Week 10 - Disorders of childhood Flashcards by Valentina Knezevic

According to the Australian National Survey of Mental Health and Wellbeing, what proportion of 4–17-year-olds met criteria for a mental disorder?

a) Approximately 10 percent

b) Approximately 13 percent

c) Approximately 15 percent

d) Approximately 25 percent

c) Approximately 15 percent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to worldwide rates, what percentage of children and adolescents are affected by some form of mental disorder?

a) Approximately 5 percent

b) Approximately 10 percent

c) Approximately 13 percent

d) Approximately 20 percent

c) Approximately 13 percent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Based on the study among New Zealand secondary school students, which gender reported higher clinical levels of depression and serious thoughts about suicide?

a) Boys

b) Girls

c) Both genders equally

d) Neither gender

b) Girls

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary focus of research traditionally concerning psychological and behavioral problems in children?

a) Protective factors

b) Risk factors

c) Parenting styles

d) Cultural contexts

b) Risk factors

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the text, what role do nurturing environments play in child development?

a) They increase the likelihood of toxic events occurring.

b) They decrease the child’s resilience and adaptability.

c) They minimize toxic events, promote necessary skills, and foster psychological flexibility.

d) They focus solely on limiting opportunities for problem behavior.

c) They minimize toxic events, promote necessary skills, and foster psychological flexibility.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the ‘dose–response’ relationship refer to in the context of adverse childhood experiences?

a) The number of adverse experiences a child has and the extent of their positive outcomes.

b) The frequency of adverse experiences and their likelihood to be repeated.

c) The greater the number of adverse experiences a child has, the worse their health and mental wellbeing in adulthood.

d) The duration of adverse experiences and their immediate impact on a child’s behavior.

c) The greater the number of adverse experiences a child has, the worse their health and mental wellbeing in adulthood.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does the differential susceptibility hypothesis suggest about certain genes and environmental effects?

a) Genes associated with mental health problems make individuals less susceptible to environmental effects.

b) Genes increase vulnerability to negative environmental effects but have no impact on positive effects.

c) Genes previously seen as increasing risk operate more like ‘plasticity genes,’ making individuals more susceptible to both positive and negative environmental effects.

d) Genes affect susceptibility only if environmental conditions are extremely negative.

c) Genes previously seen as increasing risk operate more like ‘plasticity genes,’ making individuals more susceptible to both positive and negative environmental effects.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Prior to the twentieth century, how were childhood mental illnesses or behavioral disorders generally perceived?

a) As a result of genetic factors

b) As a consequence of negative spiritual influences

c) As conditions requiring advanced medical treatments

d) As inevitable and unavoidable

b) As a consequence of negative spiritual influences

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When did specific childhood diagnoses begin to be included in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

a) DSM-I

b) DSM-II

c) DSM-III

d) DSM-IV

c) DSM-III

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What major change did the DSM-5 introduce regarding the categorization of childhood disorders?

a) Introduction of new disorders exclusively for children

b) Removal of the category ‘Disorders Usually First Diagnosed in Infancy, Childhood or Adolescence’

c) Combining childhood and adult disorders into one new category

d) Addition of a specific section for childhood disorders

b) Removal of the category ‘Disorders Usually First Diagnosed in Infancy, Childhood or Adolescence’

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What approach does the DSM-5 use to address childhood disorders?

a) A categorical approach focusing only on childhood conditions

b) A purely diagnostic approach with no consideration of developmental factors

c) A developmental lifespan approach that considers how development affects diagnosis and symptoms

d) A retrospective approach based on historical diagnoses

c) A developmental lifespan approach that considers how development affects diagnosis and symptoms

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which early twentieth-century researchers contributed to the increased interest in child psychopathology?

a) Sigmund Freud, Carl Rogers, and Ivan Pavlov

b) Jean Piaget, Alfred Binet, and Sigmund Freud

c) Erik Erikson, John Bowlby, and Abraham Maslow

d) B.F. Skinner, Melanie Klein, and Lev Vygotsky

b) Jean Piaget, Alfred Binet, and Sigmund Freud

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary focus of the Diagnostic Classification of Mental Health and Developmental Disorders of Infancy and Early Childhood (DC:0-3R)?

a) Diagnosing adult mental health disorders

b) Examining very early difficulties and focusing on parent–infant relationships

c) Addressing only externalising disorders in children

d) Providing a universal diagnostic tool for all age groups

b) Examining very early difficulties and focusing on parent–infant relationships

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How do the diagnostic criteria for internalising disorders in children generally compare to those for adults?

a) They are different and more complex for children.

b) They are the same as for adults, with only minor modifications.

c) They are less rigorous than those for adults.

d) They are specifically designed for infants and toddlers.

b) They are the same as for adults, with only minor modifications.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is one of the main criticisms of the DSM-5 in relation to childhood conditions?

a) It lacks empirical support for its diagnostic criteria.

b) It does not consider the dimensional nature of many childhood conditions.

c) It does not focus on parent–infant relationships.

d) It includes too many categories for childhood disorders.

b) It does not consider the dimensional nature of many childhood conditions.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What approach did developmental psychopathology emphasize when it emerged in the mid-1980s?

a) A static approach to child behavior

b) A lifespan approach combining data from both normal and clinical samples

c) A focus solely on abnormal development

d) An exclusive focus on environmental influences

b) A lifespan approach combining data from both normal and clinical samples

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the primary characteristic of the disorders classified under the ‘neurodevelopmental disorders’ category in the DSM-5?

a) They emerge during adolescence and affect social functioning.

b) They are characterized by their onset in the early developmental period, often before the child starts school.

c) They primarily affect adults and involve changes in cognitive functioning.

d) They are exclusively related to psychological trauma and stress.

b) They are characterized by their onset in the early developmental period, often before the child starts school.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following disorders is included in the DSM-5’s ‘neurodevelopmental disorders’ category?

a) Major depressive disorder

b) Schizophrenia

c) Autism spectrum disorder

d) Generalized anxiety disorder

c) Autism spectrum disorder

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following best describes Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

a) A disorder marked by excessive activity and a lack of social skills.

b) A disorder characterized by deficits in attention, controlling impulses, and regulating activity levels.

c) A condition where individuals primarily struggle with social interactions and emotional regulation.

d) A disorder related to memory loss and cognitive decline.

b) A disorder characterized by deficits in attention, controlling impulses, and regulating activity levels.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which symptoms are associated with inattention in Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

a) Fidgeting and excessive movement

b) Difficulty sustaining attention, being easily distracted, and making careless mistakes

c) Impulsivity and blurting out answers

d) Not being able to stay seated and interrupting others

b) Difficulty sustaining attention, being easily distracted, and making careless mistakes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How can ADHD be classified according to the DSM-5?

a) Combined presentation, predominantly inattentive presentation, or predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation

b) Mild, moderate, or severe presentation

c) Externalising or internalising presentation

d) Acute or chronic presentation

a) Combined presentation, predominantly inattentive presentation, or predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Why is it important to consider the child’s developmental stage when diagnosing ADHD?

a) Developmental stage affects the ability to focus and restrain impulses, which develop with age

b) It determines the need for medication

c) It influences the severity of hyperactivity and impulsivity

d) It helps in identifying the specific type of ADHD

a) Developmental stage affects the ability to focus and restrain impulses, which develop with age

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What gender differences are observed in ADHD symptomatology according to the text?

a) Boys show more intellectual impairments and internalising problems than girls

b) Girls show less hyperactivity, inattention, impulsivity, and externalising problems, but more intellectual impairments and internalising problems

c) Boys show less intellectual impairments and more internalising problems than girls

d) There are no significant gender differences in ADHD symptoms

b) Girls show less hyperactivity, inattention, impulsivity, and externalising problems, but more intellectual impairments and internalising problems

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What did the meta-analysis by Polanczyk et al. (2014) reveal about the variability in ADHD prevalence rates?

a) Variability in prevalence rates is due to genetic factors.

b) There has been a significant increase in ADHD rates over time.

c) Variability in prevalence rates is largely due to methodological features of the studies.

d) Prevalence rates vary significantly between different age groups.

c) Variability in prevalence rates is largely due to methodological features of the studies.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

According to the meta-analysis by Thomas et al. (2015), what is the pooled prevalence estimate of ADHD across populations? a) 3.5% b) 5.0% c) 7.2% d) 9.8%

c) 7.2%

Which of the following is a symptom of ADHD in adults that differs from the typical symptoms seen in children? a) Difficulty staying seated and fidgeting b) Having difficulty completing mundane tasks and procrastination c) Difficulty sustaining attention over time d) Impulsivity and blurting out answers

b) Having difficulty completing mundane tasks and procrastination

What is a common comorbid condition with ADHD mentioned in the text? a) Major depressive disorder b) Generalized anxiety disorder c) Oppositional defiant disorder d) Autism spectrum disorder

c) Oppositional defiant disorder

When does ADHD usually begin, and how does it generally change with age? a) ADHD usually begins in adolescence and worsens with age. b) ADHD usually begins in early childhood and tends to diminish with increasing age, but symptoms can continue into adulthood. c) ADHD usually begins in early childhood and remains stable throughout life. d) ADHD begins in early adulthood and shows significant improvement over time.

b) ADHD usually begins in early childhood and tends to diminish with increasing age, but symptoms can continue into adulthood.

What concern is expressed by international scientists regarding media portrayals of ADHD? a) Media reports are too supportive of ADHD and its treatments. b) Media reports often inaccurately portray ADHD, potentially leading people to believe it is not a real disorder. c) Media reports are primarily focused on the effectiveness of ADHD medications. d) Media reports emphasize the genetic causes of ADHD.

b) Media reports often inaccurately portray ADHD, potentially leading people to believe it is not a real disorder.

According to the international consensus statement, why might inaccurate media portrayals of ADHD be harmful? a) They might lead to increased medication costs for families. b) They could cause sufferers to avoid seeking treatment and undermine the legitimacy of the disorder. c) They may cause a reduction in ADHD research funding. d) They might improve public understanding of ADHD.

b) They could cause sufferers to avoid seeking treatment and undermine the legitimacy of the disorder.

What is the position of major medical associations and government health agencies regarding ADHD, according to the international consensus statement? a) ADHD is considered a myth with no scientific support. b) ADHD is acknowledged as a genuine disorder supported by overwhelming scientific evidence. c) ADHD is a minor condition that does not require medical attention. d) ADHD is only recognized in certain countries and not internationally.

b) ADHD is acknowledged as a genuine disorder supported by overwhelming scientific evidence.

What is suggested as a key factor underlying ADHD according to the research mentioned? a) Neuropsychological impairment b) Diet and nutrition c) Lack of parental involvement d) Environmental stressors

a) Neuropsychological impairment

What do executive functions encompass in the context of ADHD? a) The ability to recall past events and emotional experiences b) Skills related to goal-setting, planning, and monitoring behavior c) Proficiency in visual and auditory processing tasks d) Understanding and interpreting social cues and emotions

b) Skills related to goal-setting, planning, and monitoring behavior

How do executive function deficits in children with ADHD compare to those with conduct disorder? a) Executive function deficits are found to be more severe in children with conduct disorder. b) Executive function deficits are specific to ADHD and not observed in children with conduct disorder. c) Executive function deficits are equally prevalent in both ADHD and conduct disorder. d) Children with conduct disorder show less impairment in executive functions compared to children with ADHD.

b) Executive function deficits are specific to ADHD and not observed in children with conduct disorder.

Which of the following cognitive tests are commonly used to assess executive functions in children with ADHD? a) Tests measuring emotional intelligence b) Tests evaluating language development c) Tests assessing goal-setting, planning, and monitoring behavior d) Tests of sensory processing

c) Tests assessing goal-setting, planning, and monitoring behavior

What does Brown (2006) suggest is a key issue for individuals with ADHD regarding executive functions? a) They have difficulty performing complex calculations. b) They struggle with initiating and stopping behaviors as required by the task. c) They lack the ability to engage in multitasking effectively. d) They show persistent problems with understanding abstract concepts.

b) They struggle with initiating and stopping behaviors as required by the task

Which cognitive tests are commonly used to assess executive functions in children with ADHD? a) Stop task, Trailmaking, Mazes b) IQ test, Memory recall, Spatial reasoning c) Personality inventory, Emotional regulation scale, Behavior observation d) Reaction time test, Visual acuity test, Verbal fluency test

a) Stop task, Trailmaking, Mazes

What is the primary purpose of the Stop task in assessing executive functions? a) To measure a child's speed of processing visual stimuli b) To evaluate how well a child can inhibit a pre-planned response upon receiving a signal c) To assess a child's ability to connect sequentially ordered letters d) To determine a child's planning ability through maze navigation

b) To evaluate how well a child can inhibit a pre-planned response upon receiving a signal

In the Trails B version of the Trailmaking task, what cognitive ability is specifically measured? a) Speed of processing simple sequences b) Ability to inhibit responses based on signals c) Ability to shift between different types of sequences (letters and numbers) d) Skill in drawing a line through a maze without errors

c) Ability to shift between different types of sequences (letters and numbers)

How does Trails A differ from Trails B in the Trailmaking task? a) Trails A involves alternating between letters and numbers, while Trails B involves connecting letters in sequence. b) Trails A measures the child’s speed of processing, while Trails B measures the ability to shift between tasks. c) Trails A evaluates planning ability, while Trails B assesses inhibition control. d) Trails A includes a maze-solving component, whereas Trails B involves simple key-pressing tasks.

b) Trails A measures the child’s speed of processing, while Trails B measures the ability to shift between tasks.

What cognitive ability is primarily assessed by the Mazes task? a) Speed of visual processing b) Ability to alternate between tasks c) Planning ability and the use of foresight to choose appropriate options d) Inhibition control in response to external signals

c) Planning ability and the use of foresight to choose appropriate options

What underlying family and parenting variables contribute to oppositional defiant disorder, conduct disorder, and ADHD? a) High levels of parental warmth and consistency b) Strong biological factors with minimal environmental influence c) Parental inconsistency and lack of involvement d) Consistent academic support and discipline

c) Parental inconsistency and lack of involvement

According to research, what approach tends to be more effective in managing ADHD? a) Interventions focusing solely on biological factors b) Interventions targeting only academic skills c) Interventions that address both biological and parenting factors d) Interventions emphasizing peer relationships alone

c) Interventions that address both biological and parenting factors

What dietary approach is associated with treating symptoms of hyperactivity in children with ADHD? a) The Mediterranean diet b) The Feingold diet c) The ketogenic diet d) The low-carb diet

b) The Feingold diet (the Feingold diet is a food-elimination program developed by the paediatrician Benjamin Feingold to treat symptoms of hyperactivity. The diet consists of eliminating a number of artificial colours and flavours, aspartame (an artificial sweetener), some preservatives and certain salicylates (found in a wide range of foods and beverages).

What did a recent meta-analysis find regarding dietary interventions for ADHD? a) There is substantial support for dietary interventions with large effects b) Artificial food color exclusion diets and fatty acid supplementation have some support, but effects are generally small c) Dietary interventions have no support or effects on ADHD symptoms d) All dietary interventions for ADHD have proven to be ineffective

b) Artificial food color exclusion diets and fatty acid supplementation have some support, but effects are generally small

According to research, what is the general conclusion about the impact of artificial food colorings and preservatives on ADHD symptoms? a) They have a significant impact on ADHD symptoms, as shown by clinical assessments b) They have no specific effect on ADHD symptoms based on objective clinical assessments c) They are proven to improve ADHD symptoms significantly d) They are the sole cause of ADHD symptoms in children

b) They have no specific effect on ADHD symptoms based on objective clinical assessments

What type of medication is commonly used in the treatment of ADHD? a) Antidepressants b) Antipsychotics c) Psychostimulants d) Antianxiety medications

c) Psychostimulants

What has research found about the effectiveness of stimulant medications like Ritalin and Dexedrine for ADHD? a) They are ineffective in treating ADHD symptoms. b) They increase the availability of serotonin but have little impact on ADHD symptoms. c) They increase the availability of dopamine and have been found effective in reducing overactivity, impulsivity, and inattention. d) They are only effective for improving academic performance, not other ADHD symptoms.

c) They increase the availability of dopamine and have been found effective in reducing overactivity, impulsivity, and inattention.

According to prevailing opinions, how should medication be used in the treatment of ADHD? a) Medication should be used alone without any additional interventions. b) Medication should be used only in combination with psychosocial treatments, such as behavioral parenting and classroom management. c) Medication should be used only in combination with alternative medicine practices. d) Medication is not recommended for children with ADHD.

b) Medication should be used only in combination with psychosocial treatments, such as behavioral parenting and classroom management.

What is the primary criterion for diagnosing a specific learning disorder in a child? a) The child’s academic achievement is below what is expected given their chronological age and is not due to intellectual disability. b) The child’s academic achievement is above what is expected for their chronological age. c) The child shows symptoms of ADHD but their academic performance is average. d) The child has a physical disability that affects their academic performance.

a) The child’s academic achievement is below what is expected given their chronological age and is not due to intellectual disability.

Which subtype of specific learning disorder is the most common? a) Written expression b) Mathematics c) Reading d) Social skills

c) Reading

What is a reading disorder? a) A learning disorder involving deficits in reading ability. b) A condition characterized by general developmental delays affecting multiple cognitive domains. c) A behavioral issue stemming from poor educational access and social opportunities. d) An emotional or psychological disorder that impacts a child’s ability to engage in reading activities.

a) A learning disorder involving deficits in reading ability.

What must be ruled out for a diagnosis of reading disorder? a) General developmental disability, intellectual disability, sensory impairment, and lack of access to appropriate education or sociocultural opportunities. b) ADHD, anxiety disorders, and sensory processing disorders. c) Social skills deficits and emotional disturbances. d) Physical disabilities and learning disabilities in other areas.

a) General developmental disability, intellectual disability, sensory impairment, and lack of access to appropriate education or sociocultural opportunities.

What is the prevalence rate of reading disorder in children? a) 1–3 percent b) 4–7 percent c) 8–12 percent d) 15–20 percent

b) 4–7 percent

According to the study by Smart, Sanson, and Prior (1996), what did they find regarding the stability of reading disorder in 7–8-year-old children over a two-year period? a) High rates of spontaneous recovery. b) Significant improvement with standard educational interventions. c) Little evidence of spontaneous recovery. d) Complete resolution of symptoms without intervention. Answer: c) Little evidence of spontaneous recovery.

c) Little evidence of spontaneous recovery.

What is the degree of comorbidity between reading disorder and ADHD? a) 5 to 10 percent b) 10 to 20 percent c) 15 to 45 percent d) 50 to 75 percent

c) 15 to 45 percent

What defines a specific learning disorder? a) A disorder characterized by lower than expected performance in a particular area of learning relative to the child’s chronological age and intellectual ability. b) A condition where a child has generalized developmental delays across multiple domains. c) A behavioral disorder where performance issues are primarily due to environmental factors rather than individual cognitive abilities. d) An emotional disturbance leading to difficulties in achieving expected academic performance.

a) A disorder characterized by lower than expected performance in a particular area of learning relative to the child’s chronological age and intellectual ability.

What percentage probability is there that a boy will have a reading disability if his father had a reading disability? a) 30% b) 40% c) 50% d) 60%

c) 50%

Which cognitive deficits have been suggested to contribute to the development of reading disorder? a) General cognitive ability and language skills b) Phonological awareness, working memory, and speed of processing written language c) Emotional and behavioral regulation d) Sensory impairments and lack of educational access

b) Phonological awareness, working memory, and speed of processing written language

According to research, what aspect of reading disorder treatment has been found to lead to significantly improved outcomes? a) General cognitive skills training b) Behavioral interventions and counseling c) Phonological approaches (i.e., sounding out words) d) Medication and neuropsychological therapy

c) Phonological approaches (i.e., sounding out words)

What major change did the DSM-5 introduce regarding the classification of autism spectrum disorders? a) It separated autism into multiple distinct disorders. b) It merged previously separate disorders into a single category. c) It removed autism spectrum disorders from the DSM altogether. d) It added new diagnostic criteria unrelated to previous disorders.

b) It merged previously separate disorders into a single category. (DSM-5 consolidated four previously separate disorders (autistic disorder, Asperger’s syndrome, childhood disintegrative disorder and pervasive developmental disorder not otherwise specified) into a single disorder, labelled autism spectrum disorder).

Which of the following characteristics is not specifically mentioned as a hallmark of autism spectrum disorder in the DSM-5? a) Marked impairments in social communication b) Repetitive behaviours, interests, and activities c) Significant deficits in verbal intelligence d) Difficulties in social interaction

c) Significant deficits in verbal intelligence

Which of the following is a characteristic of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) according to the DSM-5? a) Impairments in social communication and interaction as well as repetitive behaviours, interests and activities b) Severe physical disabilities c) High levels of verbal intelligence d) Frequent mood swings

a) Impairments in social communication and interaction as well as repetitive behaviours, interests and activities

How are the severity levels of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) classified in the DSM-5? a) Mild, Moderate, Severe: Based on the overall impact on daily functioning. b) High, Medium, Low: Determined by the intensity of social and communication deficits. c) Level 1, Level 2, Level 3: Reflecting the required level of support, ranging from minimal to substantial. d) Emergent, Moderate, Advanced: Based on developmental stages and treatment progress.

c) Level 1, Level 2, Level 3: Reflecting the required level of support, ranging from minimal to substantial.

What are the characteristics of Level 3 autism spectrum disorder as defined in the DSM-5? a) Requiring very substantial support: Severe deficits in social communication and interaction, with minimal initiation or response to social approaches. Extreme inflexibility of behavior and repetitive behaviors that significantly impair functioning in all areas. b) Requiring moderate support: Marked deficits in social communication with some difficulty initiating and responding to social interactions. Noticeable inflexibility and repetitive behaviors that impact daily functioning. c) Requiring minimal support: Mild deficits in social communication and some difficulties with social interactions. Limited inflexibility and repetitive behaviors that cause slight disruptions in functioning. d) Requiring no support: No significant deficits in social communication; minimal inflexibility and repetitive behaviors that do not affect functioning.

a) Requiring very substantial support: Severe deficits in social communication and interaction, with minimal initiation or response to social approaches. Extreme inflexibility of behavior and repetitive behaviors that significantly impair functioning in all areas.

What are the characteristics of Level 2 autism spectrum disorder as defined in the DSM-5? a) Requiring substantial support: Marked deficits in verbal and non-verbal social communication skills, noticeable even with supports in place; limited initiation of social interactions, with reduced or abnormal responses to social overtures. Frequent inflexibility of behavior and repetitive behaviors that interfere with functioning across various contexts. b) Requiring minimal support: Mild deficits in social communication with some difficulty initiating and responding to social interactions. Inflexibility and repetitive behaviors present but not significantly impacting daily functioning. c) Requiring no support: No significant deficits in social communication or behavior; interactions are generally appropriate and functioning is not affected. d) Requiring very substantial support: Severe deficits in social communication with minimal initiation and response to social approaches; extreme inflexibility and repetitive behaviors significantly impair all areas of functioning.

a) Requiring substantial support: Marked deficits in verbal and non-verbal social communication skills, noticeable even with supports in place; limited initiation of social interactions, with reduced or abnormal responses to social overtures. Frequent inflexibility of behavior and repetitive behaviors that interfere with functioning across various contexts.

What are the characteristics of Level 1 autism spectrum disorder as defined in the DSM-5? a) Requiring substantial support: Marked deficits in social communication skills with limited initiation of social interactions and reduced responses to social overtures; frequent inflexibility of behavior and repetitive behaviors that interfere with functioning in various contexts. b) Requiring very substantial support: Severe deficits in verbal and non-verbal social communication skills causing severe impairments, very limited social interaction, and minimal response to social approaches; extreme inflexibility and repetitive behaviors. c) Requiring support: Noticeable deficits in social communication without supports; difficulties initiating social interactions with atypical or unsuccessful responses; decreased interest in social interactions; inflexibility and problems with organization and planning. d) Requiring no support: No significant social communication or behavioral deficits; interactions are generally appropriate and functioning is not affected.

c) Requiring support: Noticeable deficits in social communication without supports; difficulties initiating social interactions with atypical or unsuccessful responses; decreased interest in social interactions; inflexibility and problems with organization and planning.

What are the core deficits in autism spectrum disorder (ASD) that lead to difficulties in social interaction? a) Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity and difficulty comprehending non-verbal communication. b) Difficulty with motor skills and sensory processing issues. c) Deficits in language development and memory. d) Problems with attention and hyperactivity.

a) Deficits in social-emotional reciprocity and difficulty comprehending non-verbal communication.

What does the concept of 'theory of mind' refer to in the context of autism spectrum disorder? a) Understanding that others have a perspective that differs from one's own. b) The ability to process sensory information accurately. c) Developing complex language skills and vocabulary. d) Mastering motor coordination and physical tasks.

a) Understanding that others have a perspective that differs from one's own.

What is the most likely reason for the observed rise in the prevalence of autism spectrum disorder (ASD) according to recent studies? a) Increased exposure to environmental toxins. b) A real increase in the incidence of the disorder. c) Changes in diagnostic criteria, more consistent diagnoses, and greater awareness. d) Increased rates of food allergies and sensitivities.

c) Changes in diagnostic criteria, more consistent diagnoses, and greater awareness.

What is the approximate prevalence of autism spectrum disorder? A) 0.5% B) 1% C) 2% D) 5%

B) 1%

What is the ratio of boys to girls diagnosed with autism spectrum disorder? a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 3:1 d) 4:1

b) 2:1

Which of the following is a predictor of a good outcome for children with autism spectrum disorder? a) The presence of significant intellectual disability. b) Acquisition of language skills before age 6. c) Absence of any specific skills or strengths. d) Poor social skills and interaction.

b) Acquisition of language skills before age 6.

What is the concordance rate for autism in monozygotic twins, indicating the likelihood that if one twin is affected, the other will also show symptoms? A) 30% B) 45% C) 60% D) 75%

C) 60% (concordance rate is probability that both members of a twin pair will develop the same disorder)

What was the outcome of the 1998 study linking the measles-mumps-rubella combination vaccine to autism? A) The study was supported by subsequent research B) The study was later retracted by The Lancet C) The study was confirmed by other large-scale studies D) The study led to a widespread adoption of vaccine-free policies

B) The study was later retracted by The Lancet

Which study found a higher than expected prevalence rate of autism spectrum disorder among children exposed to severe social deprivation? A) A study of children with mitochondrial dysfunction B) A study of children with limited dietary exposure C) A study of Romanian orphans adopted in the United Kingdom D) A study examining the effects of vaccination on autism

C) A study of Romanian orphans adopted in the United Kingdom

What type of deprivation did the Romanian orphans experience in the study conducted by O’Connor, Bredenkamp, and Rutter (1999)? A) Severe dietary deprivation B) Extreme social and emotional deprivation C) Prolonged exposure to toxins D) High levels of physical exercise and activity

B) Extreme social and emotional deprivation

What is one of the primary aims of early intervention for children with autism spectrum disorder? A) To increase the child’s exposure to toxins B) To help the child develop better social and emotional relationships C) To decrease the child’s physical activity levels D) To avoid the use of any behavioral modification programs

B) To help the child develop better social and emotional relationships

Which approach is commonly used in behavior modification programs for children with autism spectrum disorder? A) Environmental enrichment without any specific interventions B) Positive reinforcement such as praise or tangible rewards C) Complete avoidance of any form of reinforcement D) Focus solely on medication without behavioral interventions

B) Positive reinforcement such as praise or tangible rewards

What role does pharmacotherapy play in the treatment of autism spectrum disorder according to the text? A) It is the primary treatment method used alone without behavioral interventions B) It is used to target specific problems such as aggression, irritability, and hyperactivity C) It focuses exclusively on improving social skills D) It is used to prevent the development of autism spectrum disorder

B) It is used to target specific problems such as aggression, irritability, and hyperactivity

Which of the following accurately describes intellectual disability? A) It involves deficits primarily in social interactions and emotional regulation. B) It is a single disorder with a clear, singular cause and no variability in presentation. C) It comprises a heterogeneous group of disorders with multiple causes, all of which involve deficits in intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning. D) It is characterized by temporary cognitive impairments due to environmental factors.

C) It comprises a heterogeneous group of disorders with multiple causes, all of which involve deficits in intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning.

In the DSM-5, intellectual disability was previously referred to as which term in the earlier edition of the DSM? A) Cognitive Impairment B) Mental Retardation C) Developmental Delay D) Intellectual Dysfunction

B) Mental Retardation

According to the DSM-5, which of the following criteria are used to diagnose intellectual disability? A) Deficits in intellectual functioning and adaptive functioning with onset in adulthood. B) Deficits in intellectual functioning, deficits in adaptive functioning, and onset in childhood. C) Deficits in intellectual functioning only, without considering adaptive functioning. D) Deficits in adaptive functioning with onset in adolescence and no specific intellectual functioning criteria.

B) Deficits in intellectual functioning, deficits in adaptive functioning, and onset in childhood.

Which instrument is most commonly used to assess adaptive functioning skills in individuals with intellectual disability? A) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC) B) Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales C) Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scale D) Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children (KABC)

C) Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scale

What score range on an intelligence test typically indicates intellectual disability according to the DSM-5? A) Scores above 85 B) Scores between 70 and 85 C) Scores below 65–75 D) Scores between 80 and 90

C) Scores below 65–75

The Vineland Adaptive Behavior Scale assesses adaptive functioning in individuals with intellectual disability. Which of the following domains is NOT included in this assessment? A) Communication B) Daily-living skills C) Socialisation D) Memory

D) Memory

What is the estimated prevalence of intellectual impairment? A) 5% B) 10% C) 1% D) 0.5%

C) 1%

What percentage of individuals with intellectual impairment have an IQ within the mild range? A) 50% B) 70% C) 85% D) 90%

C) 85%

Which of the following disorders is NOT commonly associated with intellectual impairment? A) Epilepsy B) Cerebral palsy C) Sensory deficits D) Schizophrenia E) Pervasive developmental disorder

D) Schizophrenia

What are pervasive developmental disorders characterized by? A) Severe and persisting impairment in several areas of development B) Temporary and specific impairments in cognitive functions C) Mild difficulties in academic performance D) Short-term behavioral issues related to environmental factors

A) Severe and persisting impairment in several areas of development

Which gender is more frequently diagnosed with intellectual impairment? A) Boys B) Girls C) Both genders equally D) No significant difference

A) Boys

According to the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for intellectual disability, when must the onset occur? A) In early adulthood B) During the developmental period (childhood or adolescence) C) During late adolescence or early adulthood D) At any point in life

B) During the developmental period (childhood or adolescence)

What factors influence the course and outcome of intellectual disability according to the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria? A) Only genetic factors B) Only psychosocial factors C) Both biomedical and psychosocial factors D) Environmental factors only

C) Both biomedical and psychosocial factors

What is a crucial component of early intervention for individuals with intellectual disability? A) Only behavioral therapy B) Early treatment of underlying conditions C) Just academic support D) Only family counseling

B) Early treatment of underlying conditions

What types of therapies are important in early intervention for individuals with intellectual disability? A) Physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech therapy B) Only academic tutoring and social skills training C) Only family therapy D) Recreational activities and extracurricular enrichment

A) Physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech therapy

What do externalising disorders broadly encompass? A) Disorders characterized by internal emotional struggles, such as anxiety and depression B) Disorders characterized by problems of over-control, where behaviors are directed at oneself C) Disorders characterized by problems of under-control, where behaviors are directed at others D) Disorders related to cognitive deficits and learning difficulties

C) Disorders characterized by problems of under-control, where behaviors are directed at others

Which disorders are included under the category of externalising disorders as classified in the DSM-5? A) Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder B) Autism spectrum disorder and intellectual disability C) Generalized anxiety disorder and major depressive disorder D) Specific learning disorders and ADHD

A) Oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder

Under which heading are externalising disorders classified in the DSM-5? A) Mood Disorders B) Neurodevelopmental Disorders C) Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders D) Anxiety Disorders

C) Disruptive, Impulse-Control, and Conduct Disorders

What characterizes oppositional defiant disorder in children? A) Chronic misbehaviour marked by belligerence, irritability, and defiance. B) Persistent anxiety and avoidance of social situations. C) Severe mood swings and excessive impulsivity. D) Difficulty with attention and hyperactivity.

A) Chronic misbehaviour marked by belligerence, irritability, and defiance.

Which of the following best describes oppositional defiant disorder? A) A disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness, involving difficulty regulating emotions and a negative affective style. B) A disorder involving chronic disregard for the rights of others, including behaviors such as stealing, lying, and engaging in acts of violence. C) A condition marked by intense mood swings, impulsivity, and difficulty focusing on tasks. D) A disorder defined by persistent feelings of excessive worry, fear of social situations, and avoidance behaviors.

A) A disorder characterized by a persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, and vindictiveness, involving difficulty regulating emotions and a negative affective style.

When diagnosing oppositional defiant disorder (ODD), why is it important to consider the child’s developmental stage and gender? A) Because the severity of ODD symptoms decreases with age. B) Because normative behavior varies with age and gender, influencing how symptoms present. C) Because gender and age have no impact on the presentation of ODD symptoms. D) Because treatment strategies for ODD differ based on age and gender.

B) Because normative behavior varies with age and gender, influencing how symptoms present.

For a diagnosis of oppositional defiant disorder (ODD), why must the behaviors occur across different settings and situations such as home, school and community? A) To ensure that the behaviors are a result of specific environmental factors rather than a general pattern. B) To confirm that the behaviors are not isolated incidents but part of a persistent pattern affecting various aspects of the child’s life. C) To distinguish ODD from other disorders that only manifest in one setting. D) To validate that the child’s symptoms are not influenced by external interventions.

B) To confirm that the behaviors are not isolated incidents but part of a persistent pattern affecting various aspects of the child’s life.

Which of the following is true about the behaviors indicative of oppositional defiant disorder in different age groups? A) Preschoolers with ODD typically exhibit more passive behaviors compared to older children. B) Older children with ODD are more likely to exhibit behaviors such as stealing money or video games compared to preschoolers. C) The type of disturbed behavior in ODD is consistent across all age groups. D) Younger children with ODD are less likely to engage in temper tantrums than older children.

B) Older children with ODD are more likely to exhibit behaviors such as stealing money or video games compared to preschoolers.

What is essential for a comprehensive assessment of oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)? A) Relying solely on parent reports of the child's behavior. B) Using multiple forms of assessment and gathering information from various sources, including the child, parent, and teacher. C) Focusing only on direct observations of the child’s behavior in a single setting. D) Administering only standardized questionnaires without additional interviews.

B) Using multiple forms of assessment and gathering information from various sources, including the child, parent, and teacher.

What is the approximate prevalence of oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) among all children? A) 1 per cent B) 3 per cent C) 5 per cent D) 8 per cent

B) 3 per cent

Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is more common in boys compared to girls. What is the approximate ratio of boys to girls diagnosed with ODD? A) 1:1 B) 1.6:1 C) 2:1 D) 3:1

B) 1.6:1

At what stage of childhood is oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) most commonly diagnosed? A) Early childhood B) Preschool C) Middle childhood D) Adolescence

C) Middle childhood

The longer oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) persists, the more likely a child is to develop other conditions, including: A) Autism spectrum disorder B) Schizophrenia C) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and anxiety disorders D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder and eating disorders

C) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and anxiety disorders

A broad array of risk factors for oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) includes: A) Only biological factors such as genetics and neurodevelopmental abnormalities B) Only social factors such as family environment and peer relationships C) Biological, psychological, and social factors D) Only psychological factors such as cognitive distortions and emotional regulation

C) Biological, psychological, and social factors

What biological factor related to aggressiveness has been found to show alterations in children with oppositional defiant disorder? A) Cortisol levels B) Estrogen levels C) Androgen levels D) Serotonin levels

C) Androgen levels (Substance such as testosterone producing male characteristics)

According to research, what difference in brain function is associated with a negative affective style in children with oppositional defiant disorder? A) Altered cerebellum activation B) Differences in patterns of frontal brain activation C) Increased occipital lobe activity D) Reduced temporal lobe function

B) Differences in patterns of frontal brain activation

What physiological characteristic has been observed in preschoolers with oppositional defiant disorder that may contribute to their problem behaviors? A) Increased heart rate variability B) Autonomic under-arousal C) Elevated blood pressure D) Enhanced sweat gland activity

B) Autonomic under-arousal

What condition has been associated with the development of oppositional defiant disorder symptomatology? A) Chronic migraines B) Traumatic brain injury C) Epileptic seizures D) Hydrocephalus

B) Traumatic brain injury

What characteristic is commonly found in parents of non-compliant, aggressive children compared to parents of non-problem children? A) High levels of warmth and support B) Greater use of positive reinforcement C) Highly punitive and critical attitudes, and attributing misbehaviour to stable, dispositional traits D) Increased involvement in children’s extracurricular activities

C) Highly punitive and critical attitudes, and attributing misbehaviour to stable, dispositional traits

What type of parental behaviour, associated with externalising behaviour problems, involves giving negative instructions and punishing the child? A) Authoritative parenting B) Permissive parenting C) Restrictive control D) Supportive parenting

C) Restrictive control

According to Patterson’s (1982) coercive processes model, which of the following best describes the cycle of interactions between parents and children? A) Parents use consistent and non-reinforcing responses to child misbehavior, leading to improved behavior over time. B) Children learn to cooperate with parents through positive reinforcement and supportive interactions. C) Parents and children engage in progressively more coercive interactions with each other through learning processes, where each party reinforces the other's negative behavior, creating a cycle of increasing conflict. D) The model suggests that parental influence is minimized, and children's behavior is shaped primarily by external social factors.

C) Parents and children engage in progressively more coercive interactions with each other through learning processes, where each party reinforces the other's negative behavior, creating a cycle of increasing conflict.

Which of the following best describes Conduct Disorder? A) A disorder characterized by mood swings and emotional instability. B) A disorder marked by chronic disregard for the rights of others, including behaviours such as stealing, lying, and engaging in acts of violence. C) A disorder involving difficulty with social interactions and communication, as seen in Autism Spectrum Disorder. D) A disorder defined by excessive worry and anxiety about various aspects of life.

B) A disorder marked by chronic disregard for the rights of others, including behaviours such as stealing, lying, and engaging in acts of violence.

Which of the following behaviours is commonly associated with Conduct Disorder? A) Difficulty following instructions and frequent temper tantrums. B) Engaging in acts of violence, stealing, and lying. C) Persistent sadness and loss of interest in activities. D) Avoidance of social interactions and difficulty with non-verbal communication.

B) Engaging in acts of violence, stealing, and lying.

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the gender differences in the prevalence of conduct disorder? A) Conduct disorder is equally common in boys and girls across all age groups. B) Conduct disorder is more common in girls than boys throughout childhood. C) Conduct disorder is more common in boys than girls, with a higher prevalence rate in adolescence. D) Conduct disorder is equally prevalent in boys and girls in adolescence but more common in girls in childhood.

C) Conduct disorder is more common in boys than girls, with a higher prevalence rate in adolescence.

What is the approximate prevalence rate of conduct disorder across childhood, and how does it change during adolescence? A) Approximately 1 per cent in childhood, rising to 4 per cent in adolescence. B) Approximately 3 per cent in childhood, rising to 6 per cent in adolescence. C) Approximately 3 per cent in childhood, remaining stable through adolescence. D) Approximately 6 per cent in childhood, decreasing to 3 per cent in adolescence.

B) Approximately 3 per cent in childhood, rising to 6 per cent in adolescence.

According to the DSM-5, what are the two subtypes of conduct disorder, and how do they differ in terms of age of onset? A) Early onset (before age 10) and late onset (11 years or older), with early onset being more characteristic of girls. B) Early onset (before age 10) and late onset (11 years or older), with early onset being more characteristic of boys. C) Early onset (before age 5) and late onset (10 years or older), with late onset being more characteristic of boys. D) Early onset (before age 10) and late onset (11 years or older), with late onset being more characteristic of girls.

B) Early onset (before age 10) and late onset (11 years or older), with early onset being more characteristic of boys.

How does the course of conduct disorder typically differ between boys and girls? A) Boys commonly show late onset conduct disorder, while girls typically show early onset. B) Both boys and girls show similar patterns of onset and progression for conduct disorder. C) Boys are more likely to show early onset conduct disorder, while girls are more likely to show late onset. D) Girls show early onset conduct disorder, while boys show late onset

C) Boys are more likely to show early onset conduct disorder, while girls are more likely to show late onset.

n longitudinal studies like the Dunedin Study and the Australian Temperament Project, how are children with persistent antisocial behaviour differentiated from those with late-onset antisocial behaviour? A) Persistent antisocial behaviour is seen from early childhood, while late-onset behaviour starts in early adolescence. B) Persistent antisocial behaviour is identified based on substance use during adolescence, while late-onset behaviour is based on temperamental traits. C) Persistent antisocial behaviour starts in late adolescence, while late-onset behaviour starts in early childhood. D) Persistent antisocial behaviour is marked by social competence issues, while late-onset behaviour is marked by parental conflict.

A) Persistent antisocial behaviour is seen from early childhood, while late-onset behaviour starts in early adolescence.

What is the relationship between oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) during childhood and the development of conduct disorder (CD)? A) Children with ODD and ADHD are less likely to develop CD compared to children with only one of these disorders. B) The presence of ODD and ADHD during childhood is often a precursor to CD, though not all children with these conditions develop CD. C) ODD and ADHD are directly responsible for the development of CD in all cases. D) CD always develops from ODD and ADHD without the influence of additional variables.

B) The presence of ODD and ADHD during childhood is often a precursor to CD, though not all children with these conditions develop CD.

What role do modifiable variables play in the development of conduct disorder in children with oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)? A) Modifiable variables have no impact on the development of conduct disorder in these children. B) Modifiable variables, similar to those for ODD, can influence the likelihood of developing conduct disorder and can be targeted through intervention. C) Only non-modifiable variables affect the transition from ODD and ADHD to conduct disorder. D) Modifiable variables are irrelevant to conduct disorder, which is solely determined by genetic factors.

B) Modifiable variables, similar to those for ODD, can influence the likelihood of developing conduct disorder and can be targeted through intervention.

What evidence suggests a genetic link between conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder? A) High levels of cortisol in affected individuals B) Shared genetic elements among these disorders C) Increased androgen hormone levels D) Presence of callous-unemotional traits

B) Shared genetic elements among these disorders

How might low cortisol levels be related to conduct disorder in boys? A) They are linked to increased impulsivity B) They are associated with higher aggression levels C) They predict higher academic performance D) They reduce the likelihood of developing conduct disorder

B) They are associated with higher aggression levels

What role do androgen hormones play in conduct disorder? A) They are unrelated to conduct disorder B) Higher levels are associated with conduct disorder C) They reduce aggressive behavior D) They increase empathy and remorse

B) Higher levels are associated with conduct disorder

What temperamental traits in young children are associated with an increased risk of developing conduct disorder? A) Calm and persistent behavior B) Negativity, volatility, and low persistence C) High empathy and cooperation D) Stable mood and high social competence

B) Negativity, volatility, and low persistence

Which social factor is a significant predictor of conduct disorder in children? A) High levels of parental warmth B) Associating with antisocial peers C) Positive family relationships D) High academic achievement

B) Associating with antisocial peers

What family-related factors are associated with an increased risk of conduct disorder? A) Single parent families, low marital conflict, and high parental supervision B) High parental warmth, supportive family relationships, and consistent discipline C) Single parent families, marital conflict, and harsh parenting practices D) Dual parent families, minimal marital conflict, and positive parenting practices

C) Single parent families, marital conflict, and harsh parenting practices

Which of the following types of interventions has been shown to be effective in reducing externalising problems in children? A) School-based interventions designed to improve classroom and playground behaviour B) Interventions aimed solely at enhancing academic performance C) Pharmacological approaches without any additional psychosocial support D) Solely attachment-based approaches without involving parenting interventions

A) School-based interventions designed to improve classroom and playground behaviour

Which of the following best describes the primary approach used in parent management training for treating problem behaviors in children? A) Training parents to use a variety of positive parenting strategies and consistent consequences for problem behaviors. B) Emphasizing only punitive parenting practices without using positive reinforcement. C) Providing pharmacological treatments to parents to manage their children's behavior. D) Focusing exclusively on improving academic performance without addressing behavioral issues.

A) Training parents to use a variety of positive parenting strategies and consistent consequences for problem behaviors

Which of the following interventions is specifically designed to improve parenting skills and family relationships? A) School-based behavioral programs B) Pharmacological treatments C) Parenting management training and family therapy D) Social skills training for children

C) Parenting management training and family therapy

What is the primary focus of the Triple P-Positive Parenting Program? A) Improving children's academic performance B) Enhancing parenting skills and family relationships C) Increasing children's physical fitness D) Addressing specific learning disabilities

B) Enhancing parenting skills and family relationships

Which of the following is a key component of the Triple P-Positive Parenting Program? A) Teaching children advanced academic skills B) Implementing pharmacological treatments for behavioral issues C) Using positive reinforcement strategies such as praise and rewards D) Conducting intensive individual therapy for children

C) Using positive reinforcement strategies such as praise and rewards

Which of the following techniques is NOT typically emphasized in the Triple P-Positive Parenting Program? A) Praise and attention for desired behavior B) Response cost and planned ignoring C) Medication for behavioral issues D) Clear and calm instructions with consistent consequences

C) Medication for behavioral issues

What is a primary focus of attachment-based approaches to parenting? A) Teaching specific academic skills to children B) Enhancing the parent’s ability to perceive and respond to the child’s emotional cues C) Implementing strict disciplinary measures for behavioral problems D) Providing medication to manage conduct problems

B) Enhancing the parent’s ability to perceive and respond to the child’s emotional cues

According to current research, how effective are attachment-based approaches when used in isolation for treating conduct problems? A) They are highly effective in changing behavior on their own B) There is significant evidence showing they are the best standalone treatment C) They have shown limited effectiveness and are often integrated with behavioral interventions D) They are only effective for children with secure attachments

C) They have shown limited effectiveness and are often integrated with behavioral interventions

Which of the following best describes Functional Family Therapy? A) A long-term individual therapy focusing exclusively on the youth B) A short-term family therapy intervention aimed at improving family communication and reducing negativity C) A medication-based treatment for delinquent youth D) A behavioral therapy focusing on classroom management for school-aged children

B) A short-term family therapy intervention aimed at improving family communication and reducing negativity

Which of the following best describes the approach used in social problem-solving training for children with conduct problems? A) Teaching children to avoid conflict by using passive avoidance strategies B) Training children in identifying problems, generating solutions, selecting the best solution, and evaluating its success through modeling, rehearsal, feedback, and reinforcement C) Encouraging children to solve problems through physical aggression and retaliation D) Providing medication to manage symptoms of aggression and impulsivity

B) Training children in identifying problems, generating solutions, selecting the best solution, and evaluating its success through modeling, rehearsal, feedback, and reinforcement

Which of the following best describes the approach used by the ‘FAST TRACK’ program for managing conduct problems? A) Targeting only home-based interventions without involving schools or peers B) Focusing solely on medication management for children with conduct problems C) Concurrently addressing risk and protective factors at home and school, involving parents, teachers, peers, and the curriculum D) Emphasizing individual therapy for children without involving family or school environments

C) Concurrently addressing risk and protective factors at home and school, involving parents, teachers, peers, and the curriculum

What is a primary criticism of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) as introduced in the DSM-5? A) It is too similar to Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder. B) It lacks empirical support for its validity and is seen as pathologizing normal temper tantrums. C) It is too narrowly defined and excludes children with significant emotional symptoms. D) It is only applicable to adults and not children.

B) It lacks empirical support for its validity and is seen as pathologizing normal temper tantrums.

What is a significant issue concerning the diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD) in relation to other disorders? A) It is rarely diagnosed alongside any other disorders. B) It has very low comorbidity rates compared to other disorders. C) It has a very high comorbidity rate with Oppositional Defiant Disorder, making it difficult to distinguish between the two. D) It is easily differentiated from Conduct Disorder due to distinct symptom patterns.

C) It has a very high comorbidity rate with Oppositional Defiant Disorder, making it difficult to distinguish between the two.

Which of the following best describes Separation Anxiety Disorder? A) A disorder characterized by excessive worry about academic performance and fear of failure B) A disorder where children exhibit uncontrollable temper tantrums and defiant behavior C) A disorder marked by abnormal fear or worry about becoming separated from one’s caregivers, and clinging behavior in their presence D) A disorder involving persistent worry about health and frequent physical complaints

C) A disorder marked by abnormal fear or worry about becoming separated from one’s caregivers, and clinging behavior in their presence

What distinguishes Separation Anxiety Disorder from normative separation anxiety in young children? A) Separation Anxiety Disorder is only observed in children under 13 months. B) Separation Anxiety Disorder is characterized by fears and worries unrelated to separation and is not alleviated by the presence of attachment figures. C) Separation Anxiety Disorder is expressed through distress specifically related to separation from an attachment figure, and the fear is greatly reduced in the presence of the attachment figure. D) Separation Anxiety Disorder typically involves generalized anxiety about various concerns, not specifically related to separation.

C) Separation Anxiety Disorder is expressed through distress specifically related to separation from an attachment figure, and the fear is greatly reduced in the presence of the attachment figure.

Which of the following symptoms is most characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder in older children? A) Fear of loud noises and public speaking. B) Preoccupation with harm coming to an attachment figure and extreme homesickness. C) Generalized anxiety about a range of everyday activities. D) Persistent fears about physical health unrelated to separation experiences.

B) Preoccupation with harm coming to an attachment figure and extreme homesickness.

What is the estimated prevalence of Separation Anxiety Disorder in children, according to available studies? A) Approximately 1 per cent B) Approximately 4 per cent C) Approximately 10 per cent D) Approximately 15 per cent

B) Approximately 4 per cent (more common in girls)

Separation Anxiety Disorder is most commonly observed in which age group? A) Preschoolers (under 5 years old) B) Early adolescents (10–12 years old) C) Middle childhood (7–9 years old) D) Teenagers (13–18 years old)

C) Middle childhood (7–9 years old)

What is a common outcome for cases of Separation Anxiety Disorder in young children? A) They always resolve by early adolescence B) They typically worsen in adolescence C) They remain stable without significant changes D) They improve over time but may worsen again in adolescence

D) They improve over time but may worsen again in adolescence

What is a significant concern for children with persistent Separation Anxiety Disorder? A) They are less likely to develop any other disorders B) They may experience high levels of impairment and comorbidity with other disorders C) They do not show any comorbid conditions D) They are always diagnosed with conduct disorder

B) They may experience high levels of impairment and comorbidity with other disorders

Which of the following is a common comorbidity with Separation Anxiety Disorder in children? A) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B) Oppositional Defiant Disorder C) Schizophrenia D) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder

B) Oppositional Defiant Disorder

How does Separation Anxiety Disorder in childhood relate to later mental health outcomes? A) It is unlikely to affect mental health in adulthood. B) It is strongly linked to the development of other anxiety disorders in adulthood. C) It prevents the development of other mental health disorders later in life. D) It leads directly to the development of personality disorders.

B) It is strongly linked to the development of other anxiety disorders in adulthood.

Which of the following factors is believed to contribute to the development and maintenance of Separation Anxiety Disorder? A) Only genetic predisposition B) Exclusively parental anxiety C) Genetic components, parental anxiety modeling, parenting behaviors, and environmental factors D) Lack of academic achievement

C) Genetic components, parental anxiety modeling, parenting behaviors, and environmental factors

What is the genetic vulnerability associated with Separation Anxiety Disorder that is characterized by a predisposition to anxiety in general? A) Behavioral inhibition B) Cognitive dissonance C) Emotional dysregulation D) Impulse control Answer: A) Behavioral inhibition

A) Behavioral inhibition (genetic vulnerability characterised by a tendency to display anxiety and to withdraw in unfamiliar situations)

What role does observational learning play in the development of Separation Anxiety Disorder in children with anxious parents? A) Children learn to respond to anxiety-provoking situations by adopting their parents' coping strategies. B) Children develop a strong sense of independence by observing their parents handle fear without showing anxiety. C) Children are less likely to develop anxiety if they see their parents remain calm. D) Children do not learn from their parents' behavior but from external sources.

A) Children learn to respond to anxiety-provoking situations by adopting their parents' coping strategies.

In CBT for Separation Anxiety Disorder, which coping strategy might a child be taught to manage anxiety-provoking thoughts? A) Ignoring all negative thoughts completely B) Using positive coping statements like “Even though I’ll be away from home, I’ll be with friends who care about me” C) Avoiding all situations that might trigger anxiety D) Replacing anxiety-provoking thoughts with random, unrelated thoughts

B) Using positive coping statements like “Even though I’ll be away from home, I’ll be with friends who care about me”

Which of the following is a key component of CBT for treating Separation Anxiety Disorder? A) Psychoeducation about anxiety and its maintenance B) Medication to alter brain chemistry C) Social skills training to enhance peer interactions D) Creative arts therapy to express emotions

A) Psychoeducation about anxiety and its maintenance

Which of the following is an unsupported but commonly believed cause of selective mutism? A) Early psychological or physical trauma B) Genetic predisposition C) Environmental stressors D) Neurological disorders

A) Early psychological or physical trauma

Which of the following best describes selective mutism? A) A disorder characterized by an inability to speak in all situations, including at home and at school. B) A disorder marked by a persistent failure to speak in certain settings despite having the ability to speak. C) A condition where an individual experiences a temporary loss of speech due to a traumatic event. D) A speech disorder involving difficulty pronouncing certain sounds.

B) A disorder marked by a persistent failure to speak in certain settings despite having the ability to speak. (may respond or make their needs known by nodding their heads, pointing or by remaining emotionless or expressionless until someone guesses what they want)

What is the primary aim of the 'Friends Program' developed in Australia? A) To specifically target separation anxiety disorder in children B) To provide a school-wide intervention to reduce overall childhood anxiety, including separation anxiety C) To offer medication-based treatments for anxiety D) To focus solely on individual therapy for children with severe anxiety

B) To provide a school-wide intervention to reduce overall childhood anxiety, including separation anxiety (Psychoeducation and CBT strategies for anxiety)

Which of the following statements about the prevalence of selective mutism is accurate? A) Selective mutism occurs in more than 5% of children. B) The prevalence rate of selective mutism is estimated to be less than 1%, but this rate might be an underestimate due to the condition's subtle nature. C) Selective mutism is observed in 2-3% of children, based on recent studies. D) The prevalence of selective mutism is widely recognized as 10% of children.

B) The prevalence rate of selective mutism is estimated to be less than 1%, but this rate might be an underestimate due to the condition's subtle nature. (more common in girls)

Selective mutism is typically diagnosed when a child fails to speak in certain settings for how long? A) Less than one month B) At least one month C) Six months D) One year

B) At least one month

Which of the following is the most common comorbid condition in children with selective mutism? A) Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) B) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) C) Anxiety disorders, such as separation anxiety disorder and social phobia D) Autism spectrum disorder

C) Anxiety disorders, such as separation anxiety disorder and social phobia (75% anxiety) (40% elimination and speech disorder)

What is a key characteristic of selective mutism regarding its onset and duration? A) Selective mutism typically begins suddenly and has a high rate of remission within a few months. B) The onset of selective mutism is usually gradual, with some children experiencing it for only a short period, while others may have it for many years. Even after remission, individuals often still feel discomfort in speaking situations. C) Selective mutism commonly resolves within a few weeks without any discomfort in future speaking situations. D) The disorder usually starts abruptly and resolves quickly without ongoing effects.

B) The onset of selective mutism is usually gradual, with some children experiencing it for only a short period, while others may have it for many years. Even after remission, individuals often still feel discomfort in speaking situations.

In more recent accounts, what factors are considered to contribute to the development of selective mutism? A) Only environmental stressors B) Biological, temperamental, and anxiety components C) Educational deficiencies D) Cultural influences

B) Biological, temperamental, and anxiety components

How is selective mutism classified in the DSM-5? A) As a mood disorder B) As a neurodevelopmental disorder C) As an anxiety disorder D) As a dissociative disorder

C) As an anxiety disorder

What is the primary focus of behavioural interventions for treating selective mutism? A) Enhancing academic performance B) Eliminating reinforcement for mutism while increasing self-confidence and decreasing anxiety C) Increasing verbal communication with family members only D) Encouraging pharmacotherapy as the main treatment approach

B) Eliminating reinforcement for mutism while increasing self-confidence and decreasing anxiety

ccording to Dow and colleagues (1995), what temperament is suggested to contribute to the development of selective mutism? A) Extroverted and sociable B) Shy and inhibited C) Highly active and impulsive D) Emotionally stable and confident

B) Shy and inhibited

What percentage of children with selective mutism in Black and Udhe’s (1994) study met the diagnostic criteria for social phobia? A) 50% B) 75% C) 97% D) 30%

C) 97%

Which technique involves using auditory and video recordings to help a child with selective mutism? A) Graduated exposure therapy B) Self-modelling of appropriate actions C) Pharmacotherapy D) Parental guidance sessions

B) Self-modelling of appropriate actions

Which of the following best describes enuresis (elimination disorder)? A) Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places B) Involuntary emptying of the bladder C) Persistent fear of separation from a caregiver D) Failure to speak in certain settings

B) Involuntary emptying of the bladder

What is the main criterion for diagnosing nocturnal enuresis? A) The child must be aged five years or older. B) The child must experience involuntary emptying of the bladder during the day. C) The child must have a history of physical trauma. D) The child must have never experienced bladder control.

A) The child must be aged five years or older

Which of the following best describes primary enuresis? A) Occurs when a child has been dry for at least six months and then begins wetting the bed again. B) Occurs when a child has never been dry. C) Involves involuntary emptying of the bladder during the day. D) Is characterized by a significant increase in bladder control.

B) Occurs when a child has never been dry.

Which statement best describes secondary enuresis? A) It occurs when a child has never been dry. B) It occurs when a child has had a period of dryness for at least six months before starting to wet the bed again. C) It involves involuntary emptying of the bladder during the day. D) It is a type of enuresis that only occurs at night.

B) It occurs when a child has had a period of dryness for at least six months before starting to wet the bed again.

What is the typical prevalence rate of nocturnal enuresis in 7-year-old boys and girls? A) 5-10% in boys and 2-5% in girls B) 15-22% in boys and 7-15% in girls C) 25-30% in boys and 10-20% in girls D) 10-15% in boys and 5-10% in girls

B) 15-22% in boys and 7-15% in girls

What are the key reasons for the importance of early intervention in treating nocturnal enuresis? A) Most children with enuresis resolve the problem without treatment B) Enuresis is rare in adulthood and typically resolves on its own C) Children with enuresis often face embarrassment, social isolation, and low self-esteem that may lead to ongoing difficulties in adulthood D) Enuresis is only a minor issue that does not impact long-term functioning

C) Children with enuresis often face embarrassment, social isolation, and low self-esteem that may lead to ongoing difficulties in adulthood

What is a common comorbid condition associated with nocturnal enuresis? A) Social Anxiety Disorder B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) C) Generalized Anxiety Disorder D) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

B) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)

Why is it important to address comorbidity in children with nocturnal enuresis? A) Comorbidity with other conditions can complicate treatment and exacerbate issues such as behavioral problems and social difficulties. B) Comorbid conditions are unrelated and do not impact the treatment of enuresis. C) Addressing comorbidity is not necessary as it has no effect on enuresis. D) Comorbid conditions always resolve on their own without intervention.

A) Comorbidity with other conditions can complicate treatment and exacerbate issues such as behavioral problems and social difficulties.

Psychological factors rarely contribute to the development of primary enuresis, whereas specific psychosocial events are much more common in secondary enuresis. True/False

True (e.g. stressful life events such as parental divorce, the death of a loved one or other trauma can lead to the development of secondary enuresis)

What factor is thought to play a substantial role in the development of enuresis? A) Environmental stressors B) Inherited factors C) Nutritional deficiencies D) School-related issues

B) Inherited factors

How does having an enuretic parent affect a child's likelihood of developing enuresis? A) It decreases the likelihood of enuresis. B) It has no impact on the likelihood of developing enuresis. C) It increases the likelihood of enuresis. D) It is only relevant if both parents are enuretic.

C) It increases the likelihood of enuresis. (44% if one parent had it and 77% if both parents had it)

What general developmental factor is associated with children who have enuresis? A) Higher than average height B) Delayed development of milestones C) Advanced motor skills D) Early developmental milestones

B) Delayed development of milestones

Which of the following is a possible specific factor contributing to enuresis? A) Reduced height B) Increased sensitivity to bladder sensations C) Reduced functional bladder capacity D) Enhanced bladder control

C) Reduced functional bladder capacity, hyperactivity of the parasympathetic nervous system; abnormal sleep patterns and arousability (i.e., reduced waking from sleep in response to the sensation of a full bladder);

What is the most successful treatment for enuresis, based on the success rates? A) Medication B) Conditioning approach C) Dietary changes D) Increased fluid intake

B) Conditioning approach (more successful than medication)

How does the effectiveness of desmopressin compare to conditioning interventions in treating enuresis? A) Desmopressin is more effective than conditioning interventions. B) Desmopressin and conditioning interventions have similar success rates. C) Conditioning interventions are generally more successful than desmopressin. D) Desmopressin has a higher rate of complete dryness compared to conditioning interventions.

C) Conditioning interventions are generally more successful than desmopressin. (an antidiuretic that leads to decreased urine production and increased urine concentration)

How does the bell and pad method work for treating nocturnal enuresis? A) It involves the use of medication to reduce urine production. B) It uses a urine-sensitive pad connected to an alarm that activates when the child wets the bed. C) It requires increasing fluid intake to manage enuresis. D) It employs dietary changes to manage bladder control.

B) It uses a urine-sensitive pad connected to an alarm that activates when the child wets the bed.

What is the most effective intervention for nocturnal enuresis based on conditioning principles? A) Medication B) Behavioral therapy C) The bell and pad method D) Dietary changes

C) The bell and pad method

What is the definition of encopresis? A) Frequent urination in inappropriate places B) Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places in a child at least four years old C) Difficulty controlling bowel movements but not occurring in inappropriate places D) Frequent vomiting in inappropriate places

B) Repetitive soiling in inappropriate places in a child at least four years old

To meet the criteria for encopresis, how often must a child exhibit soiling behavior? A) Once a week B) At least once a month C) Once a year D) Daily

B) At least once a month

What are the two main types of encopresis? A) Stress-related and non-stress-related B) Organic and functional C) Retentive and non-retentive D) Acute and chronic

C) Retentive and non-retentive (retentive, where the child tends to hold on for as long as possible, or non-retentive, where soiling is intermittent and there is no evidence of constipation)

Despite its decline with age, what are some of the difficulties children with encopresis may experience? A) Better social interactions B) Fewer academic challenges C) Increased anxiety, depressive symptoms, and social problems D) Improved behavioral and attention skills

C) Increased anxiety, depressive symptoms, and social problems

At what age is encopresis typically not diagnosed due to the lack of physical control over anal functioning? A) Before two years B) Before three years C) Before four years D) Before five years

C) Before four years

According to Cox, Sutphen, Ling, and Quillian's aetiological model, what is the initial event that triggers the development of encopresis? A) Diarrhea B) Constipation C) Urinary tract infection D) Emotional trauma

B) Constipation

What consequence follows the child's avoidance of toilet use due to painful experiences with large, hard stools? A) Decreased faecal impaction B) Chronic constipation with overflow incontinence C) Improved toilet habits D) Increased frequency of bowel movements

B) Chronic constipation with overflow incontinence

How does parent–child conflict contribute to the development of encopresis according to the model? A) It decreases the child's anxiety about using the toilet. B) It leads to increased frequency of successful toilet use. C) It results in resistance to toilet use and further soiling. D) It improves the child's ability to manage bowel movements.

C) It results in resistance to toilet use and further soiling.

What psychological effects can occur as a result of encopresis according to the model? A) Increased confidence and self-esteem B) Enhanced social interactions C) Shame and rejection leading to hiding or lying about dirty underwear D) Improved academic performance

C) Shame and rejection leading to hiding or lying about dirty underwear

Why is combining medical management with behavioral treatment generally more effective than using medical management alone for encopresis? A) Medical management alone addresses both the physical and psychological aspects of the disorder. B) Behavioral treatment complements medical management by addressing the behavioral and psychological components. C) Behavioral treatment alone is sufficient for managing encopresis. D) Medical management alone is more effective than combined approaches.

B) Behavioral treatment complements medical management by addressing the behavioral and psychological components.

How do behavioral interventions help manage encopresis? A) By focusing only on dietary changes B) By providing psychoeducation, implementing a reinforcement schedule, and reducing accidental reinforcement C) By exclusively using laxatives D) By avoiding any interaction with the child’s toileting habits

B) By providing psychoeducation, implementing a reinforcement schedule, and reducing accidental reinforcement

What is one challenge highlighted by follow-up studies on encopresis treatment? A) The treatments are effective immediately and require no follow-up. B) All children fully resolve their symptoms with initial treatment. What is one challenge highlighted by follow-up studies on encopresis treatment? A) The treatments are effective immediately and require no follow-up. B) All children fully resolve their symptoms with initial treatment. C) A significant percentage of children continue to soil even after treatment. D) Follow-up studies are not necessary for evaluating treatment effectiveness

C) A significant percentage of children continue to soil even after treatment.