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Theory > Week 3 skin > Flashcards

Week 3 skin Flashcards

1
Q

The integumentary system includes the ____ and ____ layers of the skin.

A

epidermis, dermis

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2
Q

The purpose of the integumentary system includes protection, sensation, and ____ regulation.

A

temperature

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3
Q

Common diagnostic tools related to the integumentary system include ____ and ____ assessments.

A

visual, tactile

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4
Q

The inflammatory response involves vascular and ____ changes in the body.

A

cellular

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5
Q

Different types of exudate can indicate the nature of a wound, such as ____ and ____ exudate.

A

serous, purulent

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6
Q

The healing process can be complicated by factors such as ____ and ____ of wounds.

A

delays, types

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7
Q

Pressure injuries are classified into stages based on the ____ and ____ of tissue damage.

A

depth, extent

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8
Q

Nursing management of inflammation includes assessing the ____ and ____ of the affected area.

A

swelling, redness

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9
Q

Scabies and bed bugs are treated based on the ____ for treatment choices.

A

rationale

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10
Q

Local and systemic clinical manifestations of inflammation can include ____ and ____ symptoms.

A

pain, fever

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11
Q

The assessment of the integumentary system can reveal important information about a person’s ____ and ____ status.

A

health, nutritional

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12
Q

The structures of the skin include the epidermis, dermis, and ____ tissue.

A

subcutaneous

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13
Q

The healing process can be affected by complications such as ____ and ____ during recovery.

A

infection, scarring

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14
Q

The purpose of the integumentary system also includes the synthesis of ____ and ____.

A

vitamin D, protection against UV radiation

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15
Q

In assessing skin health, one should consider factors like ____ and ____ exposure.

A

environmental, lifestyle

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16
Q

The epidermis serves as a ____ barrier and is approximately ____ mm thick.

A

protective, 0.05 - 0.1

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17
Q

The dermis contains ____ for strength and is divided into an upper ____ layer and a lower reticular layer.

A

collagen, thin

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18
Q

Subcutaneous tissue, also known as ____ , attaches skin to ____ and bone.

A

hypodermis, muscle

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19
Q

The integumentary system protects underlying tissues from the ____ and provides protection against ____ and excessive water loss.

A

environment, bacteria

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20
Q

Fat within the subcutaneous layer helps with ____ and protects from ____.

A

insulation, trauma

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21
Q

The integumentary system helps synthesize ____ and melanin screens and absorbs ____ light.

A

vitamin D, ultraviolet

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22
Q

Integumentary assessment involves collecting both ____ and ____ data.

A

subjective, objective

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23
Q

The functions of the integumentary system include temperature regulation and secretion of ____ and ____.

A

sebum, sweat

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24
Q

The epidermis regenerates approximately every ____ days and contains ____ and keratinocytes.

A

28, melanocytes

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25
Q

The dermis is highly ____ and contains connective tissue that provides ____ to the skin.

A

vascular, strength

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26
Q

A history of ____ and ____ can explain alterations in skin colour.

A

trauma, surgery

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27
Q

Conditions like ____ and ____ can lead to skin colour changes such as jaundice.

A

liver disease, diabetes mellitus

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28
Q

Cyanosis is often associated with ____ while pallor can indicate ____.

A

COPD, anemia

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29
Q

Medications for ____ or ____ can affect skin appearance.

A

acne, rashes

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30
Q

When assessing skin, it is important to inspect for ____ and ____.

A

lesions, changes in colour

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31
Q

During a skin examination, you should also palpate the ____ and ____.

A

skin, hair

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32
Q

The mole assessment includes checking for ____ and ____ in the mole’s appearance.

A

asymmetry, border

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33
Q

In mole assessment, the colour, diameter, and ____ of the mole are also important.

A

evolution

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34
Q

Allergies to ____ and the use of new ____ can impact skin health.

A

pets, cleaning agents

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35
Q

Teaching self-examination of the skin is an important part of ____ and ____ assessment.

A

skin, health

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36
Q

As people age, they may experience decreased skin turgor and increased skin _____.

A

fragility, shearing

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37
Q

Common benign neoplasms in older adults are known as _____ and are also referred to as seborrheic keratoses.

A

barnacles

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38
Q

With aging, there is a decrease in the number of _____, leading to grey and white hair.

A

melanocytes

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39
Q

Older adults may experience brittle nails that are prone to _____ and yellowing.

A

splitting

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40
Q

Cultural considerations in skin health include variations in skin _____ and hair texture.

A

pigmentation

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41
Q

Dark pigmentation provides a genetic advantage by resulting in a lower incidence of _____ cancer.

A

skin

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42
Q

Environmental adaptations can affect the function of sweat _____ in different populations.

A

glands

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43
Q

Age-related skin changes include less volume in the dermis, leading to increased _____ and wrinkles.

A

fragility

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44
Q

Recognition of unique clinical manifestations of disease is important due to variations in skin _____ and hormonal effects.

A

pigmentation

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45
Q

Older adults may be at risk for _____ due to decreased skin turgor and other age-related changes.

A

hypothermia

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46
Q

Patch testing is used for evaluating response to different _____ and is typically associated with _____ malignancy.

A

allergens, suspected

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47
Q

Biopsy is performed to identify the _____ substance and can include tests like _____ and sensitivity.

A

causative, culture

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48
Q

Microscopic tests often utilize _____ light to detect certain substances that can _____ under specific conditions.

A

black, fluoresce

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49
Q

Woods Lamp is used to identify conditions such as _____ infections, _____, and scabies.

A

fungal, head lice

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50
Q

In the context of diagnostic studies, consent and _____ preparation are crucial before performing a _____ procedure.

A

pre-op, surgical

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51
Q

Post-op care is essential after procedures like _____ and _____ testing to ensure patient recovery.

A

biopsy, patch

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52
Q

The first line of defence includes ____ and ____ cells.

A

Epithelial, Skin

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53
Q

The second line of defence involves ____ and ____ responses.

A

Inflammatory, Immune

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54
Q

During the inflammatory phase, the body undergoes ____ and ____ inflammation.

A

hemostasis, acute

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55
Q

In the proliferative phase, ____ tissue is formed and ____ occurs.

A

granular, epithelialization

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56
Q

Pathogens can be expelled from the body through ____ and ____ processes.

A

coughing, sneezing

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57
Q

Inflammation can be triggered by ____ and ____ responses.

A

infection, trauma

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58
Q

The maturation/remodeling phase involves the formation of ____ tissue.

A

scar

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59
Q

Epithelial cells are found in the ____ tract, ____ tract, and ____ tract.

A

respiratory, gastrointestinal, genitourinary

60
Q

Dead skin cells help to slough off ____ from the body.

A

pathogens

61
Q

Urine helps to flush out pathogens through the ____ process.

A

urination

62
Q

Diarrhea can remove pathogens via ____ from the body.

A

stool

63
Q

The inflammatory phase involves ____ cells that activate the inflammatory response and are located in the ____ and GI tract.

A

Mast, skin

64
Q

Histamines are responsible for ____ and smooth muscle ____ during the inflammatory response.

A

vasodilation, constriction

65
Q

Antihistamines are important to decrease the ____ response by counteracting the effects of ____ during inflammation.

A

inflammatory, histamines

66
Q

The phagocytic system’s role is to eliminate ____ and foreign debris by recognizing, attaching, engulfing, and ____ them.

A

pathogens, destroying

67
Q

Local manifestations of inflammation include ____ from vasodilation, increased ____ at the inflammatory site, and pain from nerve stimulation.

A

redness, metabolism

68
Q

Swelling during inflammation is caused by fluid shift to the ____ space and accumulation of fluid ____ from the inflammatory response.

A

interstitial, exudate

69
Q

In mild inflammation, exudate is typically ____ and can be seen in conditions like ____ and ____.

A

serous, abrasions, rashes

70
Q

Severe inflammation often results in exudate that is ____ and may contain ____ or ____ exudate.

A

thicker, pus, hemorrhagic

71
Q

Hemorrhagic exudate is commonly associated with serious injuries such as ____ and ____.

A

burns, severe trauma

72
Q

Examples of conditions that produce serous exudate include ____, ____, and ____.

A

blisters, abrasions, rashes

73
Q

Pneumonia is an example of a condition that typically produces ____ exudate during ____ inflammation.

A

thicker, severe

74
Q

During wound healing, complications can include ____ and ____.

A

adhesions, contractures

75
Q

Two common complications of wound healing are ____ and ____.

A

dehiscence, evisceration

76
Q

To prevent complications during wound healing, early recognition and ____ are essential, along with ____.

A

nutrition, acute intervention

77
Q

Nursing management of inflammation and healing includes cleaning the wound and controlling ____, as well as treating ____.

A

inflammation, infection

78
Q

Wound management aims to provide moisture balance for healable wounds and moisture ____ for non-healable wounds, along with ____.

A

reduction, maintenance

79
Q

Two methods used in wound management are ____ and ____.

A

negative-pressure wound therapy, hyperbaric oxygen therapy

80
Q

In wound management, it is important to consider ____ and ____ applications for effective treatment.

A

hot, cold

81
Q

Complications such as ____ and ____ can significantly affect the healing process of a wound.

A

hemorrhage, infection

82
Q

Excess granulation tissue can be a complication of wound healing, along with ____ and ____.

A

fistula formation, adhesions

83
Q

Effective wound management includes wound cleaning, controlling inflammation, and providing ____ balance.

A

moisture

84
Q

Pressure injuries can be caused by ____ and ____, which can lead to skin damage.

A

Pressure, Friction

85
Q

The clinical features of pressure injuries include ____ age and ____ status.

A

Advanced, Nutrition

86
Q

Nursing assessment for pressure injuries should occur on admission, every shift, and on an ____ basis.

A

Ongoing

87
Q

The Braden scale is used for assessing ____ and ____ in patients at risk for pressure injuries.

A

Skin integrity, Risk

88
Q

Pressure injuries are classified into stages ranging from ____ to ____ or unstageable.

A

1, 4

89
Q

Common sites for pressure injuries include areas with ____ and ____ tissue.

A

Skin, Soft

90
Q

Nursing management for pressure injuries includes repositioning, documentation, and ____ care.

A

Wound

91
Q

Risk factors for pressure injuries include advanced age, comorbidities, and ____ status.

A

Incontinence

92
Q

The estimated number of people affected by pressure injuries in the United States each year is between ____ and ____ million.

A

1, 3

93
Q

A suspected deep tissue injury in pressure ulcers is classified as ____ and is characterized by ____.

A

Suspected Deep Tissue Injury, skin discoloration or intact skin with a localized area of persistent non-blanchable redness.

94
Q

In the staging of pressure injuries, Stage I is defined by ____ and involves ____.

A

non-blanchable redness, intact skin.

95
Q

Stage II pressure injuries are characterized by ____ and may involve ____.

A

partial thickness loss of skin, blistering or a shallow open ulcer.

96
Q

Stage III pressure injuries involve ____ and can extend into ____.

A

full thickness tissue loss, subcutaneous fat.

97
Q

The most severe classification of pressure injuries is Stage IV, which includes ____ and may involve ____.

A

full thickness tissue loss, muscle, bone, or supporting structures.

98
Q

Acetaminophen is classified as an ____ and ____ analgesic, primarily used for mild pain and fever.

A

antipyretic, non-opioid

99
Q

The mechanism of action for acetaminophen involves inhibiting ____ synthesis and mediating ____ and fever.

A

prostaglandin, pain

100
Q

Vitamin A is derived from animal products and ____ and ____ fruits/vegetables.

A

green, yellow/orange

101
Q

Deficiency in B-Complex vitamins can result from malabsorption, poor nutrition, and ____ abuse.

A

ETOH (alcohol)

102
Q

Vitamin C deficiency can lead to ____ due to poor nutrition.

A

scurvy

103
Q

Vitamin D regulates the absorption and utilization of ____ and ____ in the body.

A

calcium, phosphorus

104
Q

Common routes for administering acetaminophen include ____ and ____.

A

PO (oral), PR (rectal)

105
Q

Adverse reactions to acetaminophen may include hepatic failure and ____ toxicity.

A

hepato

106
Q

When teaching patients about acetaminophen, advise them not to exceed ____ g/day and to avoid ____.

A

4, alcohol

107
Q

The onset of acetaminophen when taken orally is approximately ____ to ____ minutes.

A

30, 60

108
Q

Antibiotics are used to treat ____ infections and ideally, the suspected areas of infection should be ____ to identify the causative organism.

A

bacterial, cultured

109
Q

The selection of antimicrobial is based on assessment, pharmacologic and clinical judgement, and ____ identification.

A

microbiological

110
Q

Empiric therapy is the treatment of an infection before specific ____ information has been reported or obtained, while targeted therapy is tailored to treat ____ identified with cultures.

A

culture, organisms

111
Q

Common categories of antibiotics include sulfonamides, penicillins, cephalosporins, and ____; they are classified based on chemical structure and ____ of action.

A

carbapenems, mechanism

112
Q

Penicillin G & V inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to the active site of penicillin-binding protein, leading to ____ of bacteria cells due to cell lysis.

A

death

113
Q

Prophylactic therapy involves the use of antibiotics to prevent an infection, such as in ____ surgery or after ____.

A

intra-abdominal, trauma

114
Q

The side effects of antibiotics can include interactions with NSAIDs, oral contraceptives, and ____; these should be considered during therapy.

A

warfarin

115
Q

B-lactam antibiotics include penicillins, cephalosporins, and ____; they are known for their bactericidal properties.

A

carbapenems

116
Q

The common categories of antibiotics include macrolides, quinolones, aminoglycosides, and ____; each has a unique mechanism of action.

A

tetracyclines

117
Q

Before beginning antibiotic therapy, it is important to consider the ____ versus benefit of treatment, especially in cases of suspected infection.

A

risk

118
Q

Impetigo is commonly associated with ____ and ____ hygiene practices.

A

seasons, poor

119
Q

Folliculitis is often related to ____ and ____ factors.

A

shaving, heat

120
Q

Cellulitis involves the ____ tissue and is commonly caused by ____ or ____ bacteria.

A

subcutaneous, staph, strep

121
Q

Severe itching from scabies is especially noticeable at ____ and may include ____ tracks.

A

night, burrowing

122
Q

Treatment for scabies includes topical ____ and addressing potential ____ infections.

A

5% permethrin, secondary

123
Q

Common symptoms of cellulitis include ____ and ____ in the affected area.

A

erythema, tenderness

124
Q

Impetigo lesions often appear as honey-colored ____ and can cause ____.

A

crusts, pruritus

125
Q

Folliculitis can be treated with local or systemic ____ depending on the ____ of the condition.

A

antibiotics, severity

126
Q

Scabies is caused by the mite ____ and is transmitted through ____ contact.

A

Sarcoptes scabies, direct

127
Q

For treating scabies, it is important to also treat ____ and ensure hygiene of ____ and surfaces.

A

cohabitants, clothing

128
Q

Bed bugs can cause ____ and may require treatment with ____ for relief.

A

pruritis, antihistamines

129
Q

The pharmacological class of diphenhydramine is ____ and its therapeutic class includes ____.

A

Histamine (H1) receptor antagonist, allergy, cold and cough

130
Q

Diphenhydramine works by antagonizing ____ receptor sites to decrease symptoms of ____.

A

H1, excess histamine

131
Q

The onset of diphenhydramine when taken orally is ____ and its duration is ____ hours.

A

15-60 minutes, 4-8

132
Q

Diphenhydramine is contraindicated in ____ and should not be used with ____ due to increased side effects.

A

lactation, alcohol

133
Q

Common side effects of diphenhydramine include ____, ____, and ____.

A

drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth

134
Q

For allergic symptoms, diphenhydramine can be used in doses of ____ mg for adults and children.

A

25-50

135
Q

Nursing considerations for diphenhydramine include assessing for ____ and being cautious with ____ and ____ depressants.

A

allergic response, alcohol, CNS

136
Q

When assessing a client with chronic leg wounds, the nurse finds new signs of _____ and _____ at the wound site.

A

erythema, pain

137
Q

To assess the client’s systemic response, the nurse might anticipate orders for a _____, _____, and culture testing.

A

serum protein analysis, CBC count

138
Q

In managing a febrile client, the nurse should consider using a _____ while administering _____ around-the-clock.

A

cooling blanket, antipyretics

139
Q

To prevent chills in a febrile client, the nurse should administer prescribed _____ and provide a _____ blanket.

A

antibiotics, warm

140
Q

If a client has a temperature of 39.8 C, the most effective intervention to restore normal body temperature would be _____ and _____ .

A

administering antipyretics, providing increased fluids

141
Q

In wound care, the process of removing dead tissue is known as ____, while the healing of tissues involves ____.

A

debridement, remodeling of tissues

142
Q

When treating a pressure injury, the nurse uses moist gauze dressings and anticipates the process of ____ and ____ to promote healing.

A

regeneration of cells, remodeling of tissues

143
Q

The nurse must understand the difference between ____ and ____ when addressing a client’s healing process after a pressure injury.

A

tertiary intention, secondary intention

144
Q

In the context of wound healing, ____ refers to the body’s ability to replace damaged cells, while ____ involves the restructuring of existing tissues.

A

regeneration of cells, remodeling of tissues

145
Q

A nurse caring for a client with a pressure injury should be familiar with the terms ____ and ____ as they relate to the healing process.

A

secondary intention, tertiary intention

Theory (18 decks)

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