solely on medication-related aspects of treatment
D) It reduces the need for professional input in therapy development

A

B) It helps better align interventions with the values and preferences of end-users and provides new directions for interventions

214
Q

Which scenario best illustrates the instability model of relapse in bipolar disorder?

A) A person with stable mood who maintains a regular sleep schedule and has minimal stress.
B) A person with mood instability who develops a manic episode due to work stress and irregular sleep patterns.
C) A person who manages their bipolar disorder through consistent medication and avoids all external stressors.
D) A person who experiences a depressive episode after a predictable and minor life event.

A

B) A person with mood instability who develops a manic episode due to work stress and irregular sleep patterns.

215
Q

Which of the following terms historically has been used to denote bipolar disorder?

Multiple select question.

la belle indifference

manic depressive insanity

dementia praecox

la folie circulaire

A

manic depressive insanity
la folie circulaire

216
Q

Within the DSM-5, the term ‘bipolar disorder’ embraces a spectrum of disorders including

Multiple select question.

schizophrenia
dysthymic disorder
cylothymic disorder
bipolar I

A

cylothymic disorder
bipolar I

217
Q

Within manic episodes, individuals demonstrate an increase in:

insight
sleep
activity
irritability

A

activity

218
Q

Individuals who repeatedly experience sub-clinical levels of elevated and depressed mood would most likely be diagnosed with ______________.

A

cyclothymia

219
Q

The prevalence of bipolar I disorder:

is equal in males and females
is higher in females
is higher in males
is decreasing

A

is equal in males and
females

220
Q

Women suffering from bipolar disorder are most commonly misdiagnosed with _______________.

A

depression

221
Q

____________ carbonate dramatically improved treatment outcomes for people with bipolar disorder.

A

Lithium

222
Q

A primary difference between depressive and bipolar disorders is that individuals with bipolar disorders experience pathologically

irrational thinking
elevated mood
delusional thinking
depressed mood

A

elevated mood

223
Q

Hypomanic episodes are _________(less/more) severe and of
____________(shorter/longer) duration than manic episodes.

A

less
shorter

224
Q

The key features for
diagnosis of bipolar II disorder are the
presence of one or more:

Multiple select question.

manic episodes

concurrent manic and depressive symptoms

hypomanic episodes

major depressive episodes

A

hypomanic episodes

major depressive episodes

225
Q

Men suffering from bipolar disorder are most commonly misdiagnosed with ________.

A

schizophrenia

226
Q

Which of the following individuals is least likely to experience their first episode of hypomania?

Elliot, aged 17
Eric, aged 27
Ella, aged 22
Erin, aged 33

A

Erin, aged 33

(Hypomanic episodes often begin in the late teens to early twenties)

227
Q

The prevalence of bipolar II disorder:

is decreasing
is higher in females
is equal in males and females
is higher in males

A

is higher in females

228
Q

List in order from highest to lowest the median duration of mood disturbance experienced by people with bipolar I disorder:

(manic, hypomanic, depressive episode)

A

depressive episode
manic episode
hypomanic episode

229
Q

According to the findings of Perugi and colleagues (2001), social phobia symptoms generally:

preceded hypomanic or manic episodes

occurred concurrently with hypomanic or manic episodes

followed hypomanic or manic episodes

cannot be correlated with hypomanic or manic episodes

A

preceded hypomanic or manic episodes

230
Q

Hospitalisation is often required for people experiencing severe manic episodes due to the individual:

engaging in behaviours that place themselves at risk of harm

being a danger to others

behaving in a manner distressing to others

being distressed by their symptoms

A

engaging in behaviours that place themselves at risk of harm

231
Q

It is thought that individuals with bipolar disorder use substances such as marijuana, alcohol and amphetamines in an attempt to:

mimic mania
induce mania
escape reality
regulate mood

A

regulate mood

232
Q

Approximately
______ % of individuals experience onset of bipolar disorder by age 17.

A

25

233
Q

In an Australian survey conducted by Mitchell et al. (2013), individuals
with bipolar disorder were how many times more likely than the general population to experience relationship difficulties?

3
4
5
2

A

5

234
Q

Poor _____________
adherence has been associated with low levels of acceptance of a bipolar diagnosis.

A

medication

235
Q

According to the findings of Perugi and colleagues (2001), anxiety symptoms can occur when?

Multiple select question.

after (hypo)manic episodes

during (hypo)manic episodes

before (hypo)manic episodes

only in the absence of (hypo)manic episodes

A

before
during
after

236
Q

Substance misuse has been reported in ___% of people with bipolar disorder.

39
27
48
43

A

39

237
Q

Following a manic episode, approximately what percentage of individuals return to work at their former skill level?

40
30
20
50

A

20

238
Q

Which of the following individuals is most likely
to experience the poorest outcomes associated with their bipolar disorder diagnosis?

Jessica who demonstrated onset of the disorder at age 21

Jeffrey who demonstrated onset of the disorder at age 17

Jenna who demonstrated onset of the disorder at age 25

Jet who demonstrated onset of the disorder at age 31

A

Jeffrey who demonstrated onset of the disorder at age 17

(early onset of bipolar disorder is often linked to more frequent episodes, greater severity, and a higher risk of comorbid conditions, which can contribute to poorer overall outcomes)

239
Q

Vulnerability towards creativity and pathology share which of the following features?

affective blunting

bias towards novel stimuli

neural hyperconnectivity

cognitive disinhibition

A

bias towards novel stimuli

neural hyperconnectivity

cognitive disinhibition

240
Q

Suicide rates are highest among individuals with which condition?

euthymia
cyclothymic disorder
bipolar I disorder
bipolar II disorder

A

bipolar II disorder

241
Q

It is estimated that the heritability of bipolar disorder is ____%.

75
85
70
80

A

85

242
Q

In Australia, the anxiety disorders most commonly comorbid with bipolar disorder are:
Select all that apply:

panic disorder

obsessive compulsive disorder

generalised anxiety disorder

social phobia

A

panic disorder

generalised anxiety disorder

social phobia

243
Q

Researchers have demonstrated that in the context of (hypo)manic episodes, creative outputs:

increase in complexity
increase in diversity
increase in quantity
increase in quality

A

increase in quantity

(during hypomanic or manic episodes, individuals often experience heightened energy levels and a reduced need for sleep, which can lead to an increase in the amount of work or creative outputs they produce)

244
Q

The suicide rate is approximately how many times higher in bipolar compared to general populations?

5
20
15
10

A

15

245
Q

Researchers have demonstrated that compared to the general population, people with bipolar I disorder experience excessive goal-directed behaviour:

even when depressed
even when euthymic (state of tranquility)
only when (hypo)manic
only when euthymic

A

even when euthymic

(euthymia = state of tranquility, well being)

246
Q

Approximately what percentage of bipolar sufferers will relapse within five years?

55
65
45
75

A

75

247
Q

The pattern of social phobia preceding hypomanic and manic episodes suggests a causal role of what in triggering such episodes?

social fears
Lithium use
social cues
antidepressant use

A

social fears

248
Q

Ylia has recently experienced a manic episode, and behaved in uncharacteristic ways such as spending large amounts of money and promiscuous sexual acts. What emotions is she most likely to be experiencing now that this episode has ended?

Multiple select question.

anger
excitement
euphoria
guilt

A

anger
guilt

(While excitement and euphoria are characteristic of the manic episode itself, these emotions typically diminish after the episode ends and may be replaced by negative emotions such as guilt and anger)

249
Q

The lifetime risk of bipolar disorder in the family members of diagnosed individuals is approximately _______ percent.

A

10

250
Q

The majority of completed suicides occur within which phase of a bipolar disorder?

euthymic
depressive
manic
hypomanic

A

depressive

(Individuals with bipolar disorder are at a higher risk of suicide, and this risk is particularly elevated during depressive episodes. The intense feelings of hopelessness and despair experienced during these phases can significantly increase the likelihood of suicidal behavior)

251
Q

Acute drug treatments for bipolar disorder target the:

existing episode of mood disturbance

preventative components of bipolar disorder

chances of cure

chances of relapse

A

existing episode of mood disturbance

252
Q

Disruptions in the circadian symptom help to explain why early symptoms of (hypo)mania include:

Multiple select question.

restlessness
sleeplessness
agitation
fatigue

A

restlessness
sleeplessness

(Agitation and fatigue are not typically early symptoms of (hypo)mania related to circadian disruptions. Instead, agitation might be more associated with the increased energy and activity levels during manic episodes, while fatigue is usually more associated with depressive episodes or the aftermath of a manic episode)

253
Q

____________ refers to a high need for social acceptance.

A

sociotrophy

254
Q

Each of the psychological therapies recommended for the treatment and management of bipolar disorder share which framework?

nature–nurture
diathesis-stress
psychosocial
cognitive triad

A

diathesis-stress

255
Q

Maintenance drug treatments for bipolar disorder focus on:

targeting the mood disturbance

targeting the genes responsible for relapse

reducing manic symptoms

minimising the chances of relapse

A

minimising the chances of relapse

256
Q

Beliefs about a link between (hypo)mania and creativity can undermine client commitment to _________.

A

treatment

257
Q

Individuals with bipolar disorder who are exposed to high levels of stress are:

more likely to have a mood relapse

generally older and more experienced with the disorder

less likely to have a mood relapse

generally younger and less experienced with the disorder

A

more likely to have a mood relapse

258
Q

Compared to health controls, individuals with bipolar disorder have:

higher insight
lower motivation
higher intelligence
lower self-esteem

A

lower self-esteem

259
Q

Mood monitoring can assist in the identification of
_________ warning signs of a bipolar mood shift.

A

early

260
Q

Cognitive behaviour therapy relies on _________ to challenge unhelpful thoughts and assumptions, including hyper-positive cognitions, held by individuals with bipolar disorder.

medication
cognitive restructuring
defence mechanisms
transference

A

cognitive restructuring

261
Q

A combination of drug and psychological therapies has been shown to be cost ___________ for people with bipolar disorder, in terms of reducing the need for additional health services when symptomatic.

A

effective

262
Q

Family-based interventions for bipolar disorder aim to reduce relapse through improving family:

Multiple select question.

communication
problem solving
control
knowledge

A

communication
problem solving
knowledge

263
Q

Which of the following components is present in all psychological approaches to managing bipolar disorder?

psychoeducation
behavioural activation
reality testing
medication

A

psychoeducation

264
Q

Interpersonal and social
________ therapy focuses on the development and maintenance of healthy social routines to manage mood.

A

rhythm

265
Q

__________ approaches are considered the most effective in relapse prevention for bipolar disorder.

A

Biopsychosocial

266
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT included in the instability model of relapse prevention?

disrupted routines
medication non-adherence
sleep hygiene
biological vulnerability

A

sleep hygiene

267
Q

A key advantage of CBT for bipolar disorder is the fostering of:

self-worth
independence
self-reliance
self-efficacy

A

self-efficacy

(CBT helps individuals with bipolar disorder develop skills and strategies to manage their symptoms and handle life stressors effectively. By enhancing self-efficacy, individuals gain confidence in their ability to manage their condition and make positive changes, which can lead to better outcomes in managing their disorder)

268
Q

Contemporary approaches to relapse prevention for bipolar disorder include which approaches?

Multiple select question.

medication

hospitalisation

transmagnetic stimulation

psychological approaches

A

medication

psychological approaches

269
Q

Risk factors associated with the development of a depressive disorder in young people include all of the following except:

a.
previous history of depression.

b.
cigarette smoking.

c.
history of abuse.

d.
family conflict.

e.
None of the options given is correct.

A

b.
cigarette smoking.

270
Q

What percentage of people with a major depressive disorder also experience significant anxiety symptoms?

a.
5 per cent

b.
10 per cent

c.
25 per cent

d.
50 per cent

e.
70 per cent

A

d.
50 per cent

271
Q

Seligman’s learned helplessness theory suggests that depressive disorders may develop when individuals interpret negative life events as being due to:

a.
external events that they cannot control.

b.
magnification and minimisation.

c.
negative events in childhood.

d.
high levels of expressed emotion.

e.
internal, global and stable factors.

A

e.
internal, global and stable factors
(According to this theory, when individuals attribute negative events to internal factors (believing the problem is due to their own personal failings), global factors (believing the problem affects all aspects of their life), and stable factors (believing the problem will persist over time), they may develop a sense of helplessness and hopelessness that contributes to depression)

272
Q

A new specifier—major depressive disorder with anxious distress-has been incorporated into the DSM-5 for all of the following reasons except:

a.
the strong comorbidity between depression and anxiety problems.

b.
the increased risk of suicide associated with mixed anxiety and depression.

c.
the longer length of the depressive episode when depression is mixed with anxiety.

d.
to enable clinicians to identify people at risk of a full-blown major depressive disorder or a significant anxiety disorder.

e.
All of the given options are correct.

A

d.
to enable clinicians to identify people at risk of a full-blown major depressive disorder or a significant anxiety disorder

(This specifier is primarily used to address the strong comorbidity between depression and anxiety, the increased risk of suicide, and the potential for a longer depressive episode when anxiety is present. It is not specifically intended to identify people at risk of developing a full-blown major depressive disorder or a significant anxiety disorder)

273
Q

The suicide rate in Australia has _______ since the late 1990s.

a.
declined

b.
increased

c.
stayed the same

d.
doubled

e.
None of the given options is correct.

A

a.
declined

274
Q

Which of the following does current research evidence not support as an effective treatment for depression?

a.
interpersonal psychotherapy

b.
medication

c.
cognitive behaviour therapy

d.
bright light therapy

e.
All of the given options are effective treatments for depression.

A

e.
All of the given options are effective treatments for depression.

275
Q

A MAJOR DEPRESSIVE DISORDER IS CHARACTERISED BY THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS EXCEPT:

a.
grandiosity.

b.
weight loss.

c.
sleep disturbance.

d.
psychomotor agitation or retardation.

e.
excessive guilt feelings.

A

a.
grandiosity.

276
Q

With regards to bipolar I disorder:

a.
it is more common in women.

b.
it is more common in men.

c.
it is equally common in men and women.

d.
it is found only in women.

e.
the gender ratio is unknown.

A

c.
it is equally common in men and women.

277
Q

Bipolar disorder is commonly comorbid with several other psychiatric illnesses, except:

a.
anxiety.

b.
obsessive-compulsive disorder.

c.
posttraumatic stress disorder.

d.
social phobia.

e.
schizophrenia.

A

e.
schizophrenia.

278
Q

Pharmacological treatments for bipolar disorder vary according to:

a.
how many manic episodes an individual has experienced.

b.
whether the patient is in an acute or maintenance phase of the condition.

c.
response to psychological intervention.

d.
experience of psychotic episodes.

e.
None of the options given is correct.

A

b.
whether the patient is in an acute or maintenance phase of the condition.

279
Q

Which of the following is not typically associated with a manic episode?

a.
inflated or expansive mood

b.
inflated self-esteem

c.
high trait anxiety

d.
risk taking

e.
grandiosity

A

c.
high trait anxiety

280
Q

Relapse prevention treatment for bipolar disorder includes all of the following except:

a.
psychoeducation.

b.
symptom monitoring.

c.
challenging unhelpful cognitions.

d.
taking medication only when feeling unwell.

e.
being aware of early-warning signs of relapse.

A

d.
taking medication only when feeling unwell.

281
Q

The goal dysregulation model suggests that mania is the result of:

a.
cognitive distortions.

b.
mood swings.

c.
stress.

d.
psychomotor retardation.

e.
excessive goal engagement.

A

e.
excessive goal engagement.

282
Q

Which of the options listed is a common measure of state/trait anxiety in Australia?

a.
Beck Depression Inventory

b.
Behavioural Inhibition Scale/Behavioural Activation Scale (BIS/BAS)

c.
Measure of Attachment Quality

d.
Brief Symptom Inventory

e.
Interpersonal Issues Inventory

A

b.
Behavioural Inhibition Scale/Behavioural Activation Scale (BIS/BAS)

283
Q

On average, an individual with bipolar I or II disorder is likely to experience:

a.
more time being manic or hypomanic than being depressed.

b.
more time being depressed than being manic or hypomanic.

c.
equal time being depressed and being manic or hypomanic.

d.
only time being manic, no time being depressed.

e.
None of the given options is correct–none of these patterns is more common than the others.

A

b.
more time being depressed than being manic or hypomanic.