Week 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Classifications of Hypospadias

From distal to proximal

A

Glandular
Coronal
Proximal penile
Mid shaft
Distal penile
Penoscrotal
Scrotal
Perineal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Differential diagnosis for hypospadias?

A

Megameatus
Ventral urethra avulsion
Ambiguous genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The components of hypospadias repair?

A

Orthoplasty
Urethroplasty
Glanuloplasty
Meatoplasty
Scrotoplasty
Spongioplasty
Skin cover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Orthoplasty - ___________
Urethroplasty - ___________
Glanuloplasty -_________
Meatoplasty -_____________
Scrotoplasty -________________
Spongioplasty -____________
Skin cover -_____________

A

Straightening of the penis

Correction of damage to the urethra

plastic surgery carried out on a glans

type of surgery to enlarge the urethral meatus at the end of the penis

surgical procedure used to either repair or treat an existing scrotum or to create a new scrotum

Surgery done on the corpus spongiosum to prevent urethrocutaneous fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

It is vital to never carry out circumcision in a child with any degree of hypospadias

T/F

With reason

A

The preputial skin may be needed for corrective surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hypospadias is a congenital malformation seen in 1 in ______ ______

A

300 boys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The 5Ps?

A

Pain
Pallor
Pulseless
Paresthesia
Paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

the 4Ds indications for amputation

A

Dead/limb gangrene
Dying
Damn nuisance
Dangerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Timing of hypospadias repair is influenced by _________, __________, and ________

A

penile size, genital awareness, and anesthetic risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In select patients the __________ is a useful procedure for the correction of congenital or acquired chordee.

A

Nesbit operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is continuous bladder irrigation? Continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) is a medical procedure that ____________________. It also __________________________ at the same time. Healthcare providers often use it to ______________________ after surgery on the urinary system.

A

flushes your bladder with a sterile liquid

removes urine (pee) from your body

prevent or remove blood clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do not take _____ when you have cancer

A

Flagyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Risk factors for DVT

Mention 10

A

Age
Immobilization
Pregnancy
Injury or surgery
Cancer
OCP/ HRT
Smoking
IBD
genetics
Past history of DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bad girls get _______
Good girls get ________

A

Pregnancy

Fibroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Auscultation: bowel sounds

Peristalsis produces a ______ noises because the bowel contains a mix- ture of _____ and _______.

A

gurgling

fluid and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Auscultation: bowel sounds

Normal bowel sounds are _____-pitched gurgles that occur every __________.

The absence of bowel sounds indicates that ________________. This may either be a primary or a secondary phenomenon.

A

low; few seconds

peri- stalsis has ceased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If you can hear the heart and breath sounds but no bowel sounds over a 30-second period, the patient probably has a _____________.

A

para- lytic ileus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Distension of the bowel caused by a mechanical intestinal obstruction is associated not only with ______eased bowel sounds, but also with a change in the _____________. They become _______ in nature with runs of ______- frequency gurgles, sounding like sea water enter- ing a large cave through a narrow entrance, often described as ‘ __________ ’.

A

incr; character of the sounds

amphoric; high

tinkling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Having assessed the quality of the bowel sounds, it is important to listen for any systolic vascular bruits, which indicate ___________ or increased blood flow through, for example, a _______.

A

arterial stenosis

fistula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Percussion of the abdomen causes pain if ___________ is present and is a useful method for mapping out a tender area

A

peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When a part or the whole of the abdomen appears distended, the patient should be held at the ______ and the abdomen ________________ .

________ sounds – a ___________ – indicate that there is an intra-abdominal viscus, usually the _________, distended with a mixture of fluid and gas.

A

hips

shaken from side-to-side

Splashing; succussion splash

stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

An enlarged kidney can be pushed back and forth between the anterior and posterior hands. This is called ________.

It feels like patting a ball back and forth in a pool of water. Balloting is also used to palpate a _____ in a ___________

A

balloting

fetus; pregnant uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Acute pancreatitis is a condition in which _________________________ the pancreatic gland.

It may be caused by ______ of the pan- creatic duct, usually by a __________ obstructing the ampulla of Vater. It is also commonly secondary to _________

A

activated pancreatic enzymes autodigest

obstruction; small gallstone

alcohol abuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The common presenting symptom in acute pancreatitis is ______ that begins suddenly, high in the ________, and steadily increases in severity until it is very severe, causing the patient to ________ and breathe __________.

It usually radiates through to the ———-.

A

pain; epigastrium

lie still ; shallowly; back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In acute pancreatitis

________ relieves the pain, which is exacerbated by ________.

Frequent ________ and ———— are very common, and are an important pointer to the correct diagnosis.

There is persistent ______ between the bouts of vomiting.

A

Nothing; movement

vomiting and retching

nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inflammation of a Meckel’s diverticulum produces symptoms and signs that are indistinguishable from those of ________, although the pain and tenderness are generally felt more towards the __________ than in the __________.

A

acute appendicitis

centre of the abdomen

right iliac fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute Crohn’s disease may present with ________ or ___________ discomfort and signs similar to those of appendicitis.

A thick and tender _________ may be palpable in the ___________, and thickened ____________ may also be palpable in the ______________.

A

central or right iliac fossa

terminal ileum ; right iliac fossa

ileum and jejunum

umbilical region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The normal visceral innervation of the appendix comes from the __________ spinal segment. The corresponding somatic dermatome encircles the abdomen at the level of the ______________

A

tenth thoracic

umbilicus (T10).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The inflamed appendix most commonly lies behind the ________ ( ________ ) so causes pain in the lateral part of the ___________ and the _______, but it may hang down into the pelvis and lie against the ________ or a ________________. In these circumstances, the patient may present with misleading ________ or ________ symptoms.

A

caecum; retrocaecal

right iliac fossa ; flank

bladder; loop of large bowel

bladder or large bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acute appendicitis may also present with intestinal obstruction –_______ and __________ – if the appendix ___________________________________ .

A

colic and abdominal distension

lies too close to and inflames the terminal ileum (preileal or postileal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Acute appendicitis

A _________ usually precedes the onset of pain by a few hours, and most patients feel slightly nauseated. Many patients vomit _________.

A

loss of appetite

once or twice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most patients with appendicitis state that they had been __________ for a few days before the pain started, but a few complain of _________, which may lead to a mistaken diagnosis of __________, especially in children.

A

constipated

diarrhoea; gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Acute appendicitis

Some patients present with symptoms of generalized peritonitis – generalized abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, sweating and sometimes rigors – especially if the ___________________.

A

initial stages of the disease go unoticed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A tender, indistinct mass may be felt in the right iliac fossa. It is usually impossible to feel below it because it is _______________. It is _____ to percussion.

___________ usually takes a few days to develop. ___________ should be suspected if the temperature is high and the mass is very tender

A

fixed posteriorly

dull; An appendix mass

An appendix abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The causes of abdominal distension can be remembered by repeating the letter ‘F’ six times: ______,_____,______,______,_____,_______ ; and other solid tumours (

A

fetus, flatus, faeces, fat, fluid and fibroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Spigellian hernia

These hernias appear at the ______ edge of the ____________ muscle along the ____________. The lump is still palpable when the abdominal wall muscles are _________, and it is felt to lie above them

A

outer; rectus abdominis

linea semilunaris

contracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Resolved inflammed appendix gives rise to???

A

Mucocele of the appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acute appendicitis may follow URTI

T/F

A

T

39
Q

Volkovich-kocher sign

We believe that the sequence of pain initially in the _________ and ________ regions followed by pain in the ____________

A

epigastrium; periumbilical

right lower quadrant

40
Q

Blumberg’s sign

also referred to as?

A

rebound tenderness

41
Q

Dunphy sign

sharp pain in the _______ elicited by a _________________

A

RLQ

voluntary cough

42
Q

Markle’s sign, or ____________ , is a clinical sign in which pain in the ____________ of the abdomen is elicited by the ____________ test

A

jar tenderness,

right lower quadrant

heel-drop test

43
Q

heel-drop test (__________ to the __________, from __________ on the __________, with a __________ landing).

A

dropping ; heels

standing ; toes,

Jarring

44
Q

Cachexia

AKA

___________

A

Wasting syndrome

45
Q

Psoas major: Originates from ________; attached to _______________

Psoas minor : origininates from ________; insert on the ___________

A

T12 – L5; lesser trochanter of the femur.

T12 and L1 ; iliopectineal eminence

46
Q

The Obturator externus (OE) muscle originates from the ______________ , inserts into the _________________

Obturator internus: Originates from the ________________________. attaches onto the _________________

A

rami of pubis and ischium; trochanteric fossa of the femur

pubis and ischium at the obturator foramen

greater trochanter of the femur.

47
Q

ZONES OF THE PROSTATE

BPH:
CA:
Prostatitis

A

Peripheral zone

Transitional or periurethral

No zone predilection

48
Q

Prostatic diseases age

BPH:
CA:
Prostatitis

A

> /= 50

> /= 60

</= 25

49
Q

Obstructive symptoms of Prostatic diseases

A

Weak stream
Straining
Intermittent
Dribbling
Incomplete emptying of the bladder
Hesitancy at micturition

50
Q

Irritative symptoms of Prostatic diseases

A

Frequency
Urgency
Nocturia
Dysuria
Urge incontinence

51
Q

BPH is a premalignant lesion to prostatic carcinoma

T/F

A

F

52
Q

Infection involves _______ by _________.

A

tissue invasion

microorganisms

53
Q

_______ + ________= ejaculatory duct

A

Seminal vesicle

Vas deferens

54
Q

Machine to measure urine stream strength is ???

A

Uroflowmetry

55
Q

Baden–Walker half way system of _______________

It consists of four grades:
grade 0 – ____________
grade 1–____________
grade 2 –____________
grade 3 – ____________
grade 4 –____________

A

Pelvic organ prolapse

grade 0 – no prolapse
grade 1–halfway to hymen
grade 2 – to hymen
grade 3 – halfway past hymen
grade 4 –maximum descent.

56
Q

normal saline VS dextrose saline

A

Normal saline solution contains salt in the same concentration as blood. Dextrose-saline solution in addition to salt also contains dextrose (a form of sugar).

57
Q

The simplest approach is to replace dehydration losses with _______. This ensures that the administered fluid _____________________, where it will do the most good to support blood pressure and peripheral perfusion.

A

0.9% saline

remains in the extracellular (intravascular) compartment

58
Q

Dextrose 5% in water is used to treat __________________ , ________ shock, or ____________ (fluid loss).

A

low blood sugar (hypoglycemia)

insulin

dehydration

59
Q

__% normal saline

___% dextrose

A

0.9

5

60
Q

The differences in particles mean that lactated Ringer’s doesn’t ____________ as normal saline does. This can be a beneficial effect to avoid _________.

A

last as long in the body

fluid overload

61
Q

WHO recommends that these homemade sugar-salt rehydration solutions should contain __________ of sugar and ___________ of salt added to ___________ of water. This results in a concentration of ____ mmol/liter of glucose and ____ mmol/liter of sodium.

A

8 level teaspoons

1 level teaspoon

1 liter

116; 86

62
Q

Supine abdominal film shows _______ loops of _______ with the “stack of coins” appearance, suggesting _______________.

On the erect abdominal film, multiple ___________ are noted that suggest ________.

A

dilated

small bowel ; small bowel obstruction

air-fluid levels; obstruction

63
Q

Graham patch

________ patching is a surgical procedure for treating __________. It is also called a Graham patch after the surgeon who first performed this technique. This procedure uses _____________ to repair the injury because it is _________.

A

Omental

perforated ulcers

a patch of the omentum

durable

64
Q

Varicocele

An ________ of the ______ within the scrotum.

A varicocele may develop as a result of _____________ that are normally found in veins. In other cases, it may occur from _________ of a vein by a nearby structure.

A

An enlargement of the veins

poorly functioning valves

compression

65
Q

Varicoceles occur on the left side in most cases because of the relation of ____________ to the ___________ (the ______________________________________). On the right side, the ____________________

A

the spermatic vein to the left renal vein

spermatic vein opens at a sharp angle into the left renal vein

spermatic vein opens into the much larger inferior vena cava.

66
Q

Bladder outlet obstruction is an _________________ at the __________ and/or ________ that results in _______________ in the presence of high __________ and high _____________

A

impedance in the flow of urine

bladder neck ; urethra

low urine flow rate

voiding pressure ; intravesical pressure

67
Q

Common causes of BOO

Mention 6

A

BPH
Prostate cancer
Bladder stones (calculi)
Urethral strictures
Bladder tumor
Neurogenic bladder dysfunction

68
Q

Long term effects of BOO?

Obstructive __________ and _________

________________(______ and ______)

Recurrent ________ and ________

Bladder wall _________ and _______

Impaired destrusor _________ with ________ problems

A

Obstructive nephropathy and renal failure
Upper tract dilatation (hydronephrosis and hydroureter)
Recurrent UTI and hematuria

Trabeculation and sacculation

Contractility; voiding

69
Q

Which BOO is more pronounced ?

BPH or CA-P?

With reason

A

BPH
Because it’s mostly at the periurethral transitional zone

70
Q

Prostate cancer metastasize early to the ________ because of the _______ vein of _________ that connects with the _________ venous plexus

A

Vertebrae; valveless

Batson

vertebral

71
Q

Features suggestive of prostate cancer metastasis?

A

Inability to walk
Low back pain

72
Q

In acute urinary retention, the patient is ______________ , despite _____ with associated ________ and ___________

In chronic urinary retention, the patient ________________ but always have __________ ( residual of > ____ml, normal is >____ml. They may present with ____________, enuresis, and renal insufficiency

A

unable to pass urine ; urge

Supra pubic pain and fullness

still passes small quantity of urine

some retained; 250; 50; overflow incontinence

73
Q

Acute retention is (painless or painful?) and (gradual or sudden?) .

Chronic retention is (painless or painful?) , and there is a chronically __________ bladder.

A

painful; sudden

painless ; distended bladder.

74
Q

Acute retention may develop in the presence of chronic retention, when the expression ___________ retention is sometimes used.

A

acute-on- chronic

75
Q

Acute retention in the absence of bladder outlet obstruction is rare, and occurs only after a __________, _______ or an _______________.

A

surgical operation

anaesthesia

injury to the urethra

76
Q

Patients with chronic retention may be symptom free except for the ______________ produced by the _____ bladder and can present with __________

A

abdominal swelling; large

enuresis

77
Q

What is enuresis?

A

involuntary leakage of urine at night

78
Q

Percussion is useful in deciding whether a patient is in acute retention, as the bladder is ___________.

A

always dull

79
Q

Percussion in acute retention

The bladder may reach up to, or above, the umbilicus if the patient __________________________. A large bladder of this size indicates _________ retention.

A

has had chronic retention before the acute episode

acute-on-chronic

80
Q

You can not assess the size of the prostate gland gland, or the pelvis, when the _____________. It is better to defer the rectal examination for prostate assessment until after the retention has been relieved with a _______.

A

bladder is full

catheter

81
Q

Types of chronic urinary retention

In the high-pressure type, the cause is ________________ .

In the low-pressure type, the fault seems to lie with the _________________.

A

obstruction of the bladder outlet

bladder muscle, which is atonic

82
Q

The retention is of the _____ pressure type if a patient in chronic retention has the symptoms and signs of renal failure

A

high

83
Q

___________ is pathognomonic of chronic retention.

A

Enuresis

84
Q

Remember that a full bladder pushes the prostate ______wards and makes it feel _________.

A

down

bigger

85
Q

Prostatic cancer metastasizes to ______, particularly the ________ and ________.

These bone deposits are nearly always _________ and _________, so tend to produce _______ rather than __________

A

bone; pelvis and lumbar spine

osteosclerotic and osteoblastic

bone pain; pathological fractures

86
Q

Ureteric Coli may radiate to the _____,_____,_____ but not to the ______,______

A

Groin; labium; testicle

Chest ; back of the leg

87
Q

A dragging sensation in the scrotum that gets worse towards the end of the day is characteristic of ??

A

Varicocele

88
Q

Anterior urethra = ??? And ???

Posterior urethra = ???? And ????

A

Penile and bulbar

Membraneous; prostatic

89
Q

Lower urinary tract symptoms(LUTS) are divided into _______ and ——— and _______

A

Storage

voiding symptoms

Post-micturition

90
Q

LUTS

frequency
Urgency
Nocturia
Strangury
Urge incontinence
Stress incontinence
Nocturnal enuresis
Hesitancy
Intermittency
Straining
Incomplete emptying
Post-micturition dribble

A

Urinating too often during the day

A compelling desire to urinate that is difficult to stop

Waking up at night to pee atleast once

A sensation of constantly needing to void

Voiding involuntary after an intense urge to void

Voiding involuntarily due to increase in intra-abdominal pressure

Voiding involuntarily at night while sleeping

Difficulty initiating micturition

Urine starts and stops multiple times and on multiple occasions

Muscular effort required to initiate , maintain or improve the urinary stream

After micturition, feeling like the ladder is still full

Loss of urine that continues after voiding

91
Q

StORAGE LUTS are typical of ??

Voiding LUTS are typical of ??

A

Overactive bladder

Bladder outlet obstruction

92
Q

Timing of blood in relation to urinary stream

Initial = ???
Throughout the stream= ????
Terminal = ????

A

Urethral pathology

Bladder or upper tracts

Bladder neck or prostatic pathology

93
Q

Hematuria can be classified into ______ and _______

A

Visible

Non-visible

94
Q

Peak urine flow rate of ______= no major
BOO

Peak urine flow rate of ______=BOO is present

A

> 15mL/s

<10mL/s