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Medicine Year 2 (Bear) > Week 201 - International Health > Flashcards

Week 201 - International Health Flashcards

0
Q

What % of deaths are young people in low income countries?

A

40%

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1
Q

What % of deaths are young people in high income countries?

A

1%

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2
Q

No of people living beyond 70 years in high income?

A

70%

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3
Q

UFM stands for?

A

Under five mortality

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4
Q

Biggest cause of death in children under 5?

A

Neonatal causes (37%)

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5
Q

Pneumonia and diarrhoea combined account for what % of deaths in children under 5?

A

approx 40%

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6
Q

nenatal deaths classified within which time bracket?

A

0-28 days

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7
Q

Major cause of neonatal deaths?

A

Prematurity and low birth weight

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8
Q

What is the MMR?

A

Maternal mortality ratio - NO. deaths /100,000 live births

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9
Q

Critical interventions for maternal mortality prevention

A

ANC
skilled HW (health worker)
urine dipstick
tape measure (checking fundal height)

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10
Q

How do you prevent post partum haemorrhage?

A

IV Oxytocin

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11
Q

Pre-eclampsia/eclampsia trx?

A

Mg sulphate

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12
Q

Obstructed labour tx?

A

Partograph, instrumental delivery, LSCS

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13
Q

Prevention of unsafe abortion?

A

Family planning

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14
Q

Poor resources lead to what?

A

Diseases more commonly and inadequately controlled.
Delayed treatment
Secondary complications
Few health staff with limited training and resources have more difficult to solve, Worse outcomes and hugh ecosocial implications.

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15
Q

What is a DALY?

A

Disability adjusted life year.

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16
Q

How do you equate a DALY?

A 
DALY = YLL +YLD
(YLL = Years of lost life due to premature mortality)
(YLD = years lost to disability due to injury or illness)
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17
Q

When calculating YLL, which life expectancy do we use?

A

80

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18
Q

What does wasting mean?

A

Low weight for height

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19
Q

Stunting is what?

A

Low weight AND height for age

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20
Q

What are the millenium goals?

A

eradicate extreme poverty and huger, universal primary education, gender equaliy and empower women, reduce child mortality, improve maternal health, combat hiv/aids malaria and other diseases, ensure environmental sustainability and develop a global partnership for development

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21
Q

Resources?

A

Lancet global health collections, who health report, unicef the state of the worlds children, who global health risks

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22
Q

Where could TB present?

A

Lungs, Node, pericardium, abdomen, renal tract, brain

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23
Q

BCG vaccine was come up with by whom?

A

Albert Calmette and Camille Guerin in 1906.

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24
Q

Charles Mantoux did what?

A

Created a screening test for TB (in 1908)

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25
Q

What is a thoracoplasty?

A

Removed anterior ribs to collapse lung. Very deformed chest wall on one side. Was though to be a treatment for TB.

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26
Q

What type of bacteria is M Tuberculosis?

A

Obligate aerobe - requires oxygen!

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27
Q

What is the infective dose of TB?

A

24 bacilli

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28
Q

Is tb capable of intracellular survival?

A

Yes. Due to Acid fast bacillus coating.

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29
Q

What is the most common APC in the lung and how does this cause granulomas?

A

Macrophages. MHC class 2 –> Helper T cell recruitment –> interferon gamma release causing granulomatous response?

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30
Q

What is the difference between atypical mycobacteria and TB?

A

Atypical are found in the environment. Not usually pathogenic.

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31
Q

Is atpical mycobacterium infectious?

A

NO

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32
Q

Does acid fast bacilus ID confirm TB?

A

NO. Could be atypical.

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33
Q

Symptoms of primary TB are what?

A

VERY non specific. Fever/sweats, chest pain, cough, fatigue and rash.

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34
Q

What are signs of Primary tB?

A

Again, non specific. Erythema nodosum (inflammation of fat causgin painful swellings).
Pleural effusion

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35
Q

What is Brock’s Syndrome?

A

Right middle lobe collapse
secondary to lymphadenopathy
Many nodes around orifice of right middle lobe
Orifice is slit like. Lymphadenopathy causes compression.

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36
Q

What can be associated with TB infection (due to immuno-supression)?

A

Anti TNF, malignancy, steroids, age, HIV/AIDs, diabetes, chronic renal failure, Chemo, Alcoholism, malnutrition.

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37
Q

Symptoms of POst-Primary TB?

A 
Fever/Night sweats
Cough
Weight loss
Haemoptisis
Dyspnoe
Chest pain
1/3 ID'd when seen about unrelated condition.
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38
Q

Examination findings for TB?

A 
Cachexia
Clubbin
Lymphadenopathy
Signs of consolidation/effusion
Rails/Wheeze
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39
Q

Investigations for Tuberculosis?

A

Staining sputum for Acid Fast Bacilli (AFB)
Marker of infectivity (see handout for more info)
Gene probe/PCR –> Isolate specific nucleic acid sequences
Bronchoscopy
Pleural aspiration +/- pleural biopsy

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40
Q

Treatment for TB?

A

Community if possible. Avoid contact with immunocompromised and those < 4 years.
If MDRTB –> negative pressure room to prevent spread.

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41
Q

Standard trx regime for TB?

A

@ months 4x drugs, then R + I for 4 months.
90% killed in first two weeks.
TB meningitis 12 months therapy and steroids
Steroids in certain cases

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42
Q

What is a high risk side effect of tB treatment in latent disease?

A

Hepatitis

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43
Q

How do you test for latent disease?

A

Mantoux
Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction
Read at 72 hours

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44
Q

What is an interferon gamma release assay?

A

IGRA
Whole blood exposed to antigen specific to MC TB (ESAT6 and CFP10)
Measure interferon gamma release.
Not affected by prior bcg vaccination. Licenced for use post +ve Mantoux.

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45
Q

How would you define latent TB?

A

Clinically well, but positive skin test/IGRA

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46
Q

What is miliary TB often misidentified by?

A

Previous chicken pox infection! Gives miliary shadowing.

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47
Q

What is miliary TB?

A

Disseminated TB. Widespread dissemination of mycobacterium via haematogenous spread. Defined as millet like TB bacilli in the lung. Seen in 1-3% of all TB cases.

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48
Q

What is the importance of IL-32 in TB?

A

Inter leukin 32 is a molecular marker of a host defense networkin human TB. Induces Vit-D dependant antimicrobial peptides cathelicidin and DEFB4.

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49
Q

If ever you have a px that is unwell and you can’t work out why - consider _____.

A

TB!

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50
Q

SEE HANDOUT FOR HELEN DAY TX OF TB

A

RIPE

See handout

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51
Q

Current drugs used for 1st line tx of TB in the UK?

A

Rifampicin & Isoniazid

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52
Q

What is rifafter?

A

Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrasinamide

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53
Q

What is Rifinah?

A

One of a group of medicines used to treat TB or the lung. Contains isoniazid and Rifampicin.

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54
Q

Other than rifampicin, anti TB drugs are specific to what?

A

Mycobacteria

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55
Q

Visual side effects are a consequence of which medications?q

A

ANTI TB (RIPE)

56
Q

What should be reviewed during TB treatment?

A 
L + Renal
Visual
Overal tolerance
Compliance
Effectiveness of regime
57
Q

Side effects of Izoniazid?

A

Peripheral neuropathy. Blocks neurotransmitter synthesis (esp GABA)

58
Q

Define Mutualism:

A

Interaction beneficial to both microbe and man

59
Q

Define Commensalism

A

Interaction beneficial to microbes, with no hard to man

60
Q

Define parasitism.

A

Interaction beneficial to microbes, harm to man. I.e. Exogenous pathogens.

61
Q

Define Host:

A

The organism in or on which the parasite lives and causes harm.

62
Q

Define Definitive host:

A

The organism in which the adult or sexually mature stage of the parasite lives.

63
Q

Define intermediate host:

A

The organism in which the parasite lives during a period of devlopment only.

64
Q

Define Zoonosis:

A

A parasitic disease in which an animal is normally the host - but which also infects man.

65
Q

Endoparasite?

A

Lives WITHIN another organism

66
Q

Ectoparasite?

A

Lives ON another living organism

67
Q

Protozoans are _____ ______

A

Unicellular eukaryotes

68
Q

Arthropods and helminths are examples of ____ ______

A

Multicellular eukaryotes

69
Q

Protozoa belong within the kingdom _____

A

Protista.

70
Q

How do amoebas feed?

A

Phagocytosis, utilising pseudopodia.

71
Q

Give two examples of pathogenic flagellates.

A

Giardia spp. & Trypanosoma brucei.

72
Q

Give an example of a pathogenic ciliate.

A

Balantidium coli.

73
Q

Plasmodium and Crptosporidium are examples of what?q

A

Apicomplexans

74
Q

Which two pathogenic protozoa are the most commonly contracted in the UK?

A

Cryptosporidiosis and Toxoplasmosis.

75
Q

Helminth parasites can be divided into three groups. What are these?

A

Nematodes (roundworm)
Cestodes (Tapeworms)
Trematode (Flukes)

76
Q

What is a vector?

A

WHO defines as: “organisms that transmit pathogens from infected person or animal to another”. The diseases that they transmit are known as vector-borne diseases.

77
Q

How are microbes transmitted to humans? 7 in list.

A 
Direct contact
Direct to blood
Wounds
Droplet transmission
Water & Food borne
Mother to baby
Vectors
78
Q

What does “obtunded” mean?

A

Pale hands in dark skinned patients, sign of anaemia.

79
Q

What is the difference between a thick and thin blood film?

A

More blood to look at in thick film, larger sample, but not as much detail as seen in a thin film.

80
Q

Normal haemoglobin levels in g/dl?

A

11

81
Q

What is the normal (approx) haematocrit?

A

45

82
Q

What is the normal platelet count?

A

150-450

83
Q

Normal white cell count?

A

5-15 is the range

84
Q

How would you identify a malaria parasite on a blood film?

A

“Ring shaped” (signet ring shaped) intracellular infection.

85
Q

Symptoms of severe malaria?

A 
Rapid development
Fever - not universal, intermittent,
Headache/irritability
Myalgia
Abdo pain/D and V
86
Q

What is found in tonic water that is used to treat acute Exacerbations of malaria?

A

Quinine

87
Q

Which new antimalarial treatment is now overtaking quinine?

A

Artusate (developed from chinese herbal medicine)

88
Q

Malaria transmission occurs in how many countries?

A

99

89
Q

How many people in the world are at risk of malaria?

A

3.5 billion

90
Q

How many people contracted malaria in 2010?

A

200 million approx

91
Q

How many people died from malaria in 2010?

A

650,000

92
Q

How many of malaria deaths occured in under 5’s living in sub saharan africa?

A

40%

93
Q

Since 2000, Malaria mortality rates have ______ by _____.

A

Fallen by 20%.

94
Q

Which malaria species claims most lives?

A

P Falciparum

95
Q

The female species is more deadly than the male. True or false?

A

TRUE

96
Q

Which malaria treatments are currently in use?

A 
Mosquito nets (treated)
Indoor spraying with insecticides
Chemoprophylaxis
97
Q

Artemisinin is found from _____ and ha been in use for ____

A

Sweet wormwood

More than 2000 years

98
Q

Whats normal Albumin?

A

32/33+

99
Q

Albumin reflects the synthetic function of which organ?

A

liver

100
Q

Causes of low albumin (hypoalbuminemia)?

A 
Poor nutrition
Renal dysfunction
liver dysfunction/disease
Heart conditions
GI - IBS, Lymphoma, side effects, Infections i.e TB.
101
Q

Lymphocyte nucleus is equivocal in size to ____

A

Normal red blood cells

102
Q

Central opacity is ___ in anaemic rbc’s

A

Increased (>1/3)

103
Q

What can give microcytic anaemia?

A

Chronic disease
fe2+ deficiency
Thalassemia

104
Q

Serum ferretin reflects ______.

A

Total body iron.

105
Q

Transferrin is a (not great) marker of what?

A

Iron levels

106
Q

Ferritin is an _______. this means it goes ___ when you have an infection.

A

Acute phase protein.

Goes UP

107
Q

Iron deficiency is due to:

A

Intake
Absorbtion
Uptake
Demand

108
Q

What pH does iron Absorbtion best occur at?

A

Acidic environment

109
Q

What supp. causes reduced iron absorbtion?

A

Calcium

110
Q

What does sickle cell and thalassemia have in common?

A

Inherited disruption of haemoglobin synthesis. Genetic ineritance?

111
Q

Desferrioxamine is an iron chelating compound - how is it administered?

A

12 hr sub cut infusion

112
Q

Lifespan of an average red cell?

A

120 days

113
Q

Red cell turnover is how many per second?

A

3 million

114
Q

Sickls cell is due to a __________ _______ mutation, causing conformational change

A

Point mutation to beta chain only.

115
Q

Thalassemias are ____ ____.

A

Abnormalities of either alpha or beta chains. May be point mutation, shift or other.

116
Q

In Thalassaemia, blood film shows rbc’s of ______.

A

Different sizes and shapes - v varied.

117
Q

Haemoglobin c, d, and e are point mutations of which chain?

A

Beta

118
Q

How do you equate Hb concentration from packed cell volume?

A

PCV/3 = Hb

119
Q

Haemoglobin F is upregulated by which drug?

A

Hydroxycarbomide.

120
Q

Define Cultural Competency

A

The provision of services and care that are respectful of and responsive to the values health beliefs, practices and cultural and linguistic of diverse patients, families and communities. IT may require an adaptation of skills or approach to meet different patients needs (McKimm)

121
Q

Define Ethnicity

A

A Shared origins or social background. Shared culture and traditions (Gill), Ethnicity is but one element of culture, but within one ethnic group many cultures may exist (Schouten, B C MEeuwesen L)

122
Q

Define Culture

A

Refers to integrated patterns of human behaviour that include the language, thoughts, communications, actions, customs, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial origin.

123
Q

Cultural competence req’s the recognition of the culture of the ___ and the ____

A

Profession and the institution.

124
Q

What is the mini-ethnography approach, and by whom was it proposed?

A

Kleinman and benson, 2006

  1. ) Ethnic identity
  2. ) What is at stake? What does being ill mean to them?
  3. )The illness narrative
  4. ) Pyschosocial stresses
  5. ) Influence of culture on clinical relationship
  6. ) Has the approach worked in that case?
125
Q

What is human trafficking?

A

Modern slavery

126
Q

Human trafficking is the ____ criminal industry in the world.

A

second largest

127
Q

Global market for slavery is estimated at ________.

A

32 billion dollars per year.

128
Q

How would you identify someone being sexually exploited?

A 
Is a child
Is closely guarded by a controlling person
Lacks control over schedule
No English
Physical abuse
Emotional trauma
129
Q

A person who suffers from epilepsy may qualify for a group 1 driving livence is he or she has been free from Any epileptic attack for ___.

A

1 year.

129
Q

A person who suffers an epileptic attack whilst asleep must refrain driving for __ from the date of the attack., unless they have had an attack whilst asleep more than ____ years ago and have not had any awake attacks since that attack.

A

1 year

3 years

129
Q

A person may qualify for a group 1 driving licence provided he or she has estblished, over a course of ____ a history or patten of attacks that have only ever occurred ___ ____.

A

12 month

whilst asleep

129
Q

If a seizure occurs as a result of a physician directed change or a reduction of anti epileptic medication, licence is revoked for _______.

A

12 months.

129
Q

Factors causing TB reactivation?

A

Age, malignancy, , DRUGs, CRF, DM,
Alcoholism
malnutrition

130
Q

Investigations for suspected TB?

A

Staining sputum for AFB (does not distinguish)
Auromine rhodamine staining - more sensitive than Ziehl Nielson
Liquid culture 3-15 days
Traditional culture - takes 4-6 weeks.

131
Q

Px with splenomegaly, lethargy, PCV 23%, and nucleated cells/target cells on blood film. What do you suspect?

A

Thalssaemia

132
Q

Adolescent boy with chronic leg ulcers, jaundice and bony prominence. Blood film shows target cell, nucleated, sickle cell. What do you expect electrophoresis to show, list 2 common complications and list two management options.

A

S-homogynous sickle cell
Dactylitis & Infections
Analgesia, Oxygen, Dehydration, Infection Tx

133
Q

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Neurological symptoms caused byb biochemical lesions of the CNS, after exhaustion of of B-vitamin reserves, in particular thiamine. Characterised by triad of opthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion.

Medicine Year 2 (Bear) (30 decks)

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