Week 3: Articles Flashcards

1
Q

Why is dementia considered a major global health challenge in the 21st century?

A

Due to its rising prevalence, high disability and dependence burden, and lack of curative treatments.

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2
Q

What is currently the main approach to addressing dementia given the lack of a cure?

A

Focus on prevention, risk reduction, and early detection.

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3
Q

What are some modifiable risk factors for dementia?

A

Lower education, hypertension, obesity, hearing loss, depression, diabetes, inactivity, smoking, social isolation.

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4
Q

How does education in early life impact dementia risk?

A

It builds cognitive reserve, reducing vulnerability to dementia.

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5
Q

Which risk factors are critical to manage in midlife for dementia prevention?

A

Hypertension, obesity, and hearing loss.

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6
Q

Which behaviors should be addressed in later life to reduce dementia risk?

A

Depression, diabetes, sedentary lifestyle, smoking, and social disengagement.

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7
Q

What public health approach is recommended for dementia prevention?

A

Multisectoral policies and lifespan interventions integrated with non-communicable disease efforts.

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8
Q

Why is there interest in detecting Alzheimer’s disease in its preclinical phase?

A

To enable prevention trials, risk stratification, and targeted interventions.

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9
Q

What are common biomarkers used in detecting preclinical Alzheimer’s?

A

Amyloid PET imaging and cerebrospinal fluid analysis.

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10
Q

What are some challenges with using biomarkers for preclinical AD diagnosis?

A

Imperfect prediction, not all progress to dementia, ethical issues with disclosure.

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11
Q

What is mild cognitive impairment (MCI)?

A

Cognitive decline greater than expected for age, not yet interfering with daily activities.

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12
Q

What is the relationship between MCI and Alzheimer’s disease?

A

MCI is often a transitional state, especially amnestic MCI, which more likely progresses to AD.

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13
Q

What is the clinical trajectory of MCI?

A

Variable: may remain stable, revert to normal, or progress to dementia.

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14
Q

How is MCI classified?

A

Amnestic and non-amnestic, based on the primary cognitive domain affected.

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15
Q

What makes diagnosing MCI challenging?

A

Similar presentations to normal aging, psychiatric conditions, and early dementia.

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16
Q

How is dementia diagnosed?

A

Through clinical history, informant input, cognitive testing, and functional evaluation.

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17
Q

Why is physical and neurological examination important in diagnosing dementia?

A

To identify reversible causes and coexisting medical conditions.

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18
Q

What role does neuroimaging play in dementia diagnosis?

A

Excludes structural abnormalities and identifies patterns of different dementia syndromes.

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19
Q

Which imaging techniques are typically used in dementia diagnosis?

A

MRI and CT scans.

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20
Q

Why are laboratory tests used in dementia diagnosis?

A

To screen for metabolic, infectious, or inflammatory contributors.

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21
Q

How does Alzheimer’s disease typically present?

A

With episodic memory impairment.

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22
Q

What is the symptom pattern of vascular dementia?

A

Stepwise progression and focal neurological signs.

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23
Q

What are early symptoms of frontotemporal dementia?

A

Behavioral changes or language impairment.

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24
Q

What characterizes dementia with Lewy bodies?

A

Visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and cognitive fluctuations.

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25
Q

Why must dementia diagnosis be done with care?

A

It has significant implications for the patient and family.

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26
Q

What should follow a dementia diagnosis?

A

Clear communication, supportive counselling, and future care planning.

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27
Q

What are nonmotor fluctuations (NMF) in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Fluctuating nonmotor symptoms such as mood, autonomic, and sensory changes in sync with dopaminergic therapy.

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28
Q

Why are NMF often under-recognized?

A

Due to their subjective nature, patient unawareness, and lack of specific assessment tools.

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29
Q

How are NMF typically related to dopaminergic therapy?

A

They often fluctuate with ON/OFF periods of dopaminergic medication.

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30
Q

What is the range of NMF prevalence in Parkinson’s patients?

A

Prevalence varies widely, from 17% to 100%.

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31
Q

Which nonmotor symptoms are most common during the OFF state?

A

Apathy, anxiety, fatigue, and bradyphrenia.

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32
Q

Do NMF always correlate with motor fluctuations (MF)?

A

No, some patients may experience NMF in isolation.

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33
Q

What neural circuits are implicated in NMF?

A

Mesocorticolimbic and autonomic circuits.

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34
Q

What role does dopamine play in NMF?

A

Both dopamine depletion and overstimulation can cause NMF.

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35
Q

What is gamma synchrony associated with in PD?

A

Psychosis or euphoria symptoms.

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36
Q

What symptoms are seen during the ON state of neuropsychiatric NMF?

A

Euphoria, impulsivity, and hyperactivity.

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37
Q

What are impulse control disorders (ICDs) linked to?

A

Overstimulation of dopamine D3 receptors in limbic areas.

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38
Q

What evidence supports mesolimbic denervation’s role in NMF?

A

Neuroimaging and pathological studies highlight mesolimbic involvement.

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39
Q

What are common autonomic NMF symptoms?

A

Sweating, urinary urgency, constipation, and orthostatic hypotension.

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40
Q

Which state (ON or OFF) are autonomic NMF symptoms more likely to occur?

A

During the OFF state.

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41
Q

What mechanisms may cause autonomic NMF?

A

Disruption in the central autonomic network and peripheral dysfunction.

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42
Q

How common are pain and sensory symptoms in PD patients?

A

Up to 65% of PD patients.

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43
Q

Which mechanisms may explain sensory NMF?

A

Peripheral rigidity/dystonia and central dopamine-related sensory processing issues.

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44
Q

What is the NOMOFA scale used for?

A

To assess nonmotor fluctuations in PD.

45
Q

How does NOMOFA compare to other NMF assessment tools?

A

It is the only scale specifically designed for NMF but remains unvalidated.

46
Q

What is the first-line treatment strategy for NMF?

A

Optimizing dopaminergic therapy (e.g., dose fractionation, long-acting formulations).

47
Q

What role does CBT play in managing NMF?

A

It is effective in managing ICDs and depression in PD.

48
Q

What are examples of second-line treatments for NMF?

A

Apomorphine infusion, LCIG, and STN-DBS.

49
Q

What are the risks of apomorphine infusion?

A

Compulsive use or addiction-like behaviors.

50
Q

What does LCIG therapy offer to PD patients with NMF?

A

More stable L-dopa levels and symptom improvement.

51
Q

How can STN-DBS affect NMF symptoms?

A

Improves motor/sensory symptoms but may increase apathy.

52
Q

Why is increased awareness of NMF important for PD care?

A

They significantly affect quality of life and are currently under-assessed and under-treated.

53
Q

What genetic mutation causes Huntington’s disease (HD)?

A

A CAG repeat expansion in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4.

54
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Huntington’s disease?

A

Autosomal dominant with full penetrance.

55
Q

When do Huntington’s disease symptoms typically appear?

A

Around age 40, but onset can range from juvenile to late onset.

56
Q

What are the three primary symptom domains of Huntington’s disease?

A

Motor, cognitive, and neuropsychiatric.

57
Q

What brain regions are primarily affected in HD?

A

The neostriatum, including the caudate nucleus and putamen.

58
Q

What is the hallmark motor symptom of HD?

A

Chorea—dance-like, irregular involuntary movements.

59
Q

What cognitive feature often appears first in HD?

A

Psychomotor slowing, evident on timed tasks like Stroop and Digit Symbol.

60
Q

What executive dysfunctions are common in HD?

A

Impaired planning, organization, set-shifting, and verbal fluency.

61
Q

How does memory impairment manifest in HD?

A

Impaired recall, preserved recognition, and deficits in procedural memory.

62
Q

What emotional recognition deficits occur early in HD?

A

Difficulty recognizing disgust, anger, and fear.

63
Q

Which cognitive domains remain relatively spared in early HD?

A

Language, gnosis, and praxis in classical terms.

64
Q

What are the most common neuropsychiatric symptoms in HD?

A

Apathy, irritability, and depression.

65
Q

What is the role of neuropsychological assessment in HD?

A

To detect early cognitive changes, track progression, and assess interventions.

66
Q

Which neuropsychological tests are most sensitive in HD?

A

Symbol-Digit Modalities and Stroop test.

67
Q

What does imaging reveal in pre-manifest HD?

A

Striatal atrophy and compensatory cortical activity.

68
Q

How is HD diagnosed definitively?

A

Through genetic testing for CAG repeat expansion.

69
Q

What are effective pharmacological treatments for HD symptoms?

A

Tetrabenazine for chorea and SSRIs for irritability.

70
Q

What non-pharmacological treatments show promise in HD?

A

Cognitive interventions, assistive technologies, and behavioral strategies.

71
Q

Why are informant reports important in HD assessment?

A

They provide context on symptoms that patients may underreport, such as apathy.

72
Q

What areas of the brain show compensatory activity in early HD?

A

Cortical areas, as shown by functional imaging studies.

73
Q

What are the three leading environmental risk factors for MS?

A

Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infection, vitamin D deficiency, and cigarette smoking.

74
Q

What genetic allele is significantly associated with increased MS risk?

A

HLA-DRB1*1501 allele.

75
Q

Why is MS considered to have a strong environmental component?

A

Because 80–90% of MS cases have no family history.

76
Q

What does the high concordance in monozygotic vs dizygotic twins indicate about MS?

A

It shows a genetic component, but not sufficient alone to cause MS.

77
Q

How does migration affect MS risk?

A

Moving from high- to low-risk areas before adolescence reduces MS risk.

78
Q

What virus is nearly universally found in MS patients?

A

Epstein–Barr virus (EBV).

79
Q

How does EBV infection influence MS risk?

A

People who develop infectious mononucleosis have a 2–3 times higher risk of MS.

80
Q

What EBV antibody is strongly associated with later MS development?

A

Anti-EBNA1 antibodies.

81
Q

What is the proposed mechanism linking EBV to MS?

A

By activating autoreactive B and T cells, possibly through molecular mimicry.

82
Q

How does vitamin D status relate to MS risk?

A

Higher vitamin D levels are associated with reduced MS risk.

83
Q

What blood level of 25(OH)D is associated with the lowest MS risk?

A

Above 99 nmol/L.

84
Q

What are the immunological effects of vitamin D relevant to MS?

A

It promotes regulatory T cells and suppresses proinflammatory cytokines.

85
Q

How does smoking affect MS risk?

A

It increases risk by ~50%, especially in men.

86
Q

Why is inhalation critical in smoking-related MS risk?

A

Because smokeless tobacco does not increase MS risk.

87
Q

How does smoking contribute to MS pathogenesis?

A

By causing immune dysregulation, oxidative stress, and damaging the blood–brain barrier.

88
Q

What effect has smoking had on the female:male MS ratio?

A

Rising smoking prevalence may partly explain the increase in female MS cases.

89
Q

What happens to MS risk when high anti-EBNA, low vitamin D, and smoking are combined?

A

The individual’s MS risk can increase more than 200-fold.

90
Q

What are realistic public health strategies for MS prevention?

A

Vitamin D supplementation and smoking cessation.

91
Q

Is an EBV vaccine currently available for MS prevention?

A

No, but it is a focus of ongoing research.

92
Q

Why are longitudinal studies important in MS research?

A

They help identify risk factors and evaluate interventions over time.

93
Q

What is FASD and what causes it?

A

Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD) are neurodevelopmental conditions caused by prenatal alcohol exposure.

94
Q

What are executive functions (EF)?

A

Executive functions include inhibition, working memory, cognitive flexibility, planning, and goal-directed behavior.

95
Q

What EF impairments are common in children with FASD?

A

Children with FASD often show deficits in inhibitory control, mental flexibility, planning, and working memory.

96
Q

How do EF profiles in FASD differ from ADHD?

A

FASD shows greater impairments in planning and working memory; ADHD shows more pronounced inhibition deficits.

97
Q

What tasks reveal inhibition deficits in FASD?

A

Go/no-go paradigms and the Stroop test.

98
Q

How is working memory affected in FASD?

A

Both verbal and visuospatial working memory are impaired, impacting learning and problem-solving.

99
Q

What EF task shows cognitive flexibility issues in FASD?

A

Wisconsin Card Sorting Test.

100
Q

What challenges arise from planning deficits in FASD?

A

Difficulties in task initiation, time management, and completing multi-step activities.

101
Q

What brain regions show abnormalities in FASD?

A

Prefrontal cortex, cerebellum, basal ganglia, and frontostriatal white matter pathways.

102
Q

What does fMRI reveal about EF in FASD?

A

Hypoactivation in prefrontal networks during EF tasks.

103
Q

How can EF patterns assist in differential diagnosis?

A

Broad and severe EF impairments in FASD can help distinguish it from ADHD, especially without physical dysmorphology.

104
Q

Why is early EF screening important?

A

It helps in identifying at-risk individuals and informing timely interventions.

105
Q

What should clinical assessment of FASD include?

A

Comprehensive neuropsychological evaluation focusing on EF.

106
Q

What interventions are recommended for FASD?

A

EF training, behavioral support, and individualized education plans.

107
Q

What awareness is needed for effective FASD support?

A

Clinicians, educators, and caregivers must understand EF vulnerabilities in FASD.

108
Q

What is the conclusion regarding EF deficits in FASD?

A

They are broad, enduring, and significantly impact daily functioning, making targeted assessments and interventions essential.