Week 3 Random Flashcards

Question

What is important about dermatomyotome location?

Answer 1

Each dermatomyotome retains its own segmental innervation from its origin

Answer 2

Forms most organs (CT, smooth muscle and epithelial linings) in both the urinary and genital systems. \*\* The endoderm provides the remaining epithelial linings of some UG organs.

Answer 3

Rapid head and tail growth causes the embryo to curl toward the ventral surface

Answer 4

endoderm becomes folded into a long narrow tube within the embryo. mesoderm continues to separate out ectoderm from endoderm. the ectoderm and amniotic cavity completely encircle the embryo. the ectoderm forming the outer covering of the embryo

Answer 5

intraembryonic cavity Thoracic and abdomainal cavity

Answer 6

somatic -\> connective tissue and smooth muscle of body wall, bones and cartilage of limbs and limb girdles splanchnic -\> connective tissue and smooth muscle lined organs and ALL tissues of cardiovascular system

Answer 7

forms the epithelial lining of GI tract mesoderm and endoderm induce each other to form specific GI organs epithelial components of several other organs: pharyngeal buds, lung buds, liver, pancreas and gall bladder buds

Answer 8

the study of the interactions of chemicals, other than foods, with living systems. It is a science based upon an understanding of organic chemistry, biochemistry, physiology, pathology and microbiology that focuses on the _mechanism of action_ of drugs on living systems.

Answer 9

Pharmacodynamics: Mechanisms of Drug Action Pharmacokinetics: Absorption, distribution, metabolism and elimination of drugs. Therapeutics: The application of pharmacology to the problems of clinical medicine. Chemotherapy: The use of drugs, which ideally have little effect on the host (patient) but destroy or retard the growth of invading cells and organisms. Safety Pharmacology: A relatively new discipline that is focuses on the MOA of unwanted effects of drugs in humans during drug product development. Toxicology: The pharmacology of the harmful effects of poisons, environmental and industrial chemicals and drugs on the human body.

Answer 10

The science broadly interested in all aspects of drugs, with two primary emphases: one on the manufacture, compounding, preparation and dispensing of drugs; the other on the therapeutic management of drug treatment of patients; therapeutacist.

Answer 11

Chemical name: Any typical organic chemical name. Generic name: The assigned name of a drug, by which it will be known throughout the world no matter how many different companies manufacture it. Official name: This is the name by which a drug is listed in one of the following official publications: a) U.S. Pharmacopoeia, b) National Formulary, c) U.S. Adopted Names. Trade name: The name that is given by a particular company that is manufacturing the drug.

Answer 12

FDA Right to regulate, recall, and safety aleart

Answer 13

(basic lab) Lead identification and optimization: Classical medicinal chemistry, Molecular modeling, Natural product screening, Novel biotechnology, Serendipity (confirmation in models) Pharmacologic evaluation: In vitro receptor binding, Cell-based assays, Animal disease models (toxicity) Preliminary assessment of development challenges: Toxicology, Pharmacokinetics, In vitro tests, Exploratory, dose range finding studies, Scale-up potential, Costs of clinical evaluation

Answer 14

Application submitted by a sponsor to study: Chemical and biological activities Dosage form specifications for humans Quality control details Description of company facilities and personnel Scientific qualifications of the investigators Specific details of the protocol to be followed

Answer 15

Phase 1: 9-18mo 20-100 health = safety; tolerability; administration Phase 2: 18-24mo 30-40 control & subject = response ; dosage ; Phase 3: 2-4yr 100-1000+ experimental = clinical benefit ; RCT Drug is considered safe. Phase 4: 1-2yr = broader population; compares effectiveness with other drugs

Answer 16

To obtain license for a new drug: Completed results of Phase I, II and III Long term toxicity studies on animals Effects on fertility and reproduction and young animals

Answer 17

Good laboratory practices Are regulatory guidelines followed by a validated laboratory to ensure each and every step of the study/experiment is validated. So that every step performed in a study/experiment can be precisely and accurately repeated.

Answer 18

these membrane proteins represent more than half the current drug targets and a market of tens of billions of dollars annually all tisues, organs, and cells express GPCRs

Answer 19

Signal molecule binds to GPCR Alpha subunit is phosphorylated It dissociates from beta-gamma complex

Answer 20

2nd messenger (cAMP): Binds to PKA (Gs); Activates Na+ channels in olfactory neurons (Golf) (Ca++): Binds to PKC (Gq) (cGMP): Opens Na+ channels in rod cells (Gt)

Answer 21

Locks GPCRs in active state

Answer 22

Inactivates Gi protein leading to cAMP overproduction Produces uncontrollable, violent coughing

Answer 23

Alpha -- inhibits adenylyl cyclase Beta/Gamma -- Opens potassium channels

Answer 24

Gs. alpha -- Activates adenylyl cyclase cAMP binds to regulatory units of PKA activated PKA activates CREB causing CREB binding protein (CPB) to cyclic AMP response element (CRE)

Answer 25

alpha -- Activates phsopholipase C Breaks down PI(4,5)-biphosphate to inositol 1,4,5 (IP3) and diacylglycerol IP3 opens calcium channels in ER Calcium and diacylglycerol activates protein kinease C

Answer 26

Exchangers Ca++ pump Ca++ binding Ca++ import to mitochondria Ca++ pump to ER

Answer 27

Nerve terminal: Ca++ bidns to voltage-gated Ca++ channels Cell: ligand binds, signal to release Ca++ from ER

Answer 28

alpha activates adenylyl cyclase cyclic AMP causes Na+ channels to open

Answer 29

Light -\> Activate rhodopsin -\> Gt -\> PDE -\> less cGMP Na+ channels close; so now the rod cell is hyperpolarized

Answer 30

GPCR kinease phosphrylates GPCR Arrestin binds to these phosphate

Answer 31

(Downstream of Gs) cAMP activates PKA PKA phosphorylates and activates glycogen phosphorylase that adds phosphate to glycogen and leads to breakdown of it to glucose-6P PKA phosphorylates and inactivates glycogen syntahse by

Answer 32

Epidermal growth factor -\> EGF receptors Insulin -\> Insulin redcetpor Insulin-like growth factors (IGF1 and IGF2) -\> IGF receptor-1 Nerve Growth Factor (NGF) -\> Trk A Platelet derived growth factors -\> PDGF receptors Macrophage-colony-stimulating factors (MCSF) -\> FGF receptors Vascular endothelail growth factor (VEGF) -\> VEGF receptors

Answer 33

Signaling proteins with SH2 domains bind to PO4-Y docking sites on an activated

Answer 34

Have phosphorylated docking stations that bind proteins

Answer 35

Ras (relay signals from RTKs) Rho (Relay signals from surface to cystoskeleton) ARF (formation of protein vessicles) Rab (regulate intracellular traffic) Ran (regulates mitotic spindle)

Answer 36

Dimerize and autophosphorylate Phosophates provide docking stations Phosphates near kinease domain increases the kinease activity Sometimes docking proteins might mediate signal (e.g. IRS-1)

Answer 37

Tyrosine-(P)

Answer 38

Poly proline regions

Answer 39

Monomeric Ras

Answer 40

RTK is activated Adaptor proteins binds with SH2 to RTK and SH3 to Ras-GEF Ras is activated

Answer 41

RAS -\> MAP KKK (Raf) -\> MAP KK (Mek) -\> MAP K (Erk) MAP K can be phsoporylated both on theorenine and tyrosine leading to specificity

Answer 42

Phsophatidylinositol (PI) that can be altered by phosporylation (PIP2 and PIP3 by PI3 kinase)

Answer 43

B cell receptor causes PI(4,5) to be phosphorylated to PI(3,4,5) PI(3,4,5) binds to BTK that binds and activated PLC-gamma PLC-gamma cleaves PI(3,4) to diacylglycerol and IP3 Clonal expansion

Answer 44

PI(3,4,5)P3 activates PDK1 PDK1 and mTOR phosphorylates Atk Atk dissociates from PI(3,4,5)P3 and inactivates Bad Bad release apoptosis inhibitorty protein=

Answer 45

–A protein that binds a neurotransmitter/modulator –A protein that binds a small molecule –A protein that binds another protein –A nucleic acid that binds a protein –A macromolecule that binds a drug –A macromolecule that binds a toxicant

Answer 46

(eq) D + R \<--\> DR -\>\> Effect rate of reaction is proportional to the product of the concentration of the reactant

Answer 47

D+R\<-\>DR

Answer 48

the relative maximal response caused by a drug in a tissue preparation

Answer 49

how much of a ligand is needed to cause a measured change

Answer 50

Channel G-protein RTK Intracellular receptor

Answer 51

Refractoriness Desensitization Down regulation Tachyphylaxis Supersensitivity

Answer 52

Describe population rather than single individual responses to drugs all-or-none death, pregnancy, cure, pain releif

Answer 53

Inifinite number of intermediate states vessel dialtion, blood pressure change, heart rate change

Answer 54

Chemical: interaction of two drugs in solution such that the effect of active drug is lost Physiological: Interaction of two drugs with opposing physiological actions Pharmacological: Blockade of the action of a drug-receptor interaction by another compound

Answer 55

Competitive Antagonists * bind to same site on receptor as agonists * inhibition can be overcome by increasing agonist concentration (reversible) * primarily affect agonist potency * clinically useful Non-Competitive Antagonists * bind covalently to same site as agonist (irreversible) or to a site distinct from that of agonist (irreversible or reversible) * inhibition cannot be overcome by increasing agonist concentration * primarily affect efficacy * limited clinical use

Answer 56

Pool of availible receptors exceeds the nubmer required for a full response

Answer 57

Recepotor mediated: loss of receptor function (fast); reduction of number of recetors (slow) Non-Receptor Mediated: reduction of signalling, reduction of drug concentration

Answer 58

Yolk Sac (Mesoblastic phase 2wk) +RBCs Liver (Hepatic phase 6wk) +WBCs Spleen (Splenic phase (2nd tri) Bone Marrow (Myeloid phase 2nd tri) Sternum, ribs and vertebra (Fatty replacement in long bones 20 yrs) \* Anemia can cause hematopoesis in spleen

Answer 59

T = Thymus B = Bone Marrow

Answer 60

Pluripotent - capable of differentiating into different types of cells Progenitor cell - unipotent (committed to a particular cell line), and capable of self-renewal Precursor cell - immature unipotent cell, not capable of self-renewal

Answer 61

fibroblasts, macrophages, adipocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, endothelial cells, hematopoetic supportive stroma, osteocyte

Answer 62

Myeloid & Lymphoid

Answer 63

BFU=blast forming unit CFU=colony forming unit CSF=colony stimulating factor

Answer 64

Epo secreted by Kideny Both BFU-E and CFU-E are stimulated by epo to divide CFU-E’s when stimulated mature into RBC precursors Progenitor cells form spherical cluster around macrophages known as “nurse cells” Macrophages phagocytize extruded red cell nuclei Reticulocytes that are released into circulation mature in the blood stream

Answer 65

CFU for each cell line give rise to blasts CFUs are stimulated to proliferate and differentiate by CSFs and other cytokines (chemical cell signals) Granulocytes mature in the bone marrow in the hemopoietic cords In cases of need such as infection the bone marrow will respond by releasing almost mature neutrophils(bands or stabs) into the circulation Neutrophils will marginate to the inner wall of the blood vessels and quickly release when needed-allowing for a quick response in injury, inflammation

Answer 66

Also arise from CFUs, when mature enter circulation for a short time until migrating into tissue to become macrophage

Answer 67

CFU\>megakaryoblast\>megakaryocyte 40-100 uM Single multilobed nucleus can give appearance of being multinucleated Located next to sinusoids in bone marrow and break off bits of cytoplasm into the circulation that break up into platelets

Answer 68

Lymphocytes are derived from CFU-Ly stem cells\>B or T CFU progenitors B cells develop and become immunocompetent in the bone marrow T cells develop in the bone marrow and become immunocompetent in the thymus

Answer 69

Bone marrow: aspirate (cellular detail) biopsy: (structure and ratios of cell populations) Blood: peripheral smear obtained from a venous blood sample

Answer 70

bony trabeculae Stromal cells provide a supportive framework for islands of blood cells called hematopoietic cords to develop Vascular channels provide nutrients and are where new blood cells enter circulation Over time hemopoietic cords replaced with adipocytes

Answer 71

no nucleus no organelles carbonic anhydrase salmon pink biconcave discs lipid bilayer supported by lattice of spectrin and actin Carbohydrate chains on the membrane surface are the A and B antigens Rh complex set Increased surface area for gas exchange 7um

Answer 72

Monocytes circulate for a day or two and then enter tissue through postcapillary venules and become macrophages Phagocytosis of cellular debris bacterial antigen presentation to lymphocytes

Answer 73

Neutrophils migrate through post capillary venules to phagocytize and destroy bacteria (this also kills the neutrophill) Have membrane receptors for antibodies Release substances involved in the inflammatory response pus is an accumulation of dead leukocytes, bacteria, extracellular fluid

Answer 74

Binding substances released by other inflammatory cells Release substances to inactivate histamine and other inflammatory mediators Destroy parasites

Answer 75

Release granule contents that cause allergic reaction Histamine\>\>leaky vessels, vasodilation, bronchial smooth muscle contraction Interesting hypothesis not pertinent to this session: these cells may have a some point provided protection against certain kinds of venom (verbal opinion from an allergist)

Answer 76

Damaged endothelial cells release substances promoting vasoconstriction and clotting including von Willebrand factor (vWF) Platelets adhere to exposed collagen in basement membrane enhanced by vWF Platelets are activated to degranulate and adhere to one another platelets aggregated into a thrombus or clot

Answer 77

Poly-A-tail and G-cap eIF4G is connected to Poly-A-tail eIF4E is conntected to 5' cap

Answer 78

) associates with the 5’ cap of the mRNA and then shortens the poly-A tail in the 3’ to 5’ direction

Answer 79

80S 60S (2.8Mb) = 5S+28S+5.8S + 49 proteins 40S (1.4Mb) = 18S + 33 Proteins

Answer 80

eIF2-GTP associates with amnioacyl-tRNA and small ribosomal subunit eIF4E/eIF4G comes with mRNA ATP is hydrolized and complex searches for Kozak Large subunit binds GTP is hydrolized

Answer 81

eEF-1 eEF-2

Answer 82

Proteolysis (non-reversible) Folding Adding functional groups Structural changes Processing Removal of start methionine

Answer 83

Fertilization age (embryology) counter after fertilization (38 weeks) Gestational or Menstrual Age (OBGYN) counter after LNMP (40 weeks)

Answer 84

Recurrence 50% Vertical transmission pattern Equal males and females (usually) Father to son is possible

Answer 85

Cannot determine related untested Assume aa for unrelated untested 100% Cholesterol penetrance Not 100% Cardiovascular disease penetrance

Answer 86

For the purpose of calculating recurrence risk asume that unrelated individuals are unaffected unless disease frequency is \>1/20

Answer 87

Recurrence 25% Horizontal transmission pattern Equal males and females (usually) Father to son is possible, consanguinity is seen

Answer 88

Disease frequency q^2 Carrier frequency 2q

Answer 89

Applies only when you know there is a possibility of homozygous ## Footnote affected offspring, but the individual is not affected.

Answer 90

Sweat chloride test Measures Cl- concentration

Answer 91

tyrosine-negative albinism autosomal recessive

Answer 92

Female carriers Males are hemizygous No male to male transmissions More males affected

Answer 93

Hemophilia (1/10000) -- clotting factor VIII (A) or IX (B) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy -- (1/3500) dystrophin complex (die before reproduction age) G6PD Deficiency -- (1/10) [female carriers 1/5] Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase low activity leading to anemia (by breakdown of cells) symptoms are observed after drug treatment (oxidative stress)

Answer 94

in a population with a stable disease frequency rate of spontaneous new mutation = rate of loss of alleles

Answer 95

hypophosphatemic rickets

Answer 96

pertaining to an autosomal genetic trait, such as pattern baldness or gout, that is expressed in both homozygotes and heterozygotes in one sex butonly homozygotes in the other sex.

Answer 97

Baldness (X-linked = androgen receptor , autosomal dominant sex-influenced = csome 20) androgenic alopecia (AGA) In men with reduced androgen levels (i.e. testicular injury), no baldness seen until treated with androgens In females with elevated androgen levels (i.e. adrenal tumors), hair loss observed

Answer 98

Lyse cells, digest proteins and RNAs Bind DNA (- charged) to + charged magnetic beads (low pH) Wash beads containing DNA to remove contaminants (cell debris, membranes, proteins, RNAs) Elute DNA from neutralized beads (high pH) (Silica-based)

Answer 99

AMELX (Amelogenin) gene is present on X and Y chromosomes but different introns

Answer 100

SNPs used when DNA is degraded SNP are less variable (paternal testing)

Answer 101

1. Regulation of histone modification and heterochromatin formation. 2. DNA methylation 3. Genomic imprinting DNMT-1 transfer patterns of methylations to a newly synthesized DNA after DNA replication 4. Gene silencing 5. X-chromosome inactivation

Answer 102

Acyclovir: Modified by viral thymidine kinease to become acyclo-GMP; it truncates DNA replication because it lacks 3' OH Actinomycin D is an antibiotic anticancer drug that inhibits Pol

Answer 103

BACTERIA ONLY Tetracycline (blocks A site) Streptomycin (prevents initiation to elongation) Chloramphenicol (blocks peptidyl transferase) Erythromycin (binds exit and prevent elongation) BOTH BAC AND EUK Puromycin (premature release of chain) EUKARYOTES Cycloheximide (blocks translocation) Aniomycin (blocks peptidyl transferase)

Answer 104

BACTERIA Rifamycin (binds to RNA Pol and prevent initiation) BOTH BAC AND EUK Actinomycin D (binds to DNA prevent movement of RNA Pol) EUKARYOTES a-Amanitin (bind to RNA Pol II)

Answer 105

E P A mRNA binding

Answer 106

A/G-X-X-AUG-G

Answer 107

Molecular chaperone

Answer 108

(1/10,000) (A; B is 1/10 as common); clotting factors VIII (A) and IX (B).

Answer 109

African populations (10% of African American men) X-linked recessive An acute but self limiting anemia secondary to intravascular breakdown of red blood cells (hemolysis). Hemolysis occurs in response to oxidative damage to the RBC. Symptoms observed after treatment with certain drugs (anti-malarials or antibiotics), or after other stresses (infection). Red blood cells lack a nucleus and ribosomes and cannot make G6PD after they are formed, so supply is limited. G6PD regenerates NADPH which regenerates reduced glutathione which protects cells from oxidative stress.