Week 201 - International Health Flashcards

0
Q

What % of deaths are young people in low income countries?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What % of deaths are young people in high income countries?

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

No of people living beyond 70 years in high income?

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

UFM stands for?

A

Under five mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Biggest cause of death in children under 5?

A

Neonatal causes (37%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pneumonia and diarrhoea combined account for what % of deaths in children under 5?

A

approx 40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

nenatal deaths classified within which time bracket?

A

0-28 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Major cause of neonatal deaths?

A

Prematurity and low birth weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MMR?

A

Maternal mortality ratio - NO. deaths /100,000 live births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Critical interventions for maternal mortality prevention

A

ANC
skilled HW (health worker)
urine dipstick
tape measure (checking fundal height)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you prevent post partum haemorrhage?

A

IV Oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia trx?

A

Mg sulphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Obstructed labour tx?

A

Partograph, instrumental delivery, LSCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Prevention of unsafe abortion?

A

Family planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Poor resources lead to what?

A

Diseases more commonly and inadequately controlled.
Delayed treatment
Secondary complications
Few health staff with limited training and resources have more difficult to solve, Worse outcomes and hugh ecosocial implications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a DALY?

A

Disability adjusted life year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you equate a DALY?

A
DALY = YLL +YLD
(YLL = Years of lost life due to premature mortality)
(YLD = years lost to disability due to injury or illness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When calculating YLL, which life expectancy do we use?

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does wasting mean?

A

Low weight for height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Stunting is what?

A

Low weight AND height for age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the millenium goals?

A

eradicate extreme poverty and huger, universal primary education, gender equaliy and empower women, reduce child mortality, improve maternal health, combat hiv/aids malaria and other diseases, ensure environmental sustainability and develop a global partnership for development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Resources?

A

Lancet global health collections, who health report, unicef the state of the worlds children, who global health risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where could TB present?

A

Lungs, Node, pericardium, abdomen, renal tract, brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

BCG vaccine was come up with by whom?

A

Albert Calmette and Camille Guerin in 1906.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Charles Mantoux did what?
Created a screening test for TB (in 1908)
25
What is a thoracoplasty?
Removed anterior ribs to collapse lung. Very deformed chest wall on one side. Was though to be a treatment for TB.
26
What type of bacteria is M Tuberculosis?
Obligate aerobe - requires oxygen!
27
What is the infective dose of TB?
24 bacilli
28
Is tb capable of intracellular survival?
Yes. Due to Acid fast bacillus coating.
29
What is the most common APC in the lung and how does this cause granulomas?
Macrophages. MHC class 2 --> Helper T cell recruitment --> interferon gamma release causing granulomatous response?
30
What is the difference between atypical mycobacteria and TB?
Atypical are found in the environment. Not usually pathogenic.
31
Is atpical mycobacterium infectious?
NO
32
Does acid fast bacilus ID confirm TB?
NO. Could be atypical.
33
Symptoms of primary TB are what?
VERY non specific. Fever/sweats, chest pain, cough, fatigue and rash.
34
What are signs of Primary tB?
Again, non specific. Erythema nodosum (inflammation of fat causgin painful swellings). Pleural effusion
35
What is Brock's Syndrome?
Right middle lobe collapse secondary to lymphadenopathy Many nodes around orifice of right middle lobe Orifice is slit like. Lymphadenopathy causes compression.
36
What can be associated with TB infection (due to immuno-supression)?
Anti TNF, malignancy, steroids, age, HIV/AIDs, diabetes, chronic renal failure, Chemo, Alcoholism, malnutrition.
37
Symptoms of POst-Primary TB?
``` Fever/Night sweats Cough Weight loss Haemoptisis Dyspnoe Chest pain 1/3 ID'd when seen about unrelated condition. ```
38
Examination findings for TB?
``` Cachexia Clubbin Lymphadenopathy Signs of consolidation/effusion Rails/Wheeze ```
39
Investigations for Tuberculosis?
Staining sputum for Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB) Marker of infectivity (see handout for more info) Gene probe/PCR --> Isolate specific nucleic acid sequences Bronchoscopy Pleural aspiration +/- pleural biopsy
40
Treatment for TB?
Community if possible. Avoid contact with immunocompromised and those < 4 years. If MDRTB --> negative pressure room to prevent spread.
41
Standard trx regime for TB?
@ months 4x drugs, then R + I for 4 months. 90% killed in first two weeks. TB meningitis 12 months therapy and steroids Steroids in certain cases
42
What is a high risk side effect of tB treatment in latent disease?
Hepatitis
43
How do you test for latent disease?
Mantoux Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction Read at 72 hours
44
What is an interferon gamma release assay?
IGRA Whole blood exposed to antigen specific to MC TB (ESAT6 and CFP10) Measure interferon gamma release. Not affected by prior bcg vaccination. Licenced for use post +ve Mantoux.
45
How would you define latent TB?
Clinically well, but positive skin test/IGRA
46
What is miliary TB often misidentified by?
Previous chicken pox infection! Gives miliary shadowing.
47
What is miliary TB?
Disseminated TB. Widespread dissemination of mycobacterium via haematogenous spread. Defined as millet like TB bacilli in the lung. Seen in 1-3% of all TB cases.
48
What is the importance of IL-32 in TB?
Inter leukin 32 is a molecular marker of a host defense networkin human TB. Induces Vit-D dependant antimicrobial peptides cathelicidin and DEFB4.
49
If ever you have a px that is unwell and you can't work out why - consider _____.
TB!
50
SEE HANDOUT FOR HELEN DAY TX OF TB
RIPE See handout
51
Current drugs used for 1st line tx of TB in the UK?
Rifampicin & Isoniazid
52
What is rifafter?
Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrasinamide
53
What is Rifinah?
One of a group of medicines used to treat TB or the lung. Contains isoniazid and Rifampicin.
54
Other than rifampicin, anti TB drugs are specific to what?
Mycobacteria
55
Visual side effects are a consequence of which medications?q
ANTI TB (RIPE)
56
What should be reviewed during TB treatment?
``` L + Renal Visual Overal tolerance Compliance Effectiveness of regime ```
57
Side effects of Izoniazid?
Peripheral neuropathy. Blocks neurotransmitter synthesis (esp GABA)
58
Define Mutualism:
Interaction beneficial to both microbe and man
59
Define Commensalism
Interaction beneficial to microbes, with no hard to man
60
Define parasitism.
Interaction beneficial to microbes, harm to man. I.e. Exogenous pathogens.
61
Define Host:
The organism in or on which the parasite lives and causes harm.
62
Define Definitive host:
The organism in which the adult or sexually mature stage of the parasite lives.
63
Define intermediate host:
The organism in which the parasite lives during a period of devlopment only.
64
Define Zoonosis:
A parasitic disease in which an animal is normally the host - but which also infects man.
65
Endoparasite?
Lives WITHIN another organism
66
Ectoparasite?
Lives ON another living organism
67
Protozoans are _____ ______
Unicellular eukaryotes
68
Arthropods and helminths are examples of ____ ______
Multicellular eukaryotes
69
Protozoa belong within the kingdom _____
Protista.
70
How do amoebas feed?
Phagocytosis, utilising pseudopodia.
71
Give two examples of pathogenic flagellates.
Giardia spp. & Trypanosoma brucei.
72
Give an example of a pathogenic ciliate.
Balantidium coli.
73
Plasmodium and Crptosporidium are examples of what?q
Apicomplexans
74
Which two pathogenic protozoa are the most commonly contracted in the UK?
Cryptosporidiosis and Toxoplasmosis.
75
Helminth parasites can be divided into three groups. What are these?
Nematodes (roundworm) Cestodes (Tapeworms) Trematode (Flukes)
76
What is a vector?
WHO defines as: "organisms that transmit pathogens from infected person or animal to another". The diseases that they transmit are known as vector-borne diseases.
77
How are microbes transmitted to humans? 7 in list.
``` Direct contact Direct to blood Wounds Droplet transmission Water & Food borne Mother to baby Vectors ```
78
What does "obtunded" mean?
Pale hands in dark skinned patients, sign of anaemia.
79
What is the difference between a thick and thin blood film?
More blood to look at in thick film, larger sample, but not as much detail as seen in a thin film.
80
Normal haemoglobin levels in g/dl?
11
81
What is the normal (approx) haematocrit?
45
82
What is the normal platelet count?
150-450
83
Normal white cell count?
5-15 is the range
84
How would you identify a malaria parasite on a blood film?
"Ring shaped" (signet ring shaped) intracellular infection.
85
Symptoms of severe malaria?
``` Rapid development Fever - not universal, intermittent, Headache/irritability Myalgia Abdo pain/D and V ```
86
What is found in tonic water that is used to treat acute Exacerbations of malaria?
Quinine
87
Which new antimalarial treatment is now overtaking quinine?
Artusate (developed from chinese herbal medicine)
88
Malaria transmission occurs in how many countries?
99
89
How many people in the world are at risk of malaria?
3.5 billion
90
How many people contracted malaria in 2010?
200 million approx
91
How many people died from malaria in 2010?
650,000
92
How many of malaria deaths occured in under 5's living in sub saharan africa?
40%
93
Since 2000, Malaria mortality rates have ______ by _____.
Fallen by 20%.
94
Which malaria species claims most lives?
P Falciparum
95
The female species is more deadly than the male. True or false?
TRUE
96
Which malaria treatments are currently in use?
``` Mosquito nets (treated) Indoor spraying with insecticides Chemoprophylaxis ```
97
Artemisinin is found from _____ and ha been in use for ____
Sweet wormwood | More than 2000 years
98
Whats normal Albumin?
32/33+
99
Albumin reflects the synthetic function of which organ?
liver
100
Causes of low albumin (hypoalbuminemia)?
``` Poor nutrition Renal dysfunction liver dysfunction/disease Heart conditions GI - IBS, Lymphoma, side effects, Infections i.e TB. ```
101
Lymphocyte nucleus is equivocal in size to ____
Normal red blood cells
102
Central opacity is ___ in anaemic rbc's
Increased (>1/3)
103
What can give microcytic anaemia?
Chronic disease fe2+ deficiency Thalassemia
104
Serum ferretin reflects ______.
Total body iron.
105
Transferrin is a (not great) marker of what?
Iron levels
106
Ferritin is an _______. this means it goes ___ when you have an infection.
Acute phase protein. | Goes UP
107
Iron deficiency is due to:
Intake Absorbtion Uptake Demand
108
What pH does iron Absorbtion best occur at?
Acidic environment
109
What supp. causes reduced iron absorbtion?
Calcium
110
What does sickle cell and thalassemia have in common?
Inherited disruption of haemoglobin synthesis. Genetic ineritance?
111
Desferrioxamine is an iron chelating compound - how is it administered?
12 hr sub cut infusion
112
Lifespan of an average red cell?
120 days
113
Red cell turnover is how many per second?
3 million
114
Sickls cell is due to a __________ _______ mutation, causing conformational change
Point mutation to beta chain only.
115
Thalassemias are ____ ____.
Abnormalities of either alpha or beta chains. May be point mutation, shift or other.
116
In Thalassaemia, blood film shows rbc's of ______.
Different sizes and shapes - v varied.
117
Haemoglobin c, d, and e are point mutations of which chain?
Beta
118
How do you equate Hb concentration from packed cell volume?
PCV/3 = Hb
119
Haemoglobin F is upregulated by which drug?
Hydroxycarbomide.
120
Define Cultural Competency
The provision of services and care that are respectful of and responsive to the values health beliefs, practices and cultural and linguistic of diverse patients, families and communities. IT may require an adaptation of skills or approach to meet different patients needs (McKimm)
121
Define Ethnicity
A Shared origins or social background. Shared culture and traditions (Gill), Ethnicity is but one element of culture, but within one ethnic group many cultures may exist (Schouten, B C MEeuwesen L)
122
Define Culture
Refers to integrated patterns of human behaviour that include the language, thoughts, communications, actions, customs, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial origin.
123
Cultural competence req's the recognition of the culture of the ___ and the ____
Profession and the institution.
124
What is the mini-ethnography approach, and by whom was it proposed?
Kleinman and benson, 2006 1. ) Ethnic identity 2. ) What is at stake? What does being ill mean to them? 3. )The illness narrative 4. ) Pyschosocial stresses 5. ) Influence of culture on clinical relationship 6. ) Has the approach worked in that case?
125
What is human trafficking?
Modern slavery
126
Human trafficking is the ____ criminal industry in the world.
second largest
127
Global market for slavery is estimated at ________.
32 billion dollars per year.
128
How would you identify someone being sexually exploited?
``` Is a child Is closely guarded by a controlling person Lacks control over schedule No English Physical abuse Emotional trauma ```
129
A person who suffers from epilepsy may qualify for a group 1 driving livence is he or she has been free from Any epileptic attack for ___.
1 year.
129
A person who suffers an epileptic attack whilst asleep must refrain driving for __ from the date of the attack., unless they have had an attack whilst asleep more than ____ years ago and have not had any awake attacks since that attack.
1 year | 3 years
129
A person may qualify for a group 1 driving licence provided he or she has estblished, over a course of ____ a history or patten of attacks that have only ever occurred ___ ____.
12 month | whilst asleep
129
If a seizure occurs as a result of a physician directed change or a reduction of anti epileptic medication, licence is revoked for _______.
12 months.
129
Factors causing TB reactivation?
Age, malignancy, , DRUGs, CRF, DM, Alcoholism malnutrition
130
Investigations for suspected TB?
Staining sputum for AFB (does not distinguish) Auromine rhodamine staining - more sensitive than Ziehl Nielson Liquid culture 3-15 days Traditional culture - takes 4-6 weeks.
131
Px with splenomegaly, lethargy, PCV 23%, and nucleated cells/target cells on blood film. What do you suspect?
Thalssaemia
132
Adolescent boy with chronic leg ulcers, jaundice and bony prominence. Blood film shows target cell, nucleated, sickle cell. What do you expect electrophoresis to show, list 2 common complications and list two management options.
S-homogynous sickle cell Dactylitis & Infections Analgesia, Oxygen, Dehydration, Infection Tx
133
What is Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Neurological symptoms caused byb biochemical lesions of the CNS, after exhaustion of of B-vitamin reserves, in particular thiamine. Characterised by triad of opthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion.