Week 7a: Cardiac Arrhythmias Flashcards

1
Q

P waves in sinus arrythmias

A

P waves are upright in I, II and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Treatment for sinus bradycardia?

A

atropine 0.5mg q3-5min or adrenergic infusions such as dopamine or epinephrine IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

causes of sinus tachycardia

A

exercise, fever, and hyperthyroidism among others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

treatment of sinus tachycardia

A

digoxin, beta blockers, CCBs, BBs, amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

paroxysmal supra ventricular tachycardia

A

episodes of rapid heart rate that start in a part of the heart above the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the most common arrhythmia?

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

chaotic and ineffective atrial depolarization

A

atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

signs and symptoms of atrial fibrillation

A

fainting, exercise intolerance, palpitations, pulmonary edema, decreased CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

medications for atrial fibrillation

A
  • anticoagulants
  • CCBs
  • BBs
  • cardiac glycosides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is an intervention for atrial fibrillation?

A

atrial ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ECG of atrial fibrillation

A
  • tracing shows irregularly irregular rhythm with no P waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which arrhythmia has the following characteristics?

  • regular ventricular rate of 150bpm
  • varying ratios of F waves to QRS complexes (most common is 4:1)
  • Sawtooth pattern
A

atrial flutter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which ECG will show a constant PR interval, greater than 2 seconds and all impulses conducted?

A

1st Degree AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which arrhythmia results when each impulse is slower and slower and finally does not conduct an impulse, which results in a PR interval that gets longer and longer until a QRS complex is missing

A

2nd degree AV block type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which arrhythmia has the following characteristics?

  • AV node conducts no impulses
  • atria and ventricles beat at an intrinsic rate (80 and 40 respectively)
  • no association between P waves and QRS complexes
A

3rd degree AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some characteristics of ventricular arrhythmias?

A
  • wide QRS complex
  • Variable rate
  • No P waves
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what arrhythmia occurs earlier than the sinus beat, is wide and has no P wave?

A

Premature ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

idioventricular rhythm

A
  • escape rhythm

- 20-40 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which ventricular arrhythmia has a rate greater than 100 bpm

A

ventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which type of ventricular tachycardia occurs secondary to prolonged QT interval?

A

Torsades des pointes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of ventricular arrhythmia includes unorganized activity of the ventricle?

A

ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which type of arrhythmia is life threatening, pulseless, with no CO?

A

Vfib and Vtach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

vtach/vfib algorithm

A

1) CPR/IV/Access airway
2) Defibrillate 360 J
3) Epinephrine 1mg q3-5min
4) Amiodarone 300mg bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

asystole algorithm

A

1) CPR/IV/Airway
2) Epinephrine 1mg q3-5min
3) consider pacing (low effectiveness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
class I drugs
act by blocking the fast sodium channels
26
class II agents
beta adrenergic blocking drugs that act by blunting the effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation on the heart
27
class III agents
act by extending the action potential and refractoriness
28
class IV agents
act by blocking the slow calcium channels, thereby depressing phase 4 and lengthening phase 1 and 2
29
procainamide is a?
sodium channel blocker
30
therapeutic effects and uses for procainamide?
PAT, atrial flutter, atria fibrillation and prophylaxis of PSVT
31
adverse effects of procainamide?
confusion and psychosis at high doses
32
what is the primary indication of class IB drugs?
ventricular dysrhythmias
33
class IB drugs work by?
shortening the refractory period
34
Lidocaine is a?
Class IB drug
35
class IC drugs....?
profoundly decrease conduction velocity
36
what is the prototype drug of beta blockers?
propranolol
37
beta blockers work by?
decreasing the conduction velocity
38
what is the prototype drug of potassium channel blockers?
amiodarone
39
therapeutic effects and uses of amiodarone?
- atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias - resistant ventricular tachycardias - recurrent fibrillation
40
what are some serious adverse effects of amiodarone?
- pneumonia like syndrome | - prodysrhythmic action (arythmias)
41
what is the prototype drug of calcium channel blockers?
verapamil
42
which medication is contraindicated in ventricular dysthymias and must be carefully monitored for toxicity, drug interactions, and adverse effects
digoxin
43
diastolic heart failure
signs and symptoms of heart failure with normal ejection fraction. mainly seen in elderly patients with hypertensive heart disease
44
what results due to low cardiac output?
hypotension
45
which condition includes peripheral edema, weight gain, liver congestion dysfunction and failure, renal hypertension, abdominal distension, LOC changes, and fatigue
right sided heart failure
46
causes of right sided heart failure
- conditions that restrict blood flow to the lungs - stenosis or regurgitation of the tricuspid or pulmonic valves - right ventricular infarction - cardiomyopathy - persistent life sided failure - acute or chronic pulmonary disease (for pulmonale)
47
causes of left sided heart failure?
- acute MI | - cardiomyopathy
48
manifestations of left sided heart failure
- SOB - crackles - pulmonary edema - exercise intolerance - cough and pink froth (rare)
49
what is the result of fluid moving into the alveoli, causing lung stiffness, making lung expansion more difficult and impairs the gas exchange function of the lung
pulmonary edema
50
How do ACEIs help in HF?
- decrease vascular resistance - decrease secretion of aldosterone - decrease secretion of ADH
51
what are some serious adverse effects of ACEIs?
Angioedema, cough, and hyperkalemia
52
dobutamine and dopamine are examples of?
beta 1 adrenergic agonists
53
what do beta1 adrenergic agonists do?
increase contractility of the heart to produce more powerful contractions but also reduce vasoconstriction and can produce dysrhythmias including tachycardia
54
the effect of increased force of contraction of the heart when digoxin is a result of?
increased calcium in the cell
55
what are some serious adverse effects of digoxin?
atrial dysrhythmias, sinus bradycardia, ventricular dysrhythmias, AV block
56
what is often the first sign of digoxin toxicity?
nausea and vomiting
57
what is the PO onset of digitalization?
30-120 mins
58
What is the peak of PO digitalization?
2-6 hours
59
how many days of digitalization until steady state is achieved?
7 days
60
IV onset of digitalization?
5- 30 mins
61
peak of IV digitalization
1-4 hours
62
therapeutic level of digoxin?
0.8-2ng/ml
63
toxic level of digoxin
>2.4 ng/ml
64
contraindications of digoxin
- patients taking calcium channel blockers | - ventricular fibrillation
65
Milrinone is a?
phosphodiesterase III inhibitor
66
therapeutic effects and uses of milrinone (primacor)?
Short term treatment of life threatening heart failure
67
mechanism of action of milrinone (primacor)
the persistence of cGMP results in vasodilation and a positive inotropic effect
68
adverse effects of milrinone (primacor)
headache, nausea, vomiting, ventricular dysrhythmias