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Fundamentals > WEEK 7 > Flashcards

WEEK 7 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the urinary tract’s primary function?

A

convert and remove excess waste and fluids from the body in the form of urine.

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2
Q

what does the urinary tract also do when a person is healthy?

A

regulates levels of electrolytes and the production of red blood cells, produces hormones that are important for blood pressure regulation, and helps to keep bones strong

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3
Q

how does urine travel?

A

through the urinary system which is:

kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra

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4
Q

first stop of the urinary tract?

A

kidneys

two bean-shaped organs located below the ribcage, each adjacent to the spine

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5
Q

how many quarts of blood can kidneys filter daily?

A

120 to 150 quarts

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6
Q

what do kidneys also do?

A

convert waste products and excess fluid into urine to be removed from the body.

During this process, approximately 1 to 2 quarts of urine is produced each day. From the kidneys, urine is transported to the bladder by ureters, which are thin tubes of muscle. There is one ureter from each kidney.

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7
Q

how many ureter for EACH kidney

A

one for each

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8
Q

3rd stop in the urinary tract?

A

bladder

a hollow ballon-shaped muscle

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9
Q

what does the bladder do?

A

begins to fill and stretches to accommodate the urine, holding up to two cups.

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10
Q

how much can the bladder hold up to?

A

2 cups

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11
Q

urine filling: bladder

A

During urine filling, the bladder muscles remain relaxed. Once the bladder reaches capacity, receptors inside the bladder send signals to the brain to let the client know it is time to empty the reservoir.

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12
Q

what is the amount of produced determined by?

A

kidney function

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13
Q

urination

A

Once the bladder has filled, the body releases the urine through the urethra and out of the body,

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14
Q

second stop in urinary tract

A

ureter

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15
Q

final stop of urinary tract

A

urethra

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16
Q

muscles that work together to prevent accidental urination

A

The first muscle, the urethra, connects to the bladder at the bladder neck. The bladder neck consists of an internal sphincter (the second muscle), which holds urine inside the bladder. The last set of muscles, known as the pelvic floor muscles, along with the external sphincter, helps to support the urethra.

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17
Q

brown urine can mean?

A

dehydration
kidney or liver issues

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18
Q

red tint urine can mean?

A

blood in the urine

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19
Q

what is considered effective urine production?

A

in adults, 1.5-1.8 liters daily

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20
Q

what does expected urine production do as you age?

A

decrease

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21
Q

how much urine does infants produce?

A

2 mL/kg/hr

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22
Q

how much urine does toddlers produce?

A

1.5 mL/kg/hr

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23
Q

how much urine do teens produce?

A

1 mL/kg/hr

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24
Q

how much urine do adults produce?

A

0.5 mL/kg/hr

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25
Q

why is observing the amount and characteristics of urine is an important assessment skill?

A

deviations from the norm may suggest other health issues such as dehydration or kidney dysfunction.

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26
Q

what can drinking a larger amount of fluid may result in

A

more urine volume and a clearer color as well as little odor

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27
Q

what food makes urine appear red so that you make think its blood?

A

blackberries, beets, and rhubarb may turn urine a reddish color

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28
Q

what can dark brown urine mean with regards to doo>

A

eating aloe or fava beans

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29
Q

what food can increase odor of urine

A

asparagus

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30
Q

what does the digestive system consist of?

A

liver, pancreas, gallbladder, and a series of hollow organs that originate at the mouth and terminate at the anus. These organs, which include the mouth, esophagus, stomach, small and large intestines, and anus, make up the gastrointestinal (GI) tract.

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31
Q

peristalsis

A

Contractions that occur throughout the digestive system that move food along a pathway to be digested.

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32
Q

define digestion

A

Food and liquid enter the body at the mouth. Once chewing begins, food is broken down and pushed into the throat and swallowed. A small flap of cartilage, called the epiglottis, prevents food and liquid from entering the airway, but allows them to continue into the esophagus. In the esophagus, the process called peristalsis continues to move food along a pathway to be digested. Once in the stomach, food and liquid are mixed with digestive secretions before slowly being emptied into the small intestine.

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33
Q

what happens in the small intensine?

A

In the small intestine, food and liquid continue to mix with digestive secretions from the pancreas, liver, and small intestine as peristalsis continues to aid in the transport of food to the large intestine. During this time, digested nutrients are absorbed by the intestinal walls and enter into the bloodstream, where they are transported to other tissues for use by the body.

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34
Q

order in which food or liquid contents are transported through the gastrointestinal tract?

A

mouth
esophagus
stomach
small intestine
large intestine
anus

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35
Q

Bristol Stool Chart

A

constipation (types 1 and 2), to expected or ideal stools (types 3 and 4), to diarrhea (types 5 to 7).

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36
Q

what foods can increase risk of diarrhea?

A

Alcohol
Caffeinated beverages and foods
Dairy (milk, cheese, cream, and ice cream)
Foods that are high in fat or are highly greasy
Beverages that contain fructose
Spicy foods
Apples, peaches, and pears
Products that contain sweeteners, such as sorbitol, mannitol, xylitol, and maltitol

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37
Q

what should urine be?

A

clear (not cloudy), light yellow in color, and odorless

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38
Q

stress incontinence

A

Coughing, sneezing, laughing, or physical activity that increases pressure on the bladder, resulting in urine leakage.

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39
Q

urge incontinence

A

A strong need or urge to urinate, but leaking occurs before the client gets to the toilet.

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40
Q

reflex incontinence

A

Urinary leakage as a result of nerve damage.

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41
Q

overflow incontinence

A

Incomplete bladder emptying that results in the bladder overfilling when full, leading to urine leakage.

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42
Q

functional incontinence

A

Physical inability to reach the toilet in time. This may be due to a physical impairment such as being wheelchair bound or having arthritis of the hands, which can hinder the fine motor skills needed to unbutton clothing.

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43
Q

nocturnal enuresis

A

(nighttime bedwetting): Common in children but may occur in adults who have consumed too much alcohol, who consume caffeine at night, or who take certain medications.

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44
Q

urinary retention

A

Incomplete emptying of the bladder.

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45
Q

why are males more likely to develop urinary retention?

A

enlarged prostate, while females are less likely to develop urinary retention.

46
Q

what are medications that affect urine production (increase urine production in the kidneys)?

A

Thiazide diuretics

Loop diuretics

Potassium-sparing diuretics

47
Q

medications that affect stool production (work together to control the digestive process)?

A

Antacids
Anticholinergics and antispasmodics—medications used to treat muscle spasms
Antiseizure medications
Calcium channel blockers—medications used to primarily treat elevated blood pressure
Diuretics—which increase urine production
Iron supplements—used to treat certain forms of anemia
Anti-Parkinson disease medications
Narcotic pain medications—used to treat pain
Antidepressants

48
Q

what medications can cause diarrhea?

A

antibiotics, and magnesium-containing antacids can increase gastric motility and cause diarrhea

49
Q

what can happen if UTI is left untreated?

A

kidney infection
pyelonephritis

50
Q

kidney stones

A

hard formations of minerals that collect in the kidneys. They can vary in size, shape, and severity.

51
Q

what is dialysis used for

A

kidney failure

52
Q

Conditions That Alter Bowel Elimination Patterns: Diverticulosis

A

A condition in which small sacs or pouches form in the colon.

53
Q

Conditions That Alter Bowel Elimination Patterns: IBS

A

A gastrointestinal condition characterized by abdominal pain and changes to bowel elimination patterns that can include diarrhea and/or constipation.

54
Q

Conditions That Alter Bowel Elimination Patterns: Ulcerative Colitis (UC)

A

A chronic disease that causes inflammation and ulcerations of the large intestine or colon.

55
Q

Conditions That Alter Bowel Elimination Patterns: Crohn’s Disease

A

A chronic disease that causes inflammation in the GI tract but commonly affects the small intestine.

56
Q

colostomy

A

use part of colon to form a stoma through the ABD wall that allows for the passage of body waste

57
Q

Kock pouch

A

a continent ileostomy pouch

58
Q

J-pouch

A

internal pouch forms with the ileum

59
Q

ileostomy

A

a fecal diversion that uses the ileum, a terminal end of the small intestine

can be reversed one the colon has had time to heal

60
Q

dysuria

A

Pain or discomfort with urination often due to infection or injury.

61
Q

urinalysis

A

lab test commonly used by health care providers to evaluate for a variety of disorders, including

bladder infections or UTIs, kidney infections, kidney disease, and diabetes.

62
Q

what is abnormal in a dipstick reading?

A

reagent

63
Q

what is common in urinary leakage in older client

A

loss of bladder tone

64
Q

complications of colostomy

A

hernia
electrolyte imbalance
blockage
prolapse
diarrhea
infection

65
Q

what is a sign of dehydration

A

dry mucous membranes

66
Q

sensory input

A

received and transmitted to the brain via twelve cranial nerves

67
Q

sensory deficit

A

A deficit in the expected function of one or more of the five senses.

can occur due to injury, illness, or aging

68
Q

sensory deprivation

A

A reduction in or absence of stimuli to one or more of the five senses.

blindness, caused an absence of visual sensory stimulation

69
Q

sensory overload

A

Receiving stimuli at a rate and intensity beyond the brain’s ability to process the stimuli in a meaningful way.

For example, a client who is critically ill and frequently in pain may be receiving multiple sensory stimuli, both from their own body and the busy care environment: room lights, noises from monitors and other equipment, and frequent visits by nurses and providers.

70
Q

sensory processing disorder

A

When a client appropriately detects sensory stimuli, but their brain has difficulty interpreting and responding appropriately to the stimuli.

71
Q

when is SPD usually discovered?

A

childhood, but can also affect adults

72
Q

Cranial Nerves: Olfactory (l)

A

function: sensory to nose for smell

test: Ask client to identify specific smells, such as coffee or peppermint, testing each nostril separately.

73
Q

Cranial Nerves: Optic (ll)

A

function: sensory to eye for vision

test: Test visual acuity using Snellen chart or by having client read printed material.

74
Q

Cranial Nerves: Oculomotor (lll)

A

function: motor to eye

test: Check extraocular movements by assessing the 6 directions of gaze.

Check pupillary reaction to light and accommodation. (PERRLA)

75
Q

Cranial Nerves: (V)

A

functions: sensory to face, motor to muscles of the jaw

test: Assess corneal reflex.

Palpate the masseter muscles at the temple while client clenches jaw.

Check sensation by lightly touching over the face with a cotton ball.

76
Q

Cranial Nerves: (Vl)

A

function: motor to eye

test: asses the 6 directions of gaze

77
Q

Cranial Nerves: Facial (Vll)

A

functions: sensory to tongue for taste, motor to face for expression

test: Monitor for symmetry of the face when the client smiles and raises/lowers eyebrows.

Check perception of sweet and salty tastes on the front of the tongue.

78
Q

Cranial Nerves: Vestibulocochlear (Auditory) (Vlll)

A

function: sensory to ear for hearing and balance

test: Whisper a word 2 to 3 cm away from one ear while client occludes the other ear. Check both ears.

Observe the client’s balance as they walk.

79
Q

Cranial Nerves: Vagus (X)

A

functions: sensory to pharynx, motor to vocal chords

test: Have client say “ah” and observe palate and pharynx for movement.

Listen for hoarseness of voice.

Assess pulse, bowel sounds.

80
Q

Cranial Nerves: Glossopharyngeal (IX)

A

functions: sensory to tongue for taste, motor to pharynx (throat)

test: Check perception of sweet and sour tastes on the back of the tongue.

Use a tongue blade to check the gag reflex.

Assess the ability to swallow.

81
Q

Cranial Nerves: Accessory (XI)

A

function: motor to muscles of the neck

test: Observe ability to turn head side to side.

Monitor client’s ability to shrug shoulders against resistance from examiner’s hands.

82
Q

Cranial Nerves: Hypoglossal (Xll)

A

functions: motor to tongue

test: Ask client to stick tongue out, observe if midline;

Assess ability to move tongue side to side.

83
Q

How it can affect sensory perception: poor nutrition

A

smell, test, touch

84
Q

How it can affect sensory perception: upper respiratory infection

A

smell and taste

85
Q

How it can affect sensory perception: diabetes mellitus

A

hearing, smell, taste, touch, vision

86
Q

How it can affect sensory perception: high cholesterol

A

touch, vision

87
Q

How it can affect sensory perception: construction worker

A

hearing (loud noises)

88
Q

steps in vision

A

light to enter the eye through the CORNEA
light passes through the pupil to the lens in the posterior to the IRIS
then onto the retina
the RETINA sends signals through the optic nerve to the brain to be processed and interpreted as an image

89
Q

what are the six extraocular muscles of the eye

A

four rectus muscles (superior, inferior, medial, and lateral rectus)

and two oblique muscles (superior and inferior)

These muscles are controlled by three cranial nerves: oculomotor (cranial nerve III), trochlear (cranial nerve IV), and abducens (cranial nerve VI)

90
Q

presbyopia

A

Age-related farsightedness, or a gradual decrease in the ability to clearly see nearby caused by the loss of flexibility of the lens of the eye.

91
Q

what is the first manifestation of glaucoma

A

loss of peripheral vision

92
Q

Snellen chart

A

chart that sees what level of vision you have (i.e. 20/30) (think of eye doctor eye examination)

93
Q

hearing: the ear

A

outer eat: pinna. the auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane (eardrum)

middle ear: or tympanic cavity, includes the eustachian tube and the ossicles, three small bones called the malleus, incus, and stapes.

inner ear: cochlea, the vestibule, and the semicircular canals

94
Q

hearing process

A

noise, or sound waves, enter the ear through the auditory canal and hit the eardrum, causing it to vibrate.

These vibrations pass through the ossicles which amplify the sound.

The sound is then transmitted to the inner ear into the cochlea where it is transformed into electoral impulses.

The auditory nerve sends the impulses to the brain where they are translated into sounds.

95
Q

cerebration

A

act of thinking, using one’s mind

96
Q

aphasia

A

A disorder that affects a client s ability to articulate and understand speech and written language due to damage in the brain (National Institute on Deafness and Other Communication Disorders).

97
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: NSAIDs

A

hearing and taste

98
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: Antibiotics

A

hearing, smell, and taste

99
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: loop diuretics

A

hearing

100
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: Antihypertensives

A

taste

101
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: Psychotropics

A

taste

102
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: antihistamines

A

hearing, sight, smell, and taste

103
Q

Medications and Their Potential Effects on the Senses: Aspirin

A

hearing

104
Q

what can cause aphasia?

A

stroke

105
Q

macular degeneration

A

information: availability of aids to enhance vision

106
Q

which taste decreases with age

A

sour, salty, bitter

107
Q

otoacoustic emissions (OAE) test

A

you will have a small probe placed in your ear canal during the test

108
Q

potential causes of conductive hearing loss

A

trauma to the outer ear
inflammation
cerumen buildup
otitis media (inflammation or fluid in the ear)

109
Q

drugs causing ototoxicity

A

(inner ear/hearing issues)

loop diuretics, NSAIDs, aminoglycoside antibiotics

110
Q

anosmia/risk factor for devloping

A

partial or full loss of smell

Alzheimer’s or Parkinson’s disease

111
Q

conductive hearing loss vs. sensorineural hearing loss

A

conductive: client speak softly, cerumen obstructs the ear cannal, weber test that indicates the tuning fork sound is better heard in the affected ear

sensorineural: client speaks loudly, weber test that indicates the tuning fork sound is heard better in the unaffected ear, client reports tinnitus

Fundamentals (20 decks)

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