Week 5 Random Flashcards

1
Q

Two types of on/off swithces

A

Protein kinease / Protein phosphatase (signalling by phosphorylation) = covalent

GTP binding (GEF) / GTP hydrolysis (GAP) (signaling by GTP-binding) = noncovalent

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2
Q

Why molecular swiches are necessary?

A

Allow integradation of signal at signal processor

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3
Q

Cdk Kinase requirements for activation

A

Has three conditions in order for Cdk kinease to take signal downstream (2 phsophates and cyclin)

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4
Q

Where can the intracellular signalling complex assemble?

A
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5
Q

Type and precisioon of response to signalling molecules

A

Steroid are usually gradual response

Cooperativity might stimulate quicker response (all or nothing like)

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6
Q

Who positive feedback can affect response?

A

Can accelearate response

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7
Q

How desintization can occur?

A

Recepotor sequestration

Receptor down-regulation

Receptor inactivation

Inactivation of signalling protein

Productionof inhibitory proteins

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8
Q

How penile erection occur?

A

Intracellular receptor

Neuron releases ACh -> Activates NO Synthase ->

arginine converted to NO (endothelial) ->

NO diffusion goes to smooth muscle cell activates to gyanylyl cyclase ->

GTP is converted to cGMP and relaxes smooth muscle

Activation of PKG (phosphorylation) to vascular smooth muscle relaxationand blood vessel dilation

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9
Q

PDE inibitors type V

A

Levitra

Cialis

Viagra

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10
Q

PDE type 5 action

A

Prevent cGMP conversionto GMP

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11
Q

Some examples of molecules that bind intracellular recepotrs

A

Cortisol

Estradiol

Testosterone

Thyroxine

Vitamin D3

Retinoic Acid

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12
Q

Machanism of hormone receptor activating transcription

A
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13
Q

Two types of cellular response to signals

A

Altered protein function by intracellular singalling pathway (fast sec-min)

Altered gene expression (mins to ours)

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14
Q

Cell membrane receptors

A

GPCR’s = Ga, Gi, Golf, Gt, Gq

Ras = MAP kinease

Enzyme-linked receptors = PI3 kinease, PLC-g, IP3, Ca2+, SRc, Jak-STATs, NF-kB

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15
Q

(-mab) in the name of the drug

A

Humainzied monoclone antibody

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16
Q

Drugs inactivating NFkB signalling

A

Remicaid, Humira, Cimzia, Enbrel, Simponi

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17
Q

Communication in cells is necessary for:

A
  1. Regulate development and organization of tissues
  2. Control their growth and division
  3. Coordinationof their functionwith each other
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18
Q

Order the signalling pathways from shortest distance to longest

A

Synaptic

Paracrine

Autocrine

Endocrine

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19
Q

How is the effector different in endocrine vs. synaptic signalling?

A

In endocrine signalling, the receptor sees mix of signals while in synaptic signalling, the receptor only sees the specific or limited signals.

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20
Q

Why autocrine signalling evolved?

A

The strength of the signal might be beneficial

Autocrine signalling is important for development and during immune system development

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21
Q

Importance of eicosanoids

Inhibitors of eicosanoids synthesis

Names of enzymes that are involved oxidation

What prostaglanding mediate

A

Eicosanoids (signaling molecules made by oxidation of 20-carbon fatty acids)

Inhibitors of eicosanoids include cortisone and Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen

COX1 and COX2 are enzymes incyclooxygenase dependent pathway

Prostaglandin regulates inflamatory response

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22
Q

Problems with COX-2 inibitors?

A

Multiple sides efects: CELEBREX, and Vioxx (withdrawn)

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23
Q

Endocrine vs. Synaptic signalling affinity / length

A

Endocrine: Low ligand conc

Synaptic: High lingad conc >10^-4 M; low affinity; quick termination

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24
Q

Prozac

A

Inhibits seritonin uptake that allows maintenance of seritonin concentration in synapse

Anti-depressant

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25
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

They act within the brain to increase the amount of serotonin

For anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and eating disorders.

Effective in treating premature ejaculation in up to 60% of men.

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26
Q

How cells can respond to signals

A

Survive

Grow + Divide

Differentiate

Die

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27
Q

How same cell can respond to different signals?

A

Ach signal

1) Skeletal muscle = contraction
2) Heart muscle = relaxation (different receptors)
3) Salivary gland = secretion (same receptor as heart, but different protome)

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28
Q

Extracellular matrix

Components and types

A

Sugars and Proteins

Interstitial (surrounds in tissues and abundant in connective tissues)

Basement membrane (sheet of fibers that underlie the epithelium)

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29
Q

Functions:

Collagen
Fibronectin
Laminin
Elastin
Glycosaminoglycans
Proteoglycans

A

Collagen – ropelike fibers that give tissue tensile strength.

Fibronectin and Laminin – glycoproteins that link the extracellular fibers to the cells.

Elastin – thin fibers that give tissue elasticity.

Glycosaminoglycans – extracellular polysaccharides of defined sequence.

Proteoglycans – gel like slimy mucus that hydrates the space between cells.

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30
Q

Collagen Synthesis

A

Prepocollagen made in ER

(1) Signal sequence is removed -> polyproline helix
(2) Intra chain dilsufide bonds form with a-chains

(3) ER: Various prolines and lysines are hydroxylated by prolyl or lysyl hydroxylases (Vit C)
(4) ER: Collagen is O-glycosylated on hydroxylysines and N-glycosylated on asparagines with galactose or galactosyl-glucose.

(5) ER: The 3 α-chains assemble into a soluble right handed super helix.
(6) Procollagen is secreted
(7) Extracellular proteases cleave the ends generating collagen molecules (tropocollagen).
(8) Fibrils self-assemble into insoluble fiber complexes in a quarter staggered array.
(9) Fibrils are covalently cross-linked

Lysyl oxidaseoxidative deamination of lysine and/or hydroxylysine (Cu2+ dependent ). Followed by an aldol condensation.

More crosslinking = more rigid

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31
Q

Collagen

where is it found?

of types?

examples?

A

Bones, tendons, and skin

Most common protein in mammals (25-30%)

28 types

examples:

Collagen I, II, and III (90%)

Collagen IV - basal lamina

Non-collagen collagens - C1q, pulmonary surfactant proteins (SPD, SPA)

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32
Q

Pyrimidine synthesis

A
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33
Q

Source of atoms in pyrimidine synthesis

A
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34
Q

Name enzymes

ATP + AMP -> 2ADP

ATP + NMP -> ADP + NDP

ATP + NDP -> ADP + NTP

UTP -> CTP

A

Adenylate kinease

Nucleoside monophosphate kineases

Nucleoside duphosphate kineases

Cytidylate Synthetase

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35
Q

Salvage pathway

Names of enzymes in salvage pathway that form XMP

Defect in one of them

A

Pyrimidines: orotic acid transferase (existing)

Adenine: adenine phospho ribosyl transferase (A-PRT)

Guanine/Hypoxanthine: G/HX phospho ribosyl transferase (G/HX-PRT)

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: defect in G/HX-PRT

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36
Q

Source of atoms in purine synthesis

A
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37
Q

How AMP and GMP are formed from IMP?

A

Regulation by ATP / GTP levels

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38
Q

How deoxyribonucleotides are synthesized from ribonucleotides?

How the reaction is driven?

A

By NADH

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39
Q

GMP and AMP syntehsis regulation

A
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40
Q

General regulation of nucleotide synthesis

A
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41
Q

Thymidine Synthesis

A
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42
Q

Cystonie and Uracil degradation

A
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43
Q

Thymidine degradation

A
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44
Q

GMP and AMP degradation

A
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45
Q

Gout

Cause?

Treatments?

A

The average uric acid concentrations in humans is near the solubility limit. This has a selective advantage because uric acid is a highly effective scavenger of reactive oxygen species. However, if at low pH uric acid crystals form, they can irritate joints and cause gout.

Treatments:

Colchicine: anti-inflammatory

Probenecid: Increases uric acid excretion

Allopurinol: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor

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46
Q

Cobalamine absorption

A
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47
Q

Reactions that B12 catalyzes
Lack of B12?

A

B12 (required by methylmalonyl CoA mutase and methionine synthetase)

Megaloblastic anemia. Neurological dysfunction. Deficiency of folate.

Pernicious anemia: autoimmune disease destroys parietal cells.

Treat with B12 supplements or monthly injections.

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48
Q

Folate Importance

B9 vs. B12 deficiency

Folate deficiency

A

Deficiency? (1) Folate deficiency decreases purine and dTMP synthesis, arresting cell cycle in the S-phase and resulting in megaloblastic anemia. (2) Hyperhomocysteinemia with increased risk for cardiovascular disease. (3) Deficiency in pregnancy can lead to neural tube defects (spina bifida) in baby.

Why needed? THF; one carbon carrier involved in amino acid metabolism and nucleotide synthesis

Source: Yeast, liver, fruits, green vegetables

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49
Q

ECM functions

A

Connecting cells together

Guides cell migration (e.g. would healing)

Relay of environmental signals

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50
Q

Collagen I

Charactersitics

A

Left handed tripple helix of three

Repetitive AA sequence: (Gly-X-Y)n

33% Glycine and about 20.5% Proline/Hydroxyproline at X and Y respectively.

3 α-chains assemble into a right handed super helix.

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51
Q

Mechanism of collagen quaternary structure assembly

A

Lysyl oxidase – oxidative deamination of lysine and/or hydroxylysine (Cu2+ dependent ).
Followed by an aldol condensation

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52
Q

Diseases associated with collagen mutations

A
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53
Q

Basal Membrane vs. Basal Lamina

A

The epithelial ECM the term “basement membrane” is used with light microscopic observation and “basal lamina” is used with electron microscopy.

Basement Membrane = Basal Lamina + Retircular Lamina

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54
Q

Basal lamina characteristics

A

(about 40–120 nm thick) consists of fine protein filaments embedded in an amorphous matrix.

Membrane proteins of the epithelial cells are anchored in the basal lamina, which is also produced by the epithelial cells.

major component of the basal lamina are two glycoproteins - laminin and (usually type IV) collagen

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55
Q

Reticular lamina charactersitics

A

consists of reticular fibers embedded in ground substance.

fibers of the reticular lamina connect the basal lamina with the underlying connective tissue.

components of the reticular lamina are synthesized by cells of the connective tissue underlying the epithelium.

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56
Q

Basement membrane compnents

A
  1. Collagen IV
  2. Laminin
  3. Heparin Sulfate
  4. Proteoglycans
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57
Q

Laminin (Ln) characteristics

A

A glycosylated cross-shaped heterotrimer.

A multi-adhesive ECM component enriched at the basal lamina where it binds cells to collagen IV and integrins.

Multiple isoforms.

In general, Ln is associated with cell differentiation.

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58
Q

Laminin vs Lamin A vs Lamina

A

Laminin 2 – basement membrane protein that links integrin (or dystroglycan) to ECM components.

Lamin A is a nuclear envelope protein that forms filaments.

Lamina is the ECM component of basement membranes seen by electron microscopy (basal lamina).

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59
Q

Elastin + Fibrillin characteristics

A

Elastic fibers that allow tissue to expand and contract.

Abundant in blood vessels, lung and skin.

Highly cross-linked, insoluble, amorphous structure rich in proline (11%), alanine (22%) and glycine (31%).

Like collagen, lysyl oxidase initiates crosslinking of allysines.

The crosslinks formed are called a desmosine.

Defects in elastin cause Williams-Beuren syndrome and plays a causative role in aortic stenosis.

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60
Q

Elastic Fiber synthesis

A
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61
Q

Problems with fibrillin?

A

Marfan Syndrome: defects in fibrillin 1 gene.

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62
Q

Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) types

A

Hyaluronan (or hyaluronic acid) at the cell surface

main glycosaminoglycan in connective tissue

high molecular weight (~ MW 1,000,000 )

length of about 2.5 µm hyaluronan

“backbone” for the assembly of other glycosaminoglycans

Hyaluronan is also a major component of the synovial fluid, which fills joint cavities, and the vitreous body of the eye.

Other:

(attach through core and link proteins to hyaluronic acid backbone)

Chondroitin sulphate

Dermatan sulphate

Keratan sulphate

Heparan sulphate (UK sulphate, US sulfate)

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63
Q

What are gags made of?

A

Unbranched polysaccharides of repeating disaccharide units built from amino sugars and uronic acids.

Formerly: Mucopolysaccharides

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64
Q

How proteoglycans are formed?

A

GAGs are attached to protein cores.

The proteins can be bound to Hyaluronan

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65
Q

Function of GAGs and PGs

A

Provide flexible mechanical support to tissues.
Acts as a molecular sieve allowing the diffusion of small molecules but slowing the diffusion of proteins and the movement of cells.
Acts as a lubricant in joints and tissues subject to friction and compression/extension forces.
Binds and sequesters soluble ECM proteins thereby maintaining high local concentrations at the cell surface.

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66
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses

A

Lysosomal storage diseases – cannot degrade GAGs

67
Q

Fibronectin (Fn)

A

A glycosylated multi-adhesive protein found in connective tissues and plasma.

Encoded by 1 gene with alternative splicing.

The plasma form is soluble.The ECM form is a fiber of 2 polypeptide chains disulfide linked at the C-terminus.

The RGD sequence binds to both cell surface receptors (integrins) linking cells to ECM components.

68
Q

Functions of Fibernectin

A

Development—essential for the migration of cells along fibers.

Wound healing – covalently links to fibrin clots where it attracts fibroblasts and endothelial cells to promote healing.

Cancer – malignant cells lack cell surface Fn and migrate. Their Fn receptors bind to ECM Fn at distant sites facilitating metastasis and cell division.

4.In general, Fn is associated with cell proliferation and migration.

69
Q

Cell surface receptors that mediate to the ECN and neighbouring cells

A

Dystroglycan Complex and Integrins

70
Q

Integrins

A

Heterodimeric (a-b)trans-membrane glycoprotein receptors.

Modulate ECM deposition.

Modulate gene/protein expression.

Bidirectional signaling

Inside → Out & Outside → In

Integrins have differing affinities for ECM

71
Q

Activated Integrins functions

A

Regulate gene expression.

Alter cytoskeletal organization.

Recruit additional integrins to the cell membrane.

Promote cellular growth (hypertrophy).

Influence cell survival. With normal cells Attached = survive Detached = apoptosis.

Promote ECM deposition.

72
Q

Matrix Metalloproteinases

A

>20 different MMPs exist in humans

They are zinc containing proteases that degrade all proteins found in the ECM.

They allow cell migration and tissue remodeling during development, in response to injury or as needed.

Degradation of ECM allows the release of growth factors sequestered in the ECM.

73
Q

Diseases asscoiated with ECM proteins

A
  • *Scurvy** – abnormal collagen-OH (Vitamin C)
  • *Osteogenesis Imperfecta** – Collagen
  • *Supravalvular aortic stenosis** – Elastin insufficiency
  • *Marfan** Syndrome – **Fibrillin **
  • *Mucopolysaccharidoses** – **Proteoglycans **
74
Q

Why anticipation and repeat expansion are non-mendelain inheritance?

A

Mutations are not stable, they change every generation.

75
Q

Repeat Expansion and Anticipation examples

A

**Myotonic Dystrophy **

Decreases RNA stability.

Autosomal Dominant

Huntington Disease

Gain of function mutation.

Fragile X Mental Retardation

Inhibits transcription

76
Q

Anticipation definition

A

some dominant disorders manifest at an earlier age of onset and with increasing severity in successive generations

77
Q

Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion

A

Triplet repeats in certain regions of the DNA are unstable.

In normal individuals the trinucleotides are repeated a variable
but low number of times (instability is in meiosis)

Each allele varies within the normal range each generation. They are not inherited in a simple Mendelian fashion

If the repeat expands just beyond the normal range, the repeat becomes unstable and expands in subsequent generations (premutations).

Anticipation

78
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

1/8000 individuals

  * * Most common muscular dystrophy in adults** (Skeletal muscle deterioration (starting with face), cardiac and smooth muscle affected as well. )
  * * Myotonia** (inability to relax muscles), cataracts, and mild **mental retardation** are also seen.

Disease gets worse in successive generations.

Congenital form seen only in infants of affected mothers.

CTG repeats: Normal range: 5-35 repeats. Premuation 50-100. Premutations: dynamic increases in the number of repeats in succeeding generations. Expansion occurs during gametogenesis in females (only)

Severity of disease is correlated with the number of repeats.

79
Q

Hunington

A

Autosomal Dominant

1/20,000

Progressive loss of motor control and psychiatric problems including dementia and affective disorder.

Usually presents between ages 30 and 50. Protracted disease, 15 years from diagnosis to death.

100% Penetrant

Leads to toxic aggregates of huntingtin. Binds to other proteins such as GAPDH and inhibits them. DN

Greater expansion when transmitting parent is male.

Normal alleles have 6-30 CAG repeats (6-30 aa poly-glutamine stretch). Each allele varies within this range each generation.

80
Q

Fragile X Syndrome characteristics

A

Most common form of inherited mental retardation.

X-linked dominant inheritance; Milder and more variable expression in females than in males.

Overall 80% penetrant in males, 20% penetrant in females. X-inactivation

Name comes from the artifact

NTM: normal transmitting male; no risk of having affected child; expansion occur only in females

CGG 6-55 repeats; Premutation 52-200; Mutation 200+

Expansionoccurs exclusively through mother

100% penetrance in males with full mutation

50% penetrance in heterozygote female with one full mutation

81
Q

What are the effects of mitochondrial disorder?

A

The tissues most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation:

heart, skeletal muscles, and CNS.

Mitochondrial disorders often manifest as: myopathies (muscle), neuropathies (neurons), and encephylopathies (brain).

82
Q

Mitochondrial function are affected by:

A

Inherited capacity for oxidative phosphorylation-both nuclear and mitochondrial genes.

Tissue specific requirements for oxidative phosphorylation.

Age- capacity for oxidative phosphorylation decreases with age (accumulation of mtDNA mutations).

Accumulation of somatic mtDNA mutations and degree of heteroplasmy.

Mitochondrial disorders are often progressive or do not manifest until adulthood.

83
Q

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON):

A

Mitochondrial disorder with rapid loss of central vision due to death of the optic nerve.

 Delayed age of onset, 20-30 years old. 

95% of cases caused by one of three missense mutations in a mitochondrial protein (mtDNA protein complex I).

84
Q

MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged-red fiber)

A

Four “canonical” features: Myoclonus, generalized epilepsy, ataxia, ragged-red fibers (RRF) in the muscle biopsy

Frequent manifestations: Sensorineural hearing loss, peripheral neuropathy, dementia, short stature, exercise intolerance, optic atrophy

Mutation: single base changes in mitochondrial tRNA molecules that change their codon specificity.

Heteroplasmy

85
Q

MELAS

A

mitochondrial encephalomyopathy and stroke-like episodes

Heteroplasmy

   mutations in mitochondrial tRNA that change codon specificity
86
Q

Mitosis requirements

A

Condensation

Nuclear envelope (phosphorylation of lamins)

ER/Golgi fragmentation

Cells loosens extraceullar adhesions

Cytoskeleton transformed

87
Q

Cohesins

Condensin

A

Cohesins cross-link two adjacent sister chromatids, gluing them together.

88
Q

Centrosome

A

Microtubule Organizing Center

MTOC

centrosomes at their – ends. + ends grow outwards towards the cell periphery.

Before a cell divides it must duplicate its centrosome to provide one for each daughter cell.

89
Q

Centriole

A

Perpendicular cylindrical pairs

90
Q

Cytoplasmic organelles origin during mitosis

A

Golgi and ER break up into a set of smaller fragments

ER vesicles seem to associate with microtubules

Organelles like mitochondria cannot assemble spontaneously. They arise from growth and fission of existing organelles.

91
Q

Microtubulles types

A

Astral

Kinetochore

Overlap

92
Q

MAPS

A

Microtubule associated proteins (allow extension of microtubules)

Catastrophins (Depomylerization)

93
Q

Separation of the two spindle poles

A

Kinesin

Overlaping MTs

94
Q

Anaphase A/B

A

(A) Shortening of kinetochore microtubules (depolymerization)

(B) Kinesin driven movement over overlap

95
Q

Checkpoints in cell cycle

A

Enter mitosis

Exit mitosis

Enter S phase

96
Q

Two key components of the cell-cycle controlled system

A

Cyclin-dependent kinease (Cdk)

Cyclin (oscillates)

97
Q

Regulates of Cdk by ihibitory phosphorylation

A

Wee1 kinease (mutations cause uncontrolled replications making small cells)

Cdc25 phosphatase

98
Q

CKI

A

Regulate Cyclin-cdk complexes

CDK INHIBITOR PROTEINS

p27

99
Q

Rate limiting step in cyclin destruction

A

final ubiquitin transfer step by enzymes known as ubiquitin ligases

In G1 and S phase SCF is responsible for the ubiquitylation and destruction of G1/S cyclins and certain CKI proteins that control S phase initiation.

In M Phase, the anaphase–promoting complex (AMP) is responsible for the ubiquitylation of M-cyclins.

100
Q

Initiation of DNA replication cycle

How is re-replication block insured?

A

Origin recognitioncomplex recognizes the ORC binding site

Cdc6-MCM forming pre-replicative complex

Cdc degradation

Origin recognitioncomplex becomes phosphorylated

(1) S-Cdk activtity remains high during G2
(2) M-Cdk ensures re-replication by phopshorylating Cdc6 and Mcm

101
Q

The activation of M-phase

A

MCdk’s; Cyclin D

102
Q

Actions of M-Cdk

A

1) Induce assembly of the mitotic spindle
2) Ensure connection to the spindle
3) Chromosomal condensaion, nuclar envelope ect.

103
Q

M-cyclin destruction

A

Destruction of M-cyclin is not required for sister-chromatid separation but is required for the subsequent exit from mitosis.

104
Q

Mechanisms of sister chromatids separation

A
105
Q

Control of G1 progression

A

G1 is held by active Sic1 and Hct1-APC

106
Q

Mechanisms of S-phage initiation

A
107
Q

DNA damage arrests the cell cycle

A

Phosphorylation of p53 leading to transcription of CKI p21

108
Q

Overview of the cell-cycle

A
109
Q

What growth factors control?

Example?

A

Regulation of cell growth or division.

Proliferation of cells.

Survival.

Migration

Physiological function of cells.

e.g. mitogen->RAS->myc

110
Q

Cell determination

A

Cells retain a record of signals their ancestors received in early embryonic environment.

Cell determination before differentiation

111
Q

Two ways of making sister cells different

A

Asymmetric cell division

Inducitve interactions (also concentration dependent; called morphogens); limited time and space; patterning by sequential induction)

112
Q

Two ways to create a morphogen gradient

A

Gradient of inducer source

Gradient of inhibitor source

113
Q

How embryo can be polar?

A

Fertilization triggers 2 types of intracellular movements.

Cell cortex rotation through 30 degree relative to the core of the egg in a direction determined by sperm entry.
Active transport of Dishevelled protein, a component of the Wnt signaling pathway.
The resultant Dorsal concentration of Dishevelled protein defines the dorsoventral polarity.

114
Q

Stem cells

A

It is not itself terminally differentiated = Self renewal

It can divide without limit

Potency = The capacity to differentiate into any specialized cell.

When it divides, each daughter has a choice: it can either remain a stem cell, or it can embark on a course that commits it to terminal differentiation

115
Q

Totipotency

Pluripotent

iPS

Multipotent

A

Totipotency = ALL of the cells in the body

Pluripotent = the potential to divide into any of the three germ layers

iPS = Induced pluripotent stem cells also referred to as iPSCs which are artificially derived from an non-pluripotent cell (somatic cell)

116
Q

4 cell types in the gut

A
  1. Absorptive cells - brush border cells or enterocytes.
  2. Goblet cells (as in respiratory epithelium) secrete mucus.
  3. Paneth cells form part of the innate immune defense system.
  4. Enteroendocrine cells, of more than 15 different subtypes, secrete serotonin and cholecystokinin (CCK).

Wnt/Notch signalling can alter formation of secreting or absorbin cell

117
Q

deltaG° = RTln(eq)

simply

A

deltaG° = -1364log(eq) cal/mol

118
Q

High Energy Compounds values

Esters (amide)

Thiol-Esters (acetyl CoA)

Anhydrides (ATP)

Guanidinium phosphate (CP)

Enoyl Phosphate (PEP)

NADH

FADH2

A

Esters (amide): -3 kcal/mole

Thiol-Esters (acetyl CoA): -6 to -8 kcal/mole

Anhydrides (ATP): -7 to -10 kcal/mole

Guanidinium phosphate (CP): -10 kcal/mole

Enoyl Phosphate (PEP): -14 kcal/mole

NADH oxidation (to NAD+) -15 kcal/mole

FADH2 oxidation (to FADH+) -15 kcal/mole

119
Q

Sources / Fates of Pyruvate?

Soruces / Fates of Acteyl CoA?

A
120
Q

Co-Factors of Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

When it is inactive?

A

Thiamine PyroPhosphate

Lipoic Acid

FAD

* inactive when phosporylated

contains kinease and phosphatase

121
Q

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

symptoms?

diet?

treatment?

A

elevated serum levels of lactate, pyruvate, and alanine.

acidotic

low in carbohydrates

dichloroacetate (phosphatase)

122
Q

Order of substrates and enzymes in Krebs cycle

A
123
Q

At which step is GTP / FADH2 / NADH produced?

Which steps are irreversible?

Which is the rate limiting step?

A
124
Q

Which moleucules of Krebs cycles are exported out of the mitochondria and used as a regulatory signals?

A
125
Q

Where and what signals control Krebs cycle?

A
126
Q

Electron flow

A
127
Q

Reduction potential, Eo

A

deltaG° = -nFdeltaE°

128
Q

Flavoproteins

examples?

of electrons that they can accept?

A
129
Q

Ubiquinone

nickname?

of electrons it can accept?

location?

A

Coenzyme Q or just Q

1-2 electrons

Freely diffusible within inner membrane billayer

130
Q

Heme in cytochromes

oxidation?

Iron Sulfur Centers :)

A

Fe2+ Fe3+

131
Q

Respirasome

A

Recent studies support the idea that complex I, III, and IV are associated

132
Q

Complex 1,2,3,4 composition

Disease associated with heme b (complex 2)

A

(1) six iron-sulfur centers and FMN-containing flavoprotein
(2) heme b (binding site for Q) - prevent e- leak, iron-sulfur centers
(3) bc1 ‘ ubiquinone:cytochrome c oxidoreductase
(4) Cu ions, heme groups

paraganglioma (tumor in head and neck)

133
Q

Which part is F1 and which F0?

Which one is rotating and which one synthesizes ATP?

A

The top is F1, and the bottom F0

F0 rotating

F1 ATP synthesis

134
Q

How NADH is transported to mitochondria from cystol? (in liver, kidney, and heart)

A

Malate-Aspartate shuttle

135
Q

How NADH is transported to mitochondria from cystol? (in muscle and brain)

A

glycerol 3 phosphate shuttle

136
Q

Molecule that is found in brown adipose tissue

A

Thermogenin

Uncouples reacitons

137
Q

Drugs that interfere with oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Cyanide, carbon monoxide – cytochrome oxidase inhibition

Rotenone, amytal – prevent e- transfer from Fe-S to Q

Oligomycin – inhibitor of ATP synthase

138
Q

Loss of a copies in thalassemia a 2, 3, 4?

A

2 = a thalassemia trait: asymptomatic, but can detect biochemically, reduced RBC size.

3 = Hemoglobin H disease: moderate to marked anemia.

a0 thalassemia (Hb Barts, HYDROPS FETALIS)- lethal.

139
Q

Loss of alleles in thalassemia b?

A

b-thalassemia minor 1 mutant allele

b-thalassemia trait intermediate expression

b-thalassemia major 2 mutant allele, 0 or little expression

140
Q

Direct testing vs. linkage analysis vs. biochemical testing vs. cytogenetic testing.

A

Direct testing - analyzing DNA base by base

Linkage analysis - looking at the marker and linkage association

Biochemical tests are screen for enzymes proteins (karyotyping, FISH, CHIP, CFFDNA)

141
Q

Which types of tests are used for prenatal and neonatal screening?

A

Biochemical and Cyotgenetic testing

142
Q

Define sequence analysis

When it is used?

Difficulties? (BRAC1)

A

Sequencing

Selected regions possibly causing problems are selected.

Difficulties (BRAC1) can identify unknown benign polymorphism or mutation that increases risk. Likely to reveal numerous variants. Ambigiuity.

143
Q

Sequence analysis vs. Mutation analysis

A

Sequencing a segment of DNA identifies most variations from the wild-type.

In contrast, mutation analysis identifies only specific targeted mutations within a given segment of DNA.)

144
Q

Reasons why sequence alteration might not be detected

A

Not covered by lab test

Mutation that cannot be detected (large deletion)

Mutation causing disease might be in another gene (locus heterogenity)

145
Q

Define mutation scanning (exon scanning)

When use it?

Examples?

A

Exons (coding regions within a gene) are subjected to physical tests to confirm the presence of a mutation before sequencing is used to delineate the exact mutation

When use it: If a gene has many possible mutations; reduces amount of DNA to be sequenced

Methods used include: conformation sensitive gel electrophoresis (CSGE), single-stranded conformational-polymorphism (SSCP), and denaturing gradient gel electrophoresis (DGGE).

146
Q

Define Targeted Mutation Analysis

When use it?

Difficulties? (CF)

A

Testing for a specific muation (Glu6Val for sickle cell anemia), OR specific type of mutation (trinucleotide repeat expansion in HD or MD, deletions in DMD), OR set of mutations (CF e.g. microarray)

When use it: for diseases with common disease causing allele

Difficulties: The mutational analysis may not identify uncommon alleles (2%)

147
Q

Define deletion/duplication analysis: (copy number analysis)

Examples of methods?

Clinical mportance?

A

A process to detect deletions/duplications of an entire exon, multiple exons, or the whole gene that typically are not identifiable by sequence analysis of genomic DNA.

Examples: Methods include: quantitative PCR, real-time PCR, multiplex ligation dependent probe amplification (MLPA; multiplex quantitative PCR- up to 40 sequences), and array CGH (comparative genomic hybridization; gene CHIPs).

Clinical importance: testing heterozygotes ex. Williams, spinal muscular atrophy, X-linked disorder

148
Q

Clinical uses of genetic testing

A

Diagnostic testing- confirm/rule out a genetic disorder in symptomatic individual.

Predictive testing- offered to asymptomatic individuals with a family history of genetic disorder (presymptomatic vs. predispositional).

Carrier testing- performed to identify individuals who carry a mutation for an autosomal or x-linked recessive disorder.

Prenatal testing- performed during a pregnancy to assess the health status of a fetus.

Preimplantation testing- performed on early embryos resulting from in vitro fertilization.

Newborn screening- to help identify individuals with genetic diseases to start treatment as soon as possible

149
Q

Austism

Heritable causes?

A

Chromosomal: prader-willi/angelman, down

Single gene: Fragile-X, Rett syndrome, Tuberous sclerosis, Sotos

Mitochondrial:

150
Q

Techniques that can be used to detect disease causing genetic mutations

A

DNA testing- detection of variation at the DNA level. sequencing, Southern blotting, PCR

RNA detection- changes in transcription of specific genes (promotor mutations). Northern blotting, RT-PCR

Protein electrophoresis- hemoglobinapathies; changes in protein structure (charge or size).

Protein detection- antibodies used to detect changes in protein abundance. ELISA, western blotting, immuno-histochemistry

Biochemical assays- inborn errors of metabolism (neonatal screening). Measure analytes, enzyme assays

Cytogenetics- changes in chromosomes (# or structure). Spectral karyotyping, FISH, G-band karyotyping

151
Q

What can be used to detect promoter mutations?

A

Protein assays and RNA assay

152
Q

Use of Northern

A

RNA size and abundance

153
Q

Use of Southern

A

Genomic DNA followed by restirction digest

154
Q

Southern/Northern vs. PCR

A

S/N: require specific probe; 1-20kb; only large differences

PCR: small amount of DNA; no probe;

155
Q

Duchene Muscular Dystrophy

Causing mutation?

Issues with detection?

How is the disease analyzed DNA/protein level?

Heterozygote issues?

A

Only 1/10 is disease causing; large gene to sequence

Multiplex PCR of 9 exons; Immunofluoresence

Cannot detect heterozygote just by normal PCR

156
Q

Hemoglobinopathies

A

qualitative (SCA) and quantitative disorders of hemoglobin (all forms abab).

157
Q

Thalassemias

A

Globin chain imbalances

158
Q

Two ways that sickle cells can be detected

A

Protein electrophoresis

Allelic specific nucleotides

159
Q

Hemoglobin lepore:

Testing?

A

It is a type of β thalassemia allele

Unequal crossing over between d and b genes generates hybrid db and bd genes.

Hb lepore (db) is functionally active, but expressed at low levels due to fetal promotor

1) Targeted mutation analysis (population appropriate),
2) Mutation scanning or sequence analysis.

160
Q

Repeat Expansion and Anticipation

diseases and their cause

A

Myotonic Dystrophy - after stop codon 3’UTR decreases mRNA stability

Hunington - expansion in coding region

Fragile X - before 5’ UTR -> inhibits transcription due to hypermethylation

161
Q

How is Myotonic dystrophy assayed?

A

Southern bloot

162
Q

How Huntington disease is assayed

A
163
Q

Fragile X synrome

A

Fragile X = Most common form of inherited mental retardation.

Down syndrome is the most common genetic cause of mental retardation.