Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Non-Communicable Diseases > Week 3: Current and Emerging NCDs > Flashcards

Week 3: Current and Emerging NCDs Flashcards

1
Q

What is the goal of public health?

A
  • To prevent premature death (death before late adulthood)
  • Promote health across the lifespan
  • shift the burden of illness, disability, and death from younger people to older adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the epidemiological transition?

A
  • the shift from infectious to NCDs being the primary cause of death in a population
  • often follows the demographic transition where a couple becomes more wealthy, there are less babies being born, and child survival rates are improving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In the pre-transition period with the epidemiological transition, a large burden of disease falls on the ____ whereas after the transition nearly all deaths occur in____

A

young; older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

during the period of transition ____ experience the burden from infectious diseases while ___ experience the burden from NCDs

A

children; adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What were the top 3 risk factors for death in 2019?

A
  1. smoking
  2. high blood pressure
  3. high blood sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are diseases of affluence?

A

a way of contrasting NCDs with infectious diseases and under-nutrition that are considered to be diseases of poverty. This is false because NCDs are the primary cause of death globally regardless of income level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True or false: NCDs are only a burden in adult populations in high income countries?

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are chronic respiratory diseases?

A

Diseases of the airway, bronchioles, and lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are examples of chronic respiratory diseases? (hint there are 7 of them)

A
  1. asthma
  2. COPD
  3. lungs diseases associated with occupational exposures
  4. sleep apnea
  5. pulmonary hypertension
  6. bronchial taluses
  7. interstitial lung diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Is cancer included as a chronic respiratory disease?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is asthma?

A

a chronic but reversible inflammation of the airways that causes wheezing, especially when exhaling, coughing, chest tightness, and shortness of breath due to thickening of the airway wall and bronchial spasms that narrow the diameter of the bronchi and bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are asthma symptoms usually managed?

A

With inhaled corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can one reduce symptom severity with asthma?

A
  • avoid cold air

- avoid environmental triggers such as air pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How many people worldwide have asthma?

A

More than 300 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which age group has the highest prevalence of asthma?

A

18-34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is COPD?

A

a chronic, progressive disease that limits airflow and causes shortness of breath and productive coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two most common presentations of COPD?

A
  • emphysema

- chronic bronchitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is bronchitis?

A

a consistent productive cough caused by progressive thickening and narrowing of the airways that occurs as inflammation and excess mucus blocks breathing passages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is emphysema?

A

the alveoli lose elasticity and become destroyed. irreversible process that reduces surface area available for oxygen intake and the release of CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

is damage to airways and lungs full reversible with therapies for COPD patients?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many adults worldwide have COPD/

A

170 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for COPD?

A

Tobacco smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What age group is most affected by COPD?

A

65+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is pneumoconiosis?

A

a restrictive lung disease caused by exposure to various types of occupational hazards?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Obstructive diseases like asthma and COPD make it difficult for a person to do what?

A

exhale all the air in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are examples of obstructive lung diseases?

A
  • asthma

- copd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is an example of a restrictive lung disease?

A

pneumoconiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do restrictive lung diseases make it difficult to do?

A

to fully fill the lungs with air when they exhale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

restrictive and obstructive lung diseases both cause what?

A

shortness of breath with exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the most common cause of pneumoconiosis?

A

silicosis caused by inhalation of silica dust by minors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some other forms of pneumonocosis?

A

black lung disease and asbestosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

is pneumoconiosis a major cause of global mortality?

A

no because it can be prevented with PPE use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does smoking do?

A
  • damages cells
  • alters blood chemistry
  • stresses the cardiovascular system
  • destroys cilia that clear mucus
  • interferes with respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

true or false? People who smoke or are exposed to second hand smoke sustain damage to every body system?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Smoking increases the risk of what in adults and what in children?

A

in adults: CVD, stroke, lung cancer

in children: Respiratory illnesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Has the death rate in Canada from smoking increased or decreased since the 1990s?

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Has the percentage of people who smoke globally increased or decreased?

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what helped reduced global tobacco smoking?

A

2005 FCTC which was a framework convention on tobacco control with the goal of reducing global prevalence of tobacco use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many smokers are there worldwide?

A

900 million including 1 in 3 men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which sex is smoking more common among?

A

Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

number of daily smokers is ____ while percentage of adults who smoke is _____

A

increasing; decreasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe the dose-response relationship between tobacco and health problems

A

heavier consumption of tobacco is associated with steadily worsening health outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

smoking is least common in what age group?

A

12-17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

among both sexes, number of daily smokers has ___ between 2015-2019

A

decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe Type 1 diabetes

A
  • occurs when the body does not produce enough insulin
  • childhood onset
  • people diagnosed are rarely overweight
  • previously called juvenile or insulin dependent diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is insulin?

A

a hormone produced by the pancreas that helps the body maintain a consistent level of glucose or sugars in the blood stream so the cells have a consistent supply of energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is type 2 diabetes?

A

occurs when the body develops insulin resistance and stops responding appropriately to insulin

  • adult onset
  • not insulin dependent
  • gradual
  • preventable
  • people are usually overweight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are gestational diabetes?

A

elevated blood sugar first diagnosed during pregnancy.

-typically resolves after delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

people who have elevated glucose levels who are not at the threshold for type 2 diabetes may be classified as having what?

A

pre diabetes such as impaired glucose tolerance or impaired fasting glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the symptoms of gestational diabetes?

A

excessive thirst, frequent urination, unexplained weight loss, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Between 1980 and 2015, global diabetes prevalence ___ from __ to ___

A

doubled; 4.7% to 8.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the prevalence of diabetes is only rising in high income countries? true or false

A

False. It is rising in all income levels because obesity and other risk factors are becoming more prevalent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

___ of adults with type 2 diabetes do not know they have it which can lead to preventable complications

A

half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What made diabetes go up?

A

liquid sugar, obesity and subsequent diabetes rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Obesity prevalence is expected to be what by 2040?

A

10.4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

number of adults worldwide with diabetes went from ___ in 1982 to ___ in 2015

A

110 million; 420 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the goal of diabetes management?

A

stop blood sugars levels from becoming too high (hyperglycaemia) or too low (hypoglycaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Failure to maintain blood sugar levels can cause complications including

A

-blindness, heart diseases, kidney failure, nerve damage, and foot ulcers leading to amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

People with type 1 diabetes require insulin injections to maintain safe blood sugar levels to avoid what?

A

ketoacidosis that can lead to seizures, coma, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how is type 2 diabetes managed?

A

through lifestyle changes such as. weight loss, diet, and oral medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What age group has the highest diabetes prevalence?

A

65+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the role of the kidneys?

A

filter toxins from the blood, maintain fluid and electrolyte levels, help control blood pressure, produce red blood cells, and support bone health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

when does kidney failure happen?

A

when kidneys are not functioning well enough for health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the two tests that can indicate decreased renal function?

A
  1. glomerular filtration rate: a measure of blood filtration efficiency determined by blood creatine levels
  2. albuminuria: presence of protein albumin in the urine is a sign of kidney damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is chronic kidney disease?

A

a progressive loss of kidney function characterized by reduced glomerular filtration rate or increased urinary albumin levels

66
Q

Early stage of CKD are usually?

A

asymptomatic

67
Q

CKD symptoms include what?

A

fatigue, itching, constipation, loss of appetite, pain, difficulty sleeping, anxiety

68
Q

what is dialysis?

A

using a machine to filter the blood

69
Q

what are the two types of renal replacement therapy for people with end stage renal disease?

A
  1. dialysis

2. kidney transplants

70
Q

___ is a concurrent requirement for kidney patients

A

cardiologic care

71
Q

How many of the worlds adults are thought to have kidney disease?

A

10% or 300 million

72
Q

Number of Canadians receiving dialysis ___ over the last 20 years

A

doubled

73
Q

How many Canadians have CKD?

A

between 1.3 to 2.9 million based on the prevalence of end stage renal disease

74
Q

Most patients with kidney failure are on ___ but the balance is slowly shifting to ____

A

dialysis; transplant

75
Q

kidney transplants before dialysis have

A

increased

76
Q

what are the two most common causes of CKD worldwide?

A
  1. diabetes

2. hypertension

77
Q

are most CKD hereditable?

A

No

78
Q

what is an example of a hereditable CKD?

A

polycystic kidney disease

79
Q

Is there a cure for CKD?

A

NO

80
Q

How is CKD managed?

A

-medications, smoking cessation, low sodium diet, management of comorbidities like hypertension

81
Q

Liver and digestive diseases, excluding cancer, are responsible for what percentage of global deaths?

A

4.5%

82
Q

what is the role of the liver?

A

create proteins that allow the blood to clot, filters toxins out of the blood, and stores and releases glucose and lipids into the blood

83
Q

what is the most common serious liver disorder?

A

cirrhosis

84
Q

what is cirrhosis?

A

irreversible scarring of the liver that over time blocks the flow of blood through the liver and prevents the liver from functioning properly

85
Q

As the liver becomes more scarred, what may happen?

A

fluid builds up in the legs called edema and the abdomen may swell called conditional assits
-may damage kidney, spleen, lungs, and other organs and increase liver cancer risk

86
Q

the only cure for liver disease is?

A

transplant

87
Q

what are the most common causes of cirrhosis?

A

Hep-B, Hep-C, alcohol abuse

88
Q

nearly twice as many ___ than ___ die from cirrhosis, largely because of alcohol abuse

A

men; women

89
Q

how many people have cirrhosis worldwide and how many people die from it

A

2.8 million; 1.3 million

90
Q

what is peptic ulcer disease?

A

a painful wound in the lining of the stomach

-wound may perfrate and cause fatal hemorrhage

91
Q

what is gastritis and duodenitis?

A

painful inflammations of the stomach and small intestine

92
Q

what is pancreatits?

A

painful inflammation of the pancreas that can cause multiple organ failure, shock, and death

93
Q

what are examples of inflammatory bowel diseases?

A
  • Crohn’s

- ulcerative colitis

94
Q

how many people die each year because they lack access to emergency surgery for digestive diseases?

A

150,000

95
Q

what is appendicitis?

A

an inflammation of the appendix that can perforate or rupture and cause parotitis, sepsis, and death

96
Q

what do intestinal obstructions do?

A

prevent waste through intestine and out of the blood and cause bowel rupture, sepsis, and death

97
Q

what is a bowel hernia?

A

part of the intestine passes through the wall of the abdomen muscles causing pain and possibly cutting off blood supply to part of the intestine

98
Q

What do gallstones do?

A

block the bile ducts and can cause pain and jaundice

99
Q

what two digestive diseases are in the top 10 for causes of death?

A
  • chronic liver disease

- cirrhosis

100
Q

what are neurological disorders?

A

dysfunctions of the nervous system

-responsible for 5% of years lived with disability

101
Q

what are examples of diseases that affect the NS?

A

epilepsy, migraines, headache disorders, MS, Parkinson’s, dementia, chronic brain injuries, ALS

102
Q

what are the effects of neurological disorders?

A

paralysis, weakness, mobility limitations, cognitive impairment, behaviour problems, difficulty with communication and ADL

103
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

a chronic seizure disorder characterized by episodes of excessive and abnormal electrical activity in the brain

104
Q

some cases of epilepsy are attributable to what?

A

head trauma and brain injury

105
Q

prevalence of epilepsy is highest in what age group?

A

adults

106
Q

incidence rate for epilepsy is higher in what age group?

A

children

107
Q

people with epilepsy are 8x more likely to report what?

A

incontinence because of the impact of seizures on autonomic function

108
Q

what conditions are reported alongside epilepsy?

A

migraines, brain injury, stroke

109
Q

people with epilepsy are more than twice as likely to also have what?

A

a mood disorder

110
Q

how are epilepsy and psychiatric disorder bidirectional?

A

at an increased risk for psychiatric disorder if you have epilepsy; at an increased risk for epilepsy if you have a psychiatric disorder

111
Q

migraines are more likely among what sex?

A

Women

112
Q

what is Parkinson’s disease?

A

a chronic, progressive neurodegerative disorder characterized by motor symptoms

113
Q

what helps manage parkinson’s disease symptoms?

A

a chemical prescursor of the neurotransmitter dopamine called L-DOPA or levodopa

114
Q

what are the symptoms of parkinson’s disease?

A

rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors when resting, problems with gait, balance, and postural stability, stiffness in arms or legs, slower movement

115
Q

what is MS?

A

a chronic, progressive disease that cause inflammatory demylenation of the sheaths of nerve cells in the CNS

116
Q

MS is characterized by periods of symptoms such as?

A

vision disturbances, bladder or bowel control problems, pain, fatigue, walking difficulties, hand coordination problems, memory issues, confusion, followed my periods of partially or fully recovered function

117
Q

what does the immune system do in MS patients?

A

attacks myelin which disrupts communication between CNS and other parts of the body

118
Q

First symptoms for MS usually occur at what age?

A

30

119
Q

what is myelin?

A

an insulating material that helps speed up the transmission of signals between nerves

120
Q

what directs every function of the body?

A

genes

121
Q

what is a chromosomal disorder?

A

an extra or missing part of a chromosome

122
Q

What is Turner syndrome?

A

missing one sex chromosome (have 45 instead of 46)

123
Q

most genes have how many alleles?

A

2

124
Q

what is a monogenic disorder?

A

the result of a child inheriting a single disease causing gene from one or both parents

125
Q

what is an allele?

A

a version of a gene

126
Q

what is a genotype?

A

a set of alleles a person inherits for a particular gene

127
Q

what is the difference between homozygous and heterozygous

A

with homozygous an individuals has inherited 2 identical copies of a gene; with heterozygous an individual has inherited two different alleles for the gene

128
Q

what is a gene

A

sequences of nucleic acids that are part of the chromosomes found in the nucleus

129
Q

what are epigenetics?

A

the differential expression of the genetic code through activation or inactivation of genes

130
Q

what is a phenotype?

A

the way a particular set of alleles is expressed in physical appearance

131
Q

what is an examples of an autosomal dominant genetic disorder?

A

Huntington’s Disease

132
Q

What is an example of a recessive genetic disorder?

A

cystic fibrosis

133
Q

what are two examples of autosomal recessive blood disorders that cause hemolytic anemia due to the breakdown of red blood cells?

A
  • thalassemia

- sickle cell disease

134
Q

what are two other examples of genetic blood disorders?

A

hemophilia and G6PD

135
Q

thalassemia is characterized by what?

A

impaired production of hemoglobin

136
Q

what is the cure for thalassemia?

A

bone marrow transplant

137
Q

where is thalassemia most present?

A

African, the Med, and Asia

138
Q

what is sickle cell disease?

A

a genetic disorder that causes hemoglobin to be malformed

-blood cells look like crescents instead of donuts

139
Q

musculoskeletal disorders include what

A

problems of the muscles, bones, tendons, ligaments, and joints

140
Q

what are the two most common causes of YLD worldwide?

A

low back and neck pain

141
Q

what is arthritis?

A

joint inflammation that often causes swelling and pain

142
Q

what is osteoarthritis?

A

a degenerative disease that slowly causes loss of cartilage in the joints causing pain, stiffness, and disability

143
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A

a chronic inflammatory disease that damages cartilage and bones in many joints

144
Q

what are the most common joints affected with OA and what are the most prominent risk factors?

A
  • knees, hips, and hands

- age, obesity, and history of traumatic joint injuries

145
Q

which of the arthritis’s is an autoimmune disorder?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

146
Q

what is osteoporosis?

A

a loss of bone density that significantly increases the risk of fractures of the hip, vertebrae, and other bones in older adults, especially women

147
Q

what is gout?

A

a painful swelling on a joint, usually at the base of the big toe, due to elevated levels of uric acid in the blood

148
Q

what is recommended to manage gout?

A

reduce sodium in the diet to relieve pain, swelling, and uric acid levels

149
Q

about 40% of all vision impairment is due to what?

A

refractive errors

150
Q

what are examples of refractive errors?

A

extreme nearsightedness (myopia), farsightedness (prebyopia), or astigmatism

151
Q

what is low vision?

A

vision is 20/60 meaning a person would need to be within 20 feet of an object to see it as clearly as a person who sees the object from 60 feet away

152
Q

what is blindness?

A

having no light perception no better than 20/400

153
Q

___ is responsible for more than one in three cases of blindness worldwide

A

cataracts

154
Q

what are cataracts?

A

cloudiness over the lense of the eye. surgery replaces the lens with a clear or artifical lens

155
Q

what causes glaucoma?

A

damage to the optic nerve

  • could be caused because of pressure or excess fluid buildup
  • loss of peripheral side vision occurs because of pressure
156
Q

what is the most common form of glaucoma in Canada?

A

open-angle glaucoma

157
Q

when does macular degeneration occur?

A

when a portion of the retina deteriorates and causes loss of central vision

158
Q

what is the retina?

A

tissue in the back of the eye that receives images and sends it to the brain via the optic nerve

159
Q

which eye disease affects vision the worst?

A

macular degenration

160
Q

are men or women more likely to have hearing loss?

A

men

Non-Communicable Diseases (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions