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PSYC100 > Week 23: Social Thinking and People in Groups > Flashcards

Week 23: Social Thinking and People in Groups Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of social psychology?

A

The scientific study of how individuals think, feel, and behave in social contexts.

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2
Q

Who is often referred to as ‘the father of social psychology’?

A

Kurt Lewin

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3
Q

What equation did Kurt Lewin formulate regarding behavior?

A

Behavior = f (person, social situation)

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4
Q

What significant social psychology experiments were conducted before 1900?

A

The earliest social psychology experiments on group behavior.

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5
Q

What did the studies by Sherif and Asch demonstrate?

A

The importance of conformity pressures in social groups.

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6
Q

What was the focus of Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies?

A

How authority figures can lead individuals to commit harmful acts.

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7
Q

What does social influence refer to?

A

The process through which other people change our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Social psychology primarily studies the _______ between individuals and their social situations.

A

dynamic relationship

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9
Q

What are social norms?

A

The accepted behaviors within a group or society.

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10
Q

What is social support?

A

The comfort that we receive from the people around us.

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11
Q

True or False: Social situations have a weaker influence on behavior than personality traits.

A

False

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12
Q

What effect does social support have on mental health?

A

It leads to greater happiness and fewer psychological problems.

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13
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory?

A

A theory that describes the discomfort experienced when holding conflicting beliefs or behaviors.

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14
Q

List some key figures in social psychology who focused on group behavior.

A
  • Irving Janis
  • Philip Zimbardo
  • John Darley
  • Bibb Latané
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15
Q

What is the relationship between social support and physical health?

A

People with social support have better physical health outcomes.

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16
Q

What happens to individuals who experience social exclusion?

A

They feel pain, frustration, and lower self-esteem.

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: The studies of social psychology have influenced decisions in areas such as _______.

A

law, education, and public policy

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18
Q

What does the term ‘social cognition’ refer to?

A

How knowledge about social worlds develops through experience.

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19
Q

What was the focus of Leonard Berkowitz’s research?

A

The study of human aggression.

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20
Q

What is the significance of the 1954 Brown v. Board of Education case?

A

It helped end racial segregation in U.S. public schools.

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21
Q

What are the psychological effects of a happy marriage?

A

It serves as an excellent form of social support.

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22
Q

True or False: Ostracism has no significant psychological impact on individuals.

A

False

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23
Q

What is the primary goal of effective psychotherapy regarding social support?

A

To help people generate better social support networks.

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24
Q

What did Zimbardo’s prison experiment demonstrate?

A

The powerful role of social situations on human behavior.

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25
Q

What can lead people to commit extreme acts, such as those in cults?

A

The influence of the social situation rather than individual characteristics.

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26
Q

What is ostracism?

A

Withholding social communication and interaction as a punishment

Ostracism can lead to feelings of loneliness, frustration, sadness, and lower self-esteem.

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27
Q

What are the benefits of developing a stable support network?

A

Improves personal well-being and benefits friends

Social support networks provide emotional and practical resources.

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28
Q

What is social influence?

A

The process through which other people change our thoughts, feelings, and behaviors

This can occur passively or actively.

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29
Q

What are social norms?

A

Shared ways of thinking, feeling, or behaving perceived as appropriate by group members

Norms encompass customs, traditions, and values.

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30
Q

How do social norms influence behavior?

A

They dictate what people actually do and what they should or shouldn’t do

Examples include eating habits and moral guidelines.

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31
Q

What defines a culture?

A

A group of people sharing common social norms, values, and beliefs

Culture affects thoughts, feelings, and behaviors.

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32
Q

What is the difference between individualistic and collectivistic cultures?

A

Individualistic cultures focus on self-enhancement and independence, while collectivistic cultures emphasize interdependence and group harmony

Examples include Western vs. East Asian cultures.

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33
Q

What characterizes Western cultures in terms of social norms?

A

Emphasis on individualism, personal success, and self-concern

Individuals often base their self-worth on personal achievements.

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34
Q

What characterizes East Asian cultures in terms of social norms?

A

Focus on collectivism, group harmony, and responsibility to family

Individuals prioritize the interests of others over personal accomplishments.

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35
Q

True or False: Cultures have no impact on how individuals perceive personal space.

A

False

Different cultures have varying norms regarding personal space.

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36
Q

What is social cognition?

A

The study of how people think about the social world

It encompasses perceptions, interpretations, and judgments of social interactions.

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37
Q

What is the person-situation interaction?

A

The joint influence of person variables and situational variables on behavior

This concept highlights how context shapes individual actions.

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38
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a belief system that emphasizes duties and obligations toward others.

A

[Collectivism]

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39
Q

Fill in the blank: _______ is a belief system that values freedom, independence, and individual choice.

A

[Individualism]

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40
Q

What is social support?

A

The perception or actuality of having a social network that can provide help in times of need

Social support includes resources like advice, love, and money.

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41
Q

What has been observed regarding the pace of life in different cultures?

A

Fastest in Western countries and slowest in economically undeveloped countries

Differences in pace of life reflect cultural attitudes toward time.

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42
Q

What is the expected demographic change in the U.S. population by 2042?

A

Minorities are expected to become the majority

By 2050, the U.S. is projected to be 54% minority.

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43
Q

Why is it important to understand cultural differences?

A

To navigate interactions in an increasingly diverse society

Awareness can reduce social conflict and enhance cooperation.

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44
Q

What is social neuroscience?

A

The study of how social behavior influences and is influenced by brain activity

It explores the biological basis of social interactions.

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45
Q

What is the definition of attitude in social psychology?

A

A relatively enduring evaluation of something, called the attitude object.

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46
Q

What are the components of attitudes?

A
  • Cognitive
  • Affective
  • Behavioral
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47
Q

What are some examples of attitude objects?

A
  • Person
  • Product
  • Social group
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48
Q

How do attitudes tie to the self-concept?

A

Attitudes express the relationship between the self and an attitude object.

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49
Q

What influences the development of attitudes?

A
  • Genetic transmission
  • Direct experiences
  • Indirect experiences
  • Media interactions
  • Social interactions
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50
Q

What is the heritability of ‘abortion on demand’?

A

0.54

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51
Q

What is the heritability of ‘roller coaster rides’?

A

0.52

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52
Q

What is a strong attitude?

A

An attitude that is important, held with confidence, resistant to change, and frequently guides actions.

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53
Q

What can make attitudes stronger?

A
  • Direct positive/negative experiences
  • Increased cognitive accessibility
  • Consistency among affect, behavior, and cognition
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54
Q

True or False: Attitudes can be assessed using self-report measures.

A

True

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55
Q

What does attitude strength refer to?

A

The importance of an attitude, assessed by how quickly it comes to mind.

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56
Q

What is the role of the amygdala in attitude formation?

A

Important in emotional attitudes, particularly those associated with fear.

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57
Q

How is the relationship between attitudes and behavior generally characterized?

A

There is generally consistency between attitudes and behavior.

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58
Q

What is the principle of attitude consistency?

A

The ABCs of affect, behavior, and cognition are normally in line with each other.

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59
Q

What factors enhance the attitude-behavior relationship?

A
  • Strong attitudes
  • Strong intention to perform the behavior
  • Similar social situations
  • Accessible components of the attitude
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60
Q

Fill in the blank: Attitudes can be assessed using the _______.

A

Implicit Association Test (IAT)

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61
Q

What is the significance of cognitive accessibility in relation to attitudes?

A

It determines the strength of an attitude based on how quickly it is activated.

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62
Q

What type of experiences strengthen attitudes?

A

Direct positive or negative experiences with the attitude object.

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63
Q

What is an example of a weak attitude?

A

Attitudes toward nonsense words such as ‘juvalamu’ and ‘chakaka’.

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64
Q

What happens to attitudes when they are activated with the self-concept?

A

They become stronger.

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65
Q

True or False: The affective component of attitudes is generally the weakest.

A

False

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66
Q

What happens when attitudes are expressed out loud?

A

They become stronger.

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67
Q

How does the theory of planned behavior relate to attitude-behavior consistency?

A

It outlines important variables that affect the relationship between attitude and behavior.

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68
Q

What is the relationship between attitudes and voting behavior in the 2004 presidential elections?

A

Individuals with more positive attitudes toward a candidate were more likely to vote for them

This was observed in the voting behavior of people regarding John Kerry.

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69
Q

Under what conditions do attitudes predict behaviors well?

A

Attitudes predict behaviors well under the following conditions:
* When attitudes are strong
* When there is a strong intention to perform the behavior
* When the attitude and behavior occur in similar social situations
* When the same components of the attitude are accessible during assessment and behavior
* When attitudes are measured at a specific level
* For low self-monitors

This list summarizes factors affecting the attitude-behavior relationship.

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70
Q

What is the definition of ‘attitude’?

A

An enduring evaluation of an attitude object.

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71
Q

What is the significance of strong attitudes?

A

Strong attitudes are held with confidence, change little, and guide actions frequently.

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72
Q

Fill in the blank: When social situations match, there is a greater _________ between attitudes and behaviors.

A

attitude-behavior correlation

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73
Q

True or False: High self-monitors are more likely to have a consistent attitude-behavior relationship.

A

False

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74
Q

What factors influence the consistency between attitudes and behaviors?

A

Factors include the specific measurement of attitudes, social situations, and individual differences like self-monitoring.

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75
Q

What did Wilson and Schooler (1991) find regarding attitudes toward strawberry jams?

A

Attitudes correlated higher with expert ratings when participants did not list their cognitions first.

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76
Q

How does intoxication affect sexual behavior decisions according to MacDonald, Zanna, and Fong (1996)?

A

Intoxicated participants were more likely to indicate they would engage in unprotected sex despite knowing it was irresponsible.

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77
Q

What is the importance of measuring attitudes at a specific level?

A

Specific measurements correlate better with specific behaviors.

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78
Q

List the conditions that make attitudes easier to change through persuasion.

A

Conditions include:
* Effective communicators
* Effective messages
* Understanding recipient motivations

These factors enhance the effectiveness of persuasion.

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79
Q

What is the impact of attractive communicators on persuasion?

A

Attractive communicators are more effective because they create a positive association and improve mood.

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80
Q

How does similarity between the communicator and the recipient affect persuasion?

A

We are more persuaded by communicators who are similar to us in terms of opinions and values.

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81
Q

What is the effect of perceived expertise on the trustworthiness of a communicator?

A

Expert communicators are seen as trustworthy, but may lose credibility if perceived to act in their own self-interest.

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82
Q

Fill in the blank: Persuaders must consider the ________, affective, and behavioral aspects of their methods.

A

cognitive

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83
Q

What role does speed of speech play in persuasion?

A

Faster speech can enhance perceived expertise and reduce listener counterarguments.

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84
Q

True or False: Presenting only one side of an issue can make a communicator appear biased.

A

True

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85
Q

What is self-monitoring?

A

Individual differences in the tendency to attend to social cues and adjust behavior accordingly.

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86
Q

What happens when attitudes are assessed in different cognitive contexts?

A

The attitude-behavior relationship may weaken if the assessment context differs from the behavior context.

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87
Q

What is the sleeper effect?

A

The attitude change that occurs over time when we remember the content of a message but forget its source

This effect occurs when we initially discount a message from an untrustworthy communicator but later change our attitudes towards the content.

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88
Q

What happens when a communicator presents only one side of an issue?

A

They may be seen as biased, attempting to unfairly influence the audience

This can lead informed individuals to distrust the communicator.

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89
Q

What are the two types of message processing?

A
  • Spontaneous processing
  • Thoughtful processing

Spontaneous processing is quick and often affective, while thoughtful processing involves careful cognitive elaboration.

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90
Q

What influences spontaneous message processing?

A

Relatively unimportant characteristics such as likeability or attractiveness of the communicator

Factors like music or visual appeal can also play a significant role.

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91
Q

What is an example of an effective emotional ad?

A

Ads that use humor or show beautiful people enjoying a product

These ads create positive emotional responses that enhance persuasion.

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92
Q

Fill in the blank: Spontaneous processing is likely to be influenced by the _______ of the communicator.

A

[likeability]

93
Q

How do fearful messages affect persuasion?

A

They can be persuasive but may also create anxiety that turns people off

Fearful messages need to provide a way to rectify the fear to be effective.

94
Q

What is thoughtful message processing?

A

A deliberate and careful consideration of a message’s pros and cons

It involves questioning the validity of the communicator and the message.

95
Q

What are the outcomes of thoughtful processing?

A
  • Stronger attitudes
  • Resistance to counterpersuasion

Thoughtful processing leads to more durable attitude change.

96
Q

What factors determine whether a message will be processed thoughtfully or spontaneously?

A
  • Personal relevance
  • Motivation to process the message
  • Ability to understand the message

The complexity of the message can also influence processing type.

97
Q

What role does forewarning play in resisting persuasion?

A

It helps individuals prepare for potential persuasive messages

This allows them to develop responses to influence attempts.

98
Q

True or False: Spontaneous processing occurs when individuals have high personal relevance to the topic.

A

False

High personal relevance typically leads to thoughtful processing.

99
Q

What is the primary goal when presenting messages for thoughtful processing?

A

To create positive cognitions about the attitude object

This involves highlighting positive features of the product while downplaying negatives.

100
Q

What happens when individuals process messages spontaneously?

A

They may accept persuasion based on superficial cues

This includes aspects like the communicator’s attractiveness or the emotional tone of the advertisement.

101
Q

How do strong attitudes affect behavior?

A

They are more difficult to change and more likely to influence actions

Strong attitudes lead to consistent behavior aligned with those attitudes.

102
Q

What is one method to strengthen an attitude?

A

Forewarning individuals about persuasive attempts

This allows them to prepare and strengthen their existing attitudes.

103
Q

What is the definition of attitude?

A

A psychological tendency that is expressed by evaluating a particular entity with some degree of favor or disfavor.

104
Q

What does attitude consistency refer to?

A

For any given attitude object, the ABCs of affect, behavior, and cognition are normally in line with each other.

105
Q

What is an attitude object?

A

A person, a product, or a social group.

106
Q

How is attitude strength assessed?

A

By how quickly it comes to mind.

107
Q

Who are considered expert communicators?

A

Individuals perceived as trustworthy because they know a lot about the product they are selling.

108
Q

Define forewarning in the context of persuasion.

A

Giving people a chance to develop a resistance to persuasion by reminding them that they might someday receive a persuasive message.

109
Q

What is the purpose of inoculation in persuasion?

A

Building up defenses against persuasion by mildly attacking the attitude position.

110
Q

What is psychological reactance?

A

A reaction to people, rules, requirements, or offerings that are perceived to limit freedoms.

111
Q

What do high self-monitors tend to do?

A

Attempt to blend into the social situation in order to be liked.

112
Q

What characterizes low self-monitors?

A

Less likely to attempt to blend into the social situation in order to be liked.

113
Q

What is self-monitoring?

A

Individual differences in the tendency to attend to social cues and to adjust one’s behavior to one’s social environment.

114
Q

What is spontaneous message processing?

A

When we accept a persuasion attempt because we focus on whatever is most obvious or enjoyable.

115
Q

Define subliminal advertising.

A

Occurs when a message is presented to the consumer without the person being aware that a message has been presented.

116
Q

What does the theory of planned behavior suggest?

A

The relationship between attitudes and behavior is stronger in certain situations, for certain people and for certain attitudes.

117
Q

What is the sleeper effect?

A

Attitude change that occurs over time.

118
Q

What is thoughtful message processing?

A

When we carefully consider how the message relates to our own beliefs and goals.

119
Q

Fill in the blank: Forewarning prepares us for _______.

A

[action]

120
Q

True or False: Subliminal advertising has been shown to be highly effective across all demographics.

A

False

121
Q

What can lead to a boomerang effect in persuasion attempts?

A

Feeling that someone is attempting to take away our freedom of choice.

122
Q

What happens when we do not care much about a persuasive topic?

A

We may change our belief before the appeal actually comes.

123
Q

What is the main finding of the meta-analysis conducted by Charles Trappey regarding subliminal advertising?

A

Subliminal advertising had a negligible effect on consumer choice.

124
Q

What is a common indirect advertising technique mentioned?

A

Product placement in media.

125
Q

How can forewarning and inoculation help with attitude change?

A

By increasing attitude strength and reducing subsequent persuasion.

126
Q

What can overshadow the effects of subliminal messages?

A

Previous experience with the product or more salient stimuli.

127
Q

What is the main assumption of the module regarding understanding people?

A

A thorough understanding of people requires a thorough understanding of groups.

128
Q

What are the four key reasons individuals join groups?

A
  • Satisfy the need to belong
  • Gain information and understanding through social comparison
  • Define sense of self and social identity
  • Achieve goals that might elude them alone
129
Q

What is group polarization?

A

The tendency for group discussion to enhance the group’s prevailing attitudes.

130
Q

What is groupthink?

A

A mode of thinking that people engage in when they are deeply involved in a cohesive in-group.

131
Q

What does the sociometer model of self-esteem suggest?

A

Self-esteem is part of a sociometer that monitors people’s relational value in others’ eyes.

132
Q

True or False: Humans have a fundamental need to belong to groups.

A

True

133
Q

What did Norman Triplett’s study on social facilitation find?

A

Individuals perform better in the presence of others when the task is well-learned.

134
Q

What is downward social comparison?

A

Seeking out and comparing oneself to those who are worse off to maintain self-worth.

135
Q

How do groups influence self-esteem according to social identity theory?

A

Assessment of the quality of groups influences collective self-esteem.

136
Q

Fill in the blank: The theory that suggests people join others to evaluate the accuracy of their beliefs is known as _______.

A

[social comparison theory]

137
Q

What are the effects of ostracism according to research?

A
  • Highly stressful
  • Can lead to depression
  • Can lead to confused thinking
  • Can lead to aggression
138
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

The enhancement of an individual’s performance when that person works in the presence of other people.

139
Q

What is the difference between dominant and nondominant responses in social facilitation?

A

Dominant responses are well-learned behaviors, while nondominant responses are novel or complex behaviors.

140
Q

What factors can impede group performance and decision making?

A
  • Groupthink
  • Lack of coordination
  • Social loafing
141
Q

According to evolutionary psychology, why do humans seek group membership?

A

Groups provide advantages that enhance overall fitness and survival.

142
Q

Who proposed the theory of social integration?

A

Moreland

143
Q

What are the consequences of unfulfilled belongingness needs?

A
  • Feelings of unhappiness
  • Feelings of helplessness
  • Feelings of depression
144
Q

What is the primary role of groups in human activities?

A

Groups facilitate working, learning, worshiping, relaxing, playing, and ensuring safety.

145
Q

What physiological responses are triggered by the presence of others?

A
  • Challenge-threat response
  • Evaluation apprehension
146
Q

Fill in the blank: The phenomenon where individuals perform poorly on complex tasks in groups is known as _______.

A

[social interference]

147
Q

What does the term ‘social loafing’ refer to?

A

The tendency for individuals to put forth less effort when working in a group than when working alone.

148
Q

What is social loafing?

A

The tendency for individuals to exert less effort when working collectively than when working alone.

149
Q

Who conducted research on social loafing and coordination losses?

A

Bibb Latané, Kip Williams, and Stephen Harkins (1979).

150
Q

What happens to productivity as group size increases according to Latané et al. (1979)?

A

Productivity drops as group size increases.

151
Q

What is the relationship between group cohesion and performance?

A

Cohesion improves teamwork, but performance quality influences cohesion more than vice versa.

152
Q

What are the five stages of Bruce Tuckman’s group development model?

A
  • Forming
  • Storming
  • Norming
  • Performing
  • Adjourning
153
Q

What occurs during the ‘storming’ phase of group development?

A

Disagreements about procedures and purposes surface, leading to increased conflict.

154
Q

What is group polarization?

A

The phenomenon where group discussion leads to more extreme decisions in the same direction as prior individual judgments.

155
Q

What is the common knowledge effect?

A

Groups tend to focus on common knowledge rather than unshared information, leading to poor decision-making outcomes.

156
Q

What is groupthink?

A

A mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for unanimity in a cohesive group overrides realistic appraisal of alternatives.

157
Q

What are some symptoms of groupthink identified by Irving Janis?

A
  • Overestimating the group’s skills
  • Biased perceptions of outside groups
  • Strong conformity pressures
  • Poor decision-making methods
158
Q

What are the four group-level factors that contribute to groupthink?

A
  • Cohesion
  • Isolation
  • Biased leadership
  • Decisional stress
159
Q

True or False: Groups generally outperform individuals on all tasks.

A

False.

160
Q

Fill in the blank: The relationship between performance at Time 1 and cohesiveness at Time 2 is greater than the relationship between _______ at Time 1 and performance at Time 2.

A

[Cohesion]

161
Q

What must be established for effective teamwork?

A
  • Team goals
  • Structured work patterns
  • A sense of group identity
162
Q

What is the ‘adjourning’ phase in Tuckman’s model?

A

The phase where the group prepares to disband by completing tasks and addressing unresolved issues.

163
Q

What can lead to social loafing in group settings?

A

The presence of other group members who can do the work.

164
Q

What did the research by Paulus & Brown (2007) find regarding brainstorming in groups?

A

Group brainstorming sessions are often less productive than individual idea generation.

165
Q

What is the significance of shared mental representation in teamwork?

A

It helps teams develop a consensus and improves performance over time.

166
Q

Describe the ‘forming’ stage of group development.

A

Members expose information about themselves and explore the group’s purposes.

167
Q

What is a key challenge in group decision-making?

A

Groups can sometimes make poor decisions despite having access to more information.

168
Q

What is groupthink?

A

A set of negative group-level processes, including illusions of invulnerability, self-censorship, and pressures to conform, that occur when highly cohesive groups seek concurrence when making a decision.

169
Q

What are the symptoms of groupthink?

A
  • Illusions of invulnerability
  • Self-censorship
  • Pressures to conform
170
Q

What is group cohesion?

A

The solidarity or unity of a group resulting from the development of strong and mutual interpersonal bonds among members and group-level forces that unify the group, such as shared commitment to group goals.

171
Q

True or False: Groupthink only occurs in non-cohesive groups.

A

False

172
Q

What effect does isolation have on groupthink?

A

Groupthink groups too often work behind closed doors, isolating themselves from outsiders and refusing to modify their beliefs.

173
Q

What role does biased leadership play in groupthink?

A

A biased leader who exerts too much authority can increase conformity pressures and railroad decisions.

174
Q

Fill in the blank: Groupthink becomes more likely when the group is stressed, particularly by _______.

A

[time pressures]

175
Q

What is the common knowledge effect?

A

The tendency for groups to spend more time discussing information that all members know (shared information) and less time examining information that only a few members know (unshared).

176
Q

What is group polarization?

A

The tendency for members of a deliberating group to move to a more extreme position, with the direction of the shift determined by the majority or average of the members’ predeliberation preferences.

177
Q

What is ostracism in a group context?

A

Excluding one or more individuals from a group by reducing or eliminating contact with the person, usually by ignoring, shunning, or explicitly banishing them.

178
Q

What is a shared mental model?

A

Knowledge, expectations, conceptualizations, and other cognitive representations that members of a group have in common pertaining to the group and its members, tasks, procedures, and resources.

179
Q

What is social identity theory?

A

A theoretical analysis of group processes and intergroup relations that assumes groups influence their members’ self-concepts and self-esteem.

180
Q

What is social loafing?

A

The reduction of individual effort exerted when people work in groups compared with when they work alone.

181
Q

What is decisional stress?

A

A condition that makes groupthink more likely, where groups minimize discomfort by quickly choosing a plan of action with little argument or dissension.

182
Q

What precautions can groups take to avoid groupthink?

A
  • Emphasize open inquiry
  • Admit the possibility of failure
  • Require full discussion of pros and cons
  • Appoint devil’s advocates
  • Break the group into small discussion groups
183
Q

What is teamwork?

A

The process by which members of the team combine their knowledge, skills, abilities, and other resources through a coordinated series of actions to produce an outcome.

184
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

Improvement in task performance that occurs when people work in the presence of other people.

185
Q

What is the sociometer model?

A

A conceptual analysis of self-evaluation processes that theorizes self-esteem functions to psychologically monitor one’s degree of inclusion and exclusion in social groups.

186
Q

What is collective self-esteem?

A

Feelings of self-worth that are based on evaluation of relationships with others and membership in social groups.

187
Q

What are the three aspects of bias identified in social psychology?

A

Prejudice, stereotypes, and discrimination

These aspects can occur separately from one another.

188
Q

What type of bias is characterized by emotional reactions?

A

Prejudice

189
Q

What type of bias involves cognitive evaluations?

A

Stereotypes

190
Q

What type of bias relates to behavioral actions?

A

Discrimination

191
Q

What are the characteristics of contemporary biases?

A

Subtle, automatic, ambiguous, and ambivalent

192
Q

What is an example of an old-fashioned bias?

A

Openly expressing hostility towards outgroups

193
Q

Define blatant biases.

A

Conscious beliefs, feelings, and behaviors expressing hostility toward outgroups while favoring one’s own group

194
Q

What does Social Dominance Orientation (SDO) describe?

A

A belief that group hierarchies are inevitable and beneficial for order and stability

195
Q

How do individuals with high SDO typically view group equality?

A

They believe there is no such thing as group equality

196
Q

What personality traits are often associated with high SDO?

A
  • Lower tolerance
  • Lower empathy
  • Lower altruism
  • Lower community orientation
197
Q

What does Right-Wing Authoritarianism (RWA) emphasize?

A

Respect for obedience and authority for group conformity

198
Q

True or False: RWA is limited to conservative beliefs.

A

False

199
Q

What are automatic biases?

A

Unexamined and often unconscious biases resulting in preferential treatment for one’s own group

200
Q

What is the Implicit Association Test (IAT) used to measure?

A

Automatic biases and own-group preferences

201
Q

Fill in the blank: The tendency to favor one’s own group over others is known as _______.

A

Social identity theory

202
Q

What can unconscious biases lead to in social situations?

A

Consequential discrimination and unequal treatment

203
Q

What is the relationship between in-group liking and out-group disliking?

A

Out-group disliking stems from in-group liking

204
Q

What does the term ‘subtle biases’ refer to?

A

Unexamined and often unconscious biases that are still biased and unfair

205
Q

What is the impact of automatic associations on behavior?

A

They can trump explicit values, leading to unintended discriminatory actions

206
Q

What is a common consequence of implicit biases during job interviews?

A

Interviewers may unconsciously act distant and indifferent toward candidates from outgroups

207
Q

What is the tendency to favor one’s own in-group over another’s outgroup called?

A

In-group favoritism

This concept is described by Ig, Bundy, & Flament (1971) and further explained by Brewer & Brown (1998).

208
Q

What does outgroup disliking stem from?

A

In-group liking

This is a result of preferential treatment towards one’s own group.

209
Q

What is the primary reason for two classes of children disliking each other when wanting to play on the same soccer field?

A

Favoritism toward their own group

The dislike originates not from objectionable traits but from competition for resources.

210
Q

What do people often exaggerate to justify preferential treatment of their in-group?

A

Differences between in-group and outgroup

This leads to viewing the outgroup as more similar in personality.

211
Q

What theory explains the categorization of people into groups?

A

Self-categorization theory

Developed by Turner (1975), it emphasizes that people categorize themselves and others into groups.

212
Q

What is aversive racism?

A

A form of bias where individuals do not admit their own racial biases but may exhibit discomfort in interracial interactions

This concept is discussed by Dovidio & Gaertner (2010).

213
Q

True or False: Aversive racism is always explicit and acknowledged by the individual.

A

False

Aversive racism is often unexamined and not intended by the person.

214
Q

What is the Stereotype Content Model?

A

A framework that maps how groups relate to each other based on perceived warmth and competence

Developed by Fiske, Cuddy, & Glick (2007).

215
Q

What are the two dimensions used in the Stereotype Content Model?

A

Warmth and competence

These dimensions help classify groups and predict emotional responses.

216
Q

What emotion is elicited by individuals perceived as warm but incompetent?

A

Paternalism

This reflects a sense of care but also condescension.

217
Q

What is the stereotype associated with individuals perceived as cold and incompetent?

A

Contempt

This reflects a lack of respect and negative judgment towards the group.

218
Q

What stereotype is associated with individuals perceived as warm and competent?

A

Admiration

This reflects respect and positive regard.

219
Q

What is the emotional response to individuals perceived as cold but competent?

A

Envy

This reflects recognition of their abilities paired with resentment.

220
Q

What does the stereotype of the ‘model minority’ imply?

A

High competence but low warmth

This stereotype particularly affects ethnic Asians in the U.S.

221
Q

What is the emotional response associated with individuals perceived as high in warmth but low in competence?

A

Pity

This reflects a condescending view that may limit respect.

222
Q

What is the conclusion regarding prejudice in the 21st century?

A

Prejudice, stereotypes, and discrimination are complex and require sustained effort to eliminate

This is highlighted by the increasing diversity in society.

223
Q

What are automatic biases?

A

Unintended, immediate, and irresistible biases

These biases occur without conscious awareness.

224
Q

What is blatant bias?

A

Conscious beliefs, feelings, and behaviors that openly favor one’s own group

These biases are often hostile.

225
Q

Define discrimination.

A

Behavior that advantages or disadvantages people based on their group membership

This can be both intentional and unintentional.

226
Q

What does the Implicit Association Test (IAT) measure?

A

Relatively automatic biases favoring one’s own group relative to other groups

It reveals subconscious preferences.

227
Q

What is social dominance orientation (SDO)?

A

A belief that group hierarchies are inevitable and beneficial for order and stability

This belief can lead to justification of inequality.

228
Q

What does social identity theory focus on?

A

People categorizing themselves and others into groups while favoring their own group

This theory underscores the importance of group identity.

229
Q

What are subtle biases?

A

Automatic, ambiguous, and ambivalent biases that still have real consequences

They are often difficult to detect.

PSYC100 (13 decks)

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