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Foundations of Medicine > Week 2 Science and Scholarships > Flashcards

Week 2 Science and Scholarships Flashcards

1
Q

where does DNA replication occur

A

nucleus

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2
Q

whats the central dogma

A

DNA to RNA to protein

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3
Q

whats the therapeutic target for DNA replication

A

cancer cells and various pathogens divide rapidly rely on rapid DNA replication

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4
Q

whats cell division

A

cell divides and new daughter cells must contain the same genetic information

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5
Q

when does DNA replication occur

A

S phase

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6
Q

identify parts of cell cycle

A

G0,1
S
G2
M

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7
Q

how long does DNA replication take

A

8 hours

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8
Q

what happens in g2

A

final protein synthesis for cell division
2-5 hours
growth,reproduction,repair

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9
Q

whats on 5th C of nucleotide

A

phosphate group

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10
Q

whats on 3rd C of nucleotide

A

OH group

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11
Q

what does semi conservative mean

A

new double stranded DNA has one strand from parent and one new strand

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12
Q

new DNA formed in DNA replication is called

A

leading strand

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13
Q

DNA polymerase moves

A

3’ to 5’

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14
Q

small fragments are called

A

okizaki fragments

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15
Q

DNA ligase function

A

ligates the Okazaki fragments to form a unified DNA strand

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16
Q

DNA helicase function

A

separates the H bonds between complementary bases and unzips DNA

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17
Q

RNA primase function

A

synthesises a short RNA primer to provide an attachment site for DNA polymerase

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18
Q

exonuclease function

A

removes the RNA primer

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19
Q

what external insults cause DNA damage

A

UV
pollutants
mutagenic chemicals
infections

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20
Q

what internal insults cause DNA damage

A

-DNA polymerase has 1/ 100 mil mutation rate (very low because of DNA repair enzymes)/rapid proliferation
-reactive oxygen species
-metabolic bi products

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21
Q

identify types of DNA damage

A

breaks
chemical bond between neighbouring molecules
nucleotide modification
chemical linkage of two strand

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22
Q

whats nucleotide excision repair

A

damaged nucleotide removed and repaired

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23
Q

whats base excision repair

A

damaged bases are removed and replaced

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24
Q

whats mismatch repair

A

repairs bases that are wrongly paired

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25
Q

whats non homologous end joining repair

A

direct ligation

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26
Q

whats homologous recombination repair

A

undamaged strand from the homologous chromosome is used as a template to correct damage

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27
Q

how’s double stranded DNA repaired

A

NHEJ
HR

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28
Q

how’s single stranded DNA repaired

A

nucleotide repair
base repair
mismatch repair

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29
Q

mRNA function

A

messenger RNA
encodes amino acid sequences from mRNA during translation

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30
Q

tRNA function

A

transfer RNA
brings s+c amino acid blocks to ribosome during translation

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31
Q

Outline transcription

A

DNA unwinds, and RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter region for the _____ gene.
DNA template strand is copied into pre-mRNA via complementary base pairing using RNA polymerase. pre mRNA undergoes RNA processing.
Introns are removed, a 5’ methyl cap and 3’ poly-A tail are added to form mRNA.
mRNA for ______leaves the nucleus and goes to a ribosome.

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32
Q

Outline translation

A

Ribosomes read the mRNA code for _____.
tRNA brings the correct and specific amino acid to the ribosome.
tRNA anticodons are complementary and specific to mRNA codons.
Amino acids are joined together by a peptide bond, in a condensation polymerisation reaction, and a ______ polypeptide is formed
proteins are released for further modification

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33
Q

rRNA function

A

ribosomal RNA
constitues ribosomes

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34
Q

introns

A

non coding sections of RNA

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35
Q

exons

A

coding sections of RNA

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36
Q

Transcription factors

A

bind to the promoter

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37
Q

RNA polymerase attaches to

A

promoter TATA region

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38
Q

the template strand is

A

non coding
non sense

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39
Q

the non template strand

A

sense strand
coding strand

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40
Q

outline RNA processing

A

addition of 5’ methyl cap-protection from exonuclease and important for transcription initiation

addition of 3’ poly a tail -promotes RNA stability and export into cytoplasm

introns are removed by splicosomes and exons are alternatively spliced

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41
Q

what occurs in g1

A

8-12 hours+
preparation for DNA synstheis
generation of organelles

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42
Q

identify stages of mitosis

A

Prophase
metaphase
anaphase
cytokinesis

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43
Q

first codon of mRNA strand

A

AUG

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44
Q

identify three stages of translation

A

initiation
elongation
termination

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45
Q

how many unique amino acids

A

20

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46
Q

what is the function of proteins

A

essential to cell function and health
cell shape, organisation, structure and waste management
receives signals and executes cellular responses

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47
Q

what are proteins made up of

A

polymers of amino acids

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48
Q

what molecules are classified as peptides

A

<50 amino acids

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49
Q

what molecules are classified as proteins

A

> 50 amino acids

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50
Q

identity proteins structures

A

primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary

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51
Q

outline primary structure

A

-sequence of amino acids
-begins at the amino terminus and ends at the carboxyl terminus
-hydrophobic and hydrophilic

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52
Q

outline the secondary structure

A

stabilised by H bonds
in alpha helix hydrogen of carboxyl group bonds with hydrogen of a amino group
in beta pleated sheet parallel peptide chains are linked by H bonds

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53
Q

outline the tertiary structure

A

3d spatial arrangement of the secondary structure
H bonds
Ionic bonds
Hydrophobic
hydrophilic
disulphide bridges

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54
Q

outline quaternary structure

A

multiple polypeptide chains held together by non covalent bonds, wan der Waals forces and H bonds

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55
Q

what do structural proteins do

A

from muscle, bone, skin, connective tissue and cytoskeleton

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56
Q

function of muscle proteins

A

form thick and thin filaments
contract and relax

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57
Q

identify a few types of muscle proteins

A

myosin and actin
tropomyosin and troponin

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58
Q

function of collagen

A

strength shape and support to tissue eg skin

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59
Q

describe the structure of collagen

A

3 polypeptide chains
triple superhelix stabilised by H bonding

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60
Q

identify three types of cytoskeletal proteins from thinnest to thickest

A

microfilament
intermediate filament
microtubule

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61
Q

function of microfilament

A

cell movement
cell shape
transport
cytokinesis

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62
Q

function of intermediate filament

A

cell shape
anchoring organelles
nuclear lamina
cell to cell junctions

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63
Q

function of microtubules

A

cell division
formation of mitotic spindle

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64
Q

function of histones

A

major structural component of chromosomes
forms octamer/nucleosome

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65
Q

idnetify 5 histone proteins

A

H2A H2B H3 H4 H1

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66
Q

describe structure of transcription factors

A

binding domain and activation domain

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67
Q

function of transcription factors

A

promote or interfere with RNA polymerase recruitment

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68
Q

structure and function of cytokines

A

small proteins/ peptides
produced by immune cells
regulate immunity, inflammation and haemopoiesis

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69
Q

structure of antibodies

A

two pairs of polypeptide chains form a Y shape
constant and variable region that are held together by disulphide bridges
IgM IgE IgD IgG

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70
Q

structure of complement proteins

A

there’s over 30 different proteins

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71
Q

function of complement proteins

A

involved in the innate immune response
-clearing invading pathogens
-form a membrane attack complex
-cell lysis

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72
Q

how many cells in body

A

40 trillion

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73
Q

how many cell types

A

200 different cell types

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74
Q

what arises from cell division defects

A

autoimune
cardiovascular
malignancy
haemetalogical

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75
Q

what is the function/purpose of cell division

A

tissue development, growth,renewal replacement ,regeneration and repair.

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76
Q

what’s a chromatid

A

one of two identical halves of a replicated chromosome

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77
Q

outcome of mitosis

A

cell DNA content is duplicated
cell divides into two identical diploid cells

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78
Q

what does diploid mean

A

paired chromosomes, one from each parent , 2n

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79
Q

what does haploid mean

A

single set of chromosomes ,n

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80
Q

most cells are in what stage of cell cycle

A

interphase

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81
Q

how long does mitosis take

A

1-3 hours

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82
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

cytoplasmic separation of two daughter cells

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83
Q

what happens in early prophase

A

DNA coils and chromatin condenses
nuclear membrane disappears

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84
Q

what happens in late prophase

A

centrosome migrate to opposite poles of cell

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85
Q

what happens in metaphase

A

chromosomes align in the centre
attached to microtubules held by centrosomes

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86
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

microtubules pulll chromatid away from centre

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87
Q

what happens in telephone

A

nuclear membrane reforms
DNA uncoils

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88
Q

G1 to S phase checkpoint

A

ensures DNA is intact before replication

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89
Q

G2 to M checkpoint

A

checks that DNA replication is successful

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90
Q

M to A checkpoint

A

checks that chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell

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91
Q

what proteins regulate cell cycle

A

cyclins (D,E,A,B)

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92
Q

what do cyclin D levels trigger

A

G0-G1 and G1-S

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93
Q

what do cyclin E proteins do

A

prepares cell for S phase

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94
Q

what do cyclin A proteins do

A

activates S phase

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95
Q

what do cyclin B proteins do

A

mitotic spindle formation

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96
Q

what happens in G0

A

normal cell function , no preparation

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97
Q

what is p53

A

anti cancer transcription factor induced by DNA damage, oncogenes and nutrient deprivation

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98
Q

function of P53

A

maintain genomic stability
initiates apoptosis
inhibits angiogenesis

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99
Q

where does meiosis occur

A

germ cells that produce gametes

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100
Q

How many cells does meiosis end with

A

four haploid cells with a single set of chromosomes

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101
Q

how many rounds of cell division in meiosis

A

two rounds
meiosis I and II

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102
Q

outline DNA change in meiosis

A

homologous chromosomes–> sister chromatids –> two diploid cells–> 4 haploid cells

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103
Q

End result of meiosis 1

A

two haploid cells

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104
Q

List the parts of prophase 1

A

leptonema
zygonema
pachynema
dyplonema
diakiniseis

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105
Q

what happens in leptonema

A

-diploid chromosomes condense forming long thin threads
-attach to nuclear envelope
-individual chromosomes not visible

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106
Q

what happens in zygonema

A

-synapsis occurs
-homologous regions of two chromosomes come together
-chromosomes align side by side (zipper)–> tetrad

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107
Q

what happens in pachynema

A

-chromosomes have aligned
-recombination occur
-exchange of material between two non sister chromatids to create diversity

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108
Q

what is the chiasma

A

where the two strands of chromosomes overlap and exhgane material

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109
Q

what happens in dyplonema

A

sister chromatic move away from each other
sister chromatids are visible

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110
Q

what happens in diakinesis

A

-chromosomes condense
-detach from nuclear membrane
-nuclear envelope disintegrates
sister chromatids joined at centromere
-non sister chromatids joined via chiasmata

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111
Q

what happens in metaphase 1

A

-spindles form between centrioles at opposite poles of cell
-tetrads line up in the spindles on metaphase plate
-centromeres from homologous chromosomes on opposite sides
-random assortment introduces diversity

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112
Q

what happens in anaphase 1

A

-spindles pull homologous chromosomes apart
-each cell half has one of a pair of chromosomes (with crossed over material and) one sex chromosome

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113
Q

what happens in telophase 1

A

-nuclear membrane develops between each set of chromosomes
-cytoplasmic division in males in equal whereas in females its unequal

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114
Q

what happens in prophase 2

A

nuclear envelope disintegrates
each cell is haploid

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115
Q

what happens in metaphase 2

A

spindle fibre line up the chromosomes on the equatorial plane

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116
Q

what happens in anaphase 2

A

centromeres split
sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles

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117
Q

what happens in telophase 2

A

nuclear membrane forms around each set of chromosomes

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118
Q

outline the structure of antigens

A

proteins, peptides or polysaccharides

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119
Q

function of antigens

A

can form complexes with lipids, carbs
bind to antibodies via epitope

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120
Q

identify a few types of antigens

A

exogenous
endogenous
auto
tumour
native

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121
Q

outline the process of haemostasis

A

blood vessels constrict
platelet plug
coagulation to form fibrin clot

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122
Q

what is meant by coagulation

A

process by which blood goes from liquid to gel

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123
Q

identify some coagulation proteins

A

-clotting factors
-thrombin and fibrinogen

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124
Q

what are clotting factors

A

-present as inactive proteins (zymogens)
-require activation by proteases
-require Ca2+

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125
Q

identify some anticoagulation proteins

A

protein c
protein S
thrombomudilin

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126
Q

identify the types of transport proteins

A

carriers
channels
albumin

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127
Q

describe function of carrier proteins

A

-use ATP
-moves substance against the concentration gradient

-protein binds to substrate
-the carrier undergoes a reversible conformational change

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128
Q

what molecules are transported by carriers

A

glucose and large polar molecules

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129
Q

how do channels work

A

-forms a continuous opening in the membrane
-open to both intracellular and extracellular environments
-can be gated

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130
Q

what molecules move in channels

A

ions and polar molecules

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131
Q

how many sides of the membrane can carriers open to

A

one side at a time

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132
Q

what is the purpose of albumin

A

maintains a constant oncotic pressure of the plasma
carries a negative charge to bind cations and hydrophobic molecules

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133
Q

what bonds are present in albumin

A

disulphide bridges that form an alpha helix

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134
Q

function of enzymes

A

catalyse biochemical reactions
contains active site that is s+c to substrate
optimal at certain temperature and pH

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135
Q

identify the classes of enzymes

A

oxidoreductase
transferases
hydrolases
lyases
isomerases
ligases

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136
Q

function of oxidoreductases

A

catalyse oxidation reduction reactions

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137
Q

function of transferases

A

transfer of functional groups

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138
Q

function of hydrolyses

A

cleavage of bond + addition of water

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139
Q

function of lyases

A

cleavage of c bond

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140
Q

function of isomerases

A

rearrangement of bonds

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141
Q

function of ligases

A

formation of bonds between C,O,N,S

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142
Q

what’s the enzyme marker for MI

A

troponin

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143
Q

what’s the enzyme marker for brain injury

A

creatine phosphokinase

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144
Q

what are ligands function

A

secreted by signalling cells and bind to a target cell

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145
Q

what do all signalling protein receptors have in common

A

they come in closely matched pairs (a and b)

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146
Q

what do signalling protein receptors bind with

A

they bind with the ligands via lock and key process

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147
Q

a single ligand can bind with how many cells

A

as many as it is specific to (more than just one)

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148
Q

hydrophobic ligands bind

A

intracellular

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149
Q

hydrophilic ligands bind to

A

surface of plasma membrane

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150
Q

identify signalling proteins

A

ligands
neurotransmitter

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151
Q

where are neurotransmitters released from

A

nerve endings

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152
Q

how many neurotransmitters are there

A

183

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153
Q

identify a few common neurotransmitters

A

serotonin
adrenaline
GABA
acetylcholine

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154
Q

function of cell adhesion molecules

A

maintain tissue structure
growth
survival

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155
Q

Identify 4 types of cell adhesion molecules

A

cadherins
selectins
integrins
intercellular adhesion molecules

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156
Q

what do cadherins do

A

bind actin intracellularly
vital for cell to cell junctions

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157
Q

what do selectins do

A

bind carbs on other cells

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158
Q

what do integrins do

A

bind mainly ECM (colllagen, fibronectin, actin, lamin)

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159
Q

what do intercellular adhesion molecules do

A

immune response and inflammation

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160
Q

describe the structure of recognition proteins

A

glycoproteins
cells identity badge
informs immune system as body cell

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161
Q

Outline the functions of plasma cell membrane

A

-cellular communication
-enzymatic activities
-structural integrity of cell
-maintains composition of extracellular fluid and cytoplasm
-regulates entry and outputs of cell

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162
Q

the ‘heads’ of the plasma cell membrane are

A

hydrophilic

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163
Q

the ‘tails’ of the plasma cell membrane are

A

hydrophobic

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164
Q

what makes up the head of a phospholipid

A

glycerol and phosphate group

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165
Q

identify some accessory features of the plasma membrane

A

gylcolipids/glycoproteins
cholesterol
integral proteins
peripheral proteins

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166
Q

function of glycolipids and glycoproteins

A

-important for cell recognition
-bind to extracelular structures

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167
Q

function of cholesterol in plasma cell membrane

A

rigidity and structure

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168
Q

function of integral proteins in plasma membrane

A

can acts as transmembrane protein channels

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169
Q

function of peripheral proteins

A

have regulatory and enzymatic functions

170
Q

what does selective permeability mean

A

free passage for some molecules and restricts the molecules

171
Q

list some hydrophobic molecules

A

O2
CO2
N2
steroids
lipids

172
Q

list some small uncharged molecules

A

glycerol
urea
ethanol

173
Q

list some large uncharged polar molecules

A

glucose and sucrose

174
Q

list some ions

A

potassium, sodium, hydrogen

175
Q

what moves by simple diffusion

A

smaller molecules
non polar

176
Q

what moves my facilitated diffusion

A

small and medium sized molecules

177
Q

does active transport require ATP

A

yes

178
Q

examples of passive transport

A

diffusion
osmosis
facilitated diffusion

179
Q

how do molecules move in passive transport

A

down the concentration gradient

180
Q

how do molecules move in active transport

A

against the concentration gradient

181
Q

examples of active transport

A

phagocytosis
exocytosis
endocytosis
transcytosis
active transport

182
Q

describe diffusion

A

movement of substances across a membrane with no energy investment

183
Q

what’s the difference between membrane channel and carrier molecule for diffusion

A

membrane channel- water, small molecules
carrier channel-hydrophilic, larger molecules

184
Q

describe osmosis

A

diffusion of water molecules across a membrane

185
Q

what are the two types of active transport

A

primary and secondary active transport

186
Q

what is primary active transport

A

utilises a transmembrane pump and needs ATP

187
Q

what is secondary active transport

A

doesn’t directly need ATP and transports two molecules at a time

188
Q

what is the purpose of vesicular transport

A

allows for the movement of large macromolecules uitlising small membranous sacs (vesicels)

189
Q

identify types of cellular signalling

A

-contact depending signalling
-autocrine signalling
-paracrine signalling
-endocrine signalling

190
Q

describe direct communication

A

these are contact dependent interactions
-require cells to have a system to be be able to distinguish between self and non self

191
Q

describe juxtacrine signalling

A

-cells directly interact with one another
-receptor expressed on surface of one cell
-ligand expressed on the surface of another cell
-results in downstream signalling events

192
Q

what are tight junctions

A

consist of transmembrane proteins
-fuse cells together through plasma membranes
-provide a barrier between cell compartments

193
Q

what are adherents junctions

A

-consists of plaques –> thick layer of transmembrane glycoproteins that attach to microfilaments and membrane proteins

194
Q

what are desmosomes

A

consists of plaque–> thick layer of transmembrane glycoproteins that attach to intermediate filament and membrane proteins

195
Q

desmosome vs adherents junction

A

attach to actin vs keratin

196
Q

what are hemidesmosomes

A

-look like half desmosome
-consists of transmembrane glycoproteins that attach to keratin and laminate (basement membrane proteins)

197
Q

what are gap junctions

A

-connexon (tunnels) directly link plasma membrane and neighbouring cells
-ions and small molecules pass. through

198
Q

describe autocrine signalling

A

-self signalling communication
-signalling cell is target cell
-cell releases ligand that binds to receptor on SAME cell

199
Q

identify a few examples of autocrine signalling

A

embryonic development
pain regulation
inflammation
destruction of viruses
tumours

200
Q

what is paracrine signalling

A

-short distance -communication
-ligand released by secretory cell
-ligand diffuses across ECM
-affects a nearby cell
-this is a quick and short lasting response

201
Q

identify two types of neural signalling

A

electrical and chemical synapses

202
Q

what are electrical synapses

A

-direct communication
-gap junctions
-fast synchronised communication

203
Q

what are chemical synspases

A

indirect communication
-across synaptic cleft involves neurotransmitters

204
Q

what is endocrine signalling

A

-long distance signalling
-slow response
-long lasting
-moves through blood to target cell/gland from endocrine gland

205
Q

what is neuroendocrine signalling

A

-released by neuroendocrine or neurosecretory cells
-same process as endocrine signalling

206
Q

what is formed at end if meiosis

A

haploid cell with 22 chromosomes plus an (x* or y)

207
Q

what is cellular differentiation

A

cell changes from one cell type to another

208
Q

what are totipotent cells

A

all cell types including placental tissue and germ cells (gametes)

209
Q

what are pluripotent cells

A

all cell types in adults except gametes

210
Q

what are multipoint cells

A

multiple different but related cell types within a tissue (limited)

211
Q

what are unipotent cells

A

capable of Turing into one cell type

212
Q

what type of cells are IPSC

A

induced pluripotent stem cells

213
Q

what are IPSC used for

A

disease modelling and tissue regeneration

214
Q

list stem cells from lowest potency

A

unipotent
multipotent
pluripotent
totipotent

215
Q

What are the two types of vesicular transport

A

endocytosis and exocytosis

216
Q

what is endocytosis

A

movement of substances into the cell via invagination of part of plasma membrane that forms vesicles around a substance

217
Q

what is exocytosis

A

movement of substances out of the cell
-vesicles migrate to plasma membrane and fuses to it where it excretes contents into extracellular environment

218
Q

example of endocytosis

A

neutrophil engulfing bacteria

219
Q

example of exocytosis

A

release of digestive enzymes by pancreas

220
Q

identify the three types of endocytosis

A

phagocytosis
endocytosis
receptor mediated endocytosis

221
Q

describe phagocytosis

A

endocytosis of LARGE particles/”eating”
-utilises phagocytes eg.macrophage
-cytoplasmic extensions (pseudopodia) surround substance to form a phagosome
-phagosome then fuses with lysosome to form phagolysosome
-digestive enzymes digest large particles
-broken down content is recycled or expelled

222
Q

what is pinocytosis

A

endocytosis of SMALL particles/”drinking”
-cell engulfs droplets from ECF into tiny vesicles
-process is non specific
-occurs in small intestine and has a role in immune surveillance

223
Q

what is receptor mediated endocytosis

A

endocytosis of specific particles
-allows cell to bring in very specific particles that may not be abundant in ECF
-receptor in plasma membrane binds to ligand, invagination occurs and vesicles form

224
Q

identify the two biological theories of ageing

A

the programmed theory
the error theory

225
Q

what is the programmed theory

A

ageing has an internal clock

226
Q

what is the error theory

A

ageing is a result of un repaired naturally occurring internal and external assaults that damage cells and organs (DNA)

227
Q

what is senescence

A

-process in which cells cease to divide
-an irreversible block in proliferation
-natural barrier against cancer
-metabolically active

228
Q

what are telomeres

A

-DNA sequences
-Caps at the ends of chromosomes

229
Q

Function of telomerase

A

enzymes that maintain telomere length
-lengths of telomeres decrease with cell division

230
Q

3 choices cells have when DNA damage has accumulated

A

senescence, altered function. or apoptosis

231
Q

what is progeroid disorder

A

premature ageing
-mutation effects DNA repair or nuclear structure

232
Q

what makes up the structure of chromosome

A

DNA wrapped around histones forms nucleosomes that bind with chromatin to form chromosome

233
Q

define epigenetic

A

change in the gene expression that is not dependent on the DNA sequence (rather the histones)

234
Q

define epigenetic drift

A

divergence of epigenome due to age

235
Q

What is global DNA hypomethylation

A

open chromatin that results in genetic instability
and DNA damage
-senescnece/apoptosis/cell dysfunction

236
Q

function of stem cells

A

serve to regenerate, grow and repair body

237
Q

what is the major driver for ageing

A

decreased stem cell number and function

238
Q

how does stem cell exhaustion arise

A

diminished reservoir of stem cells due to increased differentiation

239
Q

what is the most conserved pathway in the body

A

the GH + IGF-1 pathway that allows for nutrient sensing

240
Q

what does IGF-1 mean

A

insulin like growth factor 1

241
Q

GH function

A

simulates IGF-1 production

242
Q

IGF-1 function

A

-informs cells of presence of glucose
-enhances DNA proliferation and damage

243
Q

what are the hallmarks of ageing

A

cellular senescence
telomere shortening
DNA damage
epigenetic drift
stem cell exhaustion
deregulated nutrient sensing
inflammaging
mitochondrial dysfunction

244
Q

what’s inflammaging

A

increase in innate immunity and a decrease in adaptive immunity
-leads to persistent inflammation

245
Q

what’s mitochondrial dysfunction and what does it lead to

A

decrease mitochondria function
-decreased respiration
-increase ROS
-increased apoptosis
-altered metabolites and activation of innate immune system

246
Q

what are the two forms of cell death

A

apoptosis and necrosis

247
Q

What is apoptosis

A

programmed/regulated cell death
-no inflammation occurs

248
Q

what is necrosis

A

unplanned cell death
-leads to inflammation

249
Q

what pathways are there for apoptosis

A

intrinsic and extrinsic pathway

250
Q

outline intrinsic pathway

A

-internal DNA damage
-pre apoptotic proteins activated and bind to anti apoptotic proteins
-anti apoptotic proteins now inactive
-signal binds to mitochondrial membrane
-disrupts the mitochondrial membrane and cytochrome 3 leaks out
-apoptotic complex forms and
-caspases are activated
-destroys organelles
-phagocytosis occurs

251
Q

what constitutes an apoptotic complex

A

capsase and protease

252
Q

which apoptotic pathway is mitochondrial mediated

A

intrinsic

253
Q

which apoptotic pathway is death receptor mediated

A

extrinsic

254
Q

outline extrinsic pathway

A

-external signals received
-involves death receptors found on surface of cell
-bind to ligand that triggers clustering of receptors
-activating apoptotic complex and activating caspases
-destroys organelles
-phagocytosis occurs

255
Q

key features of apoptosis

A

cell shrinkage
a cascade of enzyme reactions
nuclear condensation
blebbing that from apoptotic bodies

256
Q

Outline process of necrosis

A

-cell swelling
-influx of H2O and ions
-blebbing of cell membrane
-nuclear shrinkage
-nuclear fragmentation
-cell is ruptured and contents spew out into EC environment (inflammation)

257
Q

identify the steps of how cells communicate 1

A

signal perception
intracellular signal transduction
cellular response

258
Q

juxtacrine signalling is same as

A

contact dependent

259
Q

what are ligands

A

extracellular chemical signals eg proteins, ions, lipids

260
Q

ligands are released by

A

signalling/secretory cells

261
Q

what are receptor agonists

A

lignin binds–> activates–>cellular response

262
Q

what are receptor antagonists

A

ligand binds–>no effect itself–>prevents agonist binding

263
Q

what are hydrophobic ligands

A

lipid soluble and pass through plasma membrane (bind to DNA in nucleus)
-eg sex steroids, eicosanoids, corticosteroids

264
Q

how are hydrophobic ligands transported

A

through circulation, bound to carrier or transport protein
-eventually diffuse through capillaries and bind to cognate receptor

265
Q

what are water soluble ligands

A

bind to EC receptors
-eg peptides and small proteins + ECM components
-also water soluble hormones

266
Q

list some random (non classified) ligands

A

gases
ions
drugs
neurotransmitters

267
Q

what are receptors

A

specific proteins found in or on a cell

268
Q

classify receptors

A

Ligand gated ion channels
Enzyme linked receptor
G Protein coupled receptor
Intracellular receptor

269
Q

How do intracellular receptors work

A

consist of a binding domain and a DNA binding domain (zinc finger)
-slow effect

270
Q

how do ligated ion channels work

A

-receptor on cell surface
ligand binds and
-channel changes shape and opens
-

271
Q

how do Enzyme/kinase linked receptors work

A

-receptor on cell surface
ligand binds and
-receptor changes shape
-enzymes activated
-receptor undergoes phosphorilization
-message relayed to other enzymes

272
Q

how do G Protein coupled receptors work

A

-receptor on cell surface
-respond to many ligands
-contain G protein that is diffusible through PCM but bound to intracellular surface
-enzymes activated
-cascade of events involving secondary proteins
-signal amplification

273
Q

how many subunits on G protein

A

3

274
Q

G protein is also known as

A

metabotropic proteins

275
Q

when G protein is inactive …

A

-form heterotrimer
-a subunit bound to GDP
-alpha beta and gamma subunits

276
Q

when G protein is active …

A

-subunits dissociate
-alpha subunit and beta-gamma subunit
-a subbing bound to GTP

277
Q

GCPR=

A

G protein coupled receptor (acts as a switch between 2)

278
Q

how are signals amplified in G protein receptor

A

-amplifier enyzmes
-second messenger molecule
-cellular response

279
Q

what cellular responses do extracellular receptors initiate

A

cell
-proliferation
-growth
-differentiation
-migration/movement
-survival/death

280
Q

what cellular responses do intracellular receptors initiate

A

-target and alter transcription and translation

281
Q

identify two receptors

A

GPC
tyrosine kinase

282
Q

what is meant by atrophy

A

decrease in cell size and protein content
-shrinkage of tissues

283
Q

few causes of atrophy

A

lack of exercise
apoptosis
loss of nerve supply
hormones

284
Q

what is meant by hypertrophy

A

increase in cell size and protein content

285
Q

few causes of hypertrophy

A

mechanical (stress) and pathological (diseases of heart)

286
Q

what is meant by hyperplasia

A

increase in cell number and tissue size

287
Q

few causes of hyperplasia

A

increased demand
inflammation
development changes

288
Q

eg of atrophy

A

muscle and Brain

289
Q

eg of hypertrophy

A

uterus, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

290
Q

eg of hyperplasia

A

gingival hyperplasia
endometrium

291
Q

what is metaplasia

A

transformation of one epithelium to another (reversible)

292
Q

eg of metaplasia

A

bronchial squamous metaplasia
squamous metaplasia of bladder

293
Q

what is dysplasia

A

increase in immature (abnormal and unequal)/ pre cancerous cells

294
Q

examples of dysplasia

A

epithelial dysplasia
myelodysplastic syndrome

295
Q

what is neoplasia

A

new formation
-uncontrolled proliferation
-loss of OG function
-large nucleus and DNA content increases
-cancerous=benign or malignant

296
Q

how do cells go form normal to cancerous

A

normal
hyperplasia
dysplasia
cancerous

297
Q

identify 5 mechanisms of cell stress

A

atrophy
hypertrophy
hyperplasia
neoplasia
metaplasia

298
Q

identify hallmarks of cancer

A

genomic instability
sustaining proliferative signalling
replicative immortality
resistance to cell death in cancer
tumour-promoting inflammation
dysregulated cell energetics
angiogenesis
avoiding immune destruction
metastasis

299
Q

how does genomic instability contribute to cancer

A

-mutations arise
-tumour suppressors become inactivated
-oncogenes become activated
-cell proliferation and avoiding cell death increases
-p53 often mutated

300
Q

how does sustenance of proliferative signalling contribute to cancer

A

-excess binding of growth factors to cell receptors
-making cells hyper responsive to growth receptors
-this causes cells to become ‘independent’ to the ligand
-also leads to autocrine signalling

301
Q

how does replicative immortality contribute to cancer

A

-due to an enhanced expressions of telomerase
-telomeres do not break down
-hence cells become ‘immortal’/senescence and apoptosis do not occur

302
Q

how does resistance of cell death contribute to cancer

A

mutations and genetic abnormalities can lead to
-change in balance of pro and anti apoptotic survival proteins
-cells do NOT undergo apoptosis

303
Q

what does p53 do

A

helps maintain genomic stability by either
-ceasing cell cycle, repairing and then resuming cell cycle
-allowing for senescence and apoptosis if cell can’t be repaired

304
Q

how does tumour promoting inflammation contribute to cancer

A

inflammation releases factors that promote proliferation and ROS therefore tumorogenesis occurs

305
Q

what are ROS

A

reactive oxygen species, O without one electron

306
Q

how does avoiding immune destruction contribute to cancer

A

cells can
-produce immunosuppressive chemicals
-reduce immunogenicity

preventing T cytotoxic and Th cells functioning against them

307
Q

how does angiogenesis contribute to cancer

A

as tumour growth needs oxygen, nutrients and waste removal
-micro vessels form around tumours that eventually form blood vessels in turn aiding tumour proliferation

308
Q

how does deregulated cell energetics contribute to cancer

A

cancer cells need increased ATP at fast rate
-hence glycolysis is favoured which produces organelles and other macromolecules that are essential to cell formation

309
Q

how does metastasis contribute to cancer

A

-loss of cell adhesion molecules eg E cadherin
-upregulation of cell migration molecules eg N cadherin
-EMT promotes metastasis

310
Q

EMT

A

epithelial mesenchymal transition (don’t attach to basement membrane ) hence cancer cells can migrate

311
Q

what is meant by efficacy of a drug

A

maximum effect of a drug we can expect to see

312
Q

what is meant by potency of a drug

A

concentration which produces 50% of a maximum effect

313
Q

what’s a partial agonist (drugs)

A

drug that is less potent AND less efficacious

314
Q

what’s competitive antagonism (drugs)

A

drug that causes less potency but same efficacy (after significant amount delivered)

315
Q

what’s non competitive antagonism (drugs)

A

full effect of a drug can not be restored no matter how high the concentration

316
Q

what’s potentiation (drugs)

A

drug A may potentiate drug B by increasing receptors affinity for A
-shift left of concentration response curve

317
Q

what’s drug toxicity

A

immunological response in which there is too much of the desired effect of a drug
-action at desired receptor or another receptor

318
Q

identify tissue types

A

epithelial
connective
muscle
nervous

319
Q

function of epithelial tissue

A

protection, absorption, sensation, transport, excretion, vitamin D production
PASTED

320
Q

Describe structure of epithelial tissue

A

-highly cellular (epithelial cells)
-avascular
-polar
-apical and basal surface
-basal surface attaches to basement membrane

321
Q

function of basement membrane

A

-glues epithelium to connective tissue
-sustains epithelium as they themselves are avascular
-allows exchange of wastes and nutrients but NOT large molecules

322
Q

Describe structure of basement membrane

A

20-100 nm thick
-made of proteins and proteoglycans
-fused basil lamina and reticular lamina
-interface between epithelial and connective tissue

323
Q

cell junctions functions

A

connect cells and surrounding structures
-anchor all cells together except blood cells
-aid communication

324
Q

one layer of epithelial cell is classified as

A

simple

325
Q

more than one layer of epithelial cells is classified as

A

stratified t/f protection

326
Q

flat epithelial cells are called

A

squamous

327
Q

cubelike epithelial cells are called

A

cuboidal

328
Q

long epithelial cells are called

A

columnar

329
Q

where are simple squamous epithelium found

A

-air sacs of lungs
-heart
-blood vessels
-lymphatic vessels

330
Q

function of simple squamous epithelium

A

-allows for diffusion
-releases lubricating fluid

331
Q

where are simple cuboidal epithelium found

A

-ducts and secretory portions of small glands
-kidney tubules

332
Q

function of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

secretion and absorption & protection

333
Q

function of simple columnar epithelium

A

absorption and secretion of enzymes + mucous

334
Q

where are simple columnar epithelium found

A

ciliated in bronchus
non ciliated in digestive tract

335
Q

function of pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

secretes and moves mucus

336
Q

where is pseudostratified columnar epithelium found

A

ciliated tissues lines upper respiratory tract

337
Q

where is non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium found

A

oesophagus, mouth and vagina

338
Q

function of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

A

protects against abrasion

339
Q

where is stratified cuboidal epithelium found

A

sweat, salivary and mammary glands

340
Q

function of stratified cuboidal epithelium

A

protection

341
Q

where is stratified columnar epithelium found

A

male urethra and some ducts

342
Q

function of stratified columnar epithelium

A

secretion and protection

343
Q

where is transitional epithelium found

A

bladder, urethra and uterus

344
Q

function of transitional epithelium

A

allows urinary organs to stretch and expand

345
Q

list two epithelial tissue TYPES

A

glandular and surface

346
Q

Function of surface epithelium

A

Covers and lines, all natural surfaces of the body

347
Q

Function of glandular epithelium

A

Cells that produce secretion

348
Q

what is endothelium

A

Simple squamous epithelium
-thin, smooth and continuous lining

349
Q

function of endothelium

A

Extensive diffusion
facilitation of free-flowing fluid

350
Q

Location of Endothelium

A

CV systems and lymphatic vessels

351
Q

What is mesothelium

A

Simple squamous epithelium
-supported by dense connective tissue
-thin, lubricating cells

352
Q

Function of mesothelium

A

Protection and support movement

353
Q

Location of mesothelium

A

body cavities

354
Q

structure of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

large cells with spherical nuclei

355
Q

Structure of simple columnar epithelium

A

-microvilli and tall columnar cells

356
Q

Structure of non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

A

nucleated, squamous cells in superficial layers
upper layers protect underlying tissue

357
Q

Structure of keratinised, stratified, squamous epithelium

A

-anucleate cells in superficial layers
-keratinised and hard

358
Q

function of keratinised, stratified, squamous epithelium

A

Protective, impermeable layer

359
Q

What type of epithelia is respiratory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified, columnar, cilliated epithelium with goblet cells

360
Q

function of respiratory epithelium

A

Filtering air in nasal tract

361
Q

function of mucocilliary escalator

A

traps and exports pathogens and dust

362
Q

structure of transitional epithelium

A

when stretched appears stratified squamous and when relaxed more stratified cuboidal

363
Q

what are epithelial glands

A

glandular cells within epithelial surface

364
Q

how do glands form

A

invagination of epithelial cells into underlying connective tissue to support gland

365
Q

What are exocrine glands

A

secrete material via duct directly into lumen of organs or onto free surface of epithelium

366
Q

what are endocrine glands

A

secret hormones directly into EC space, transported by blood

367
Q

functions of connective tissue

A

-provide mechanical support, shape and protection
-connects and binds tissues and organs
-storage, defence and repair
-facilitate communication

368
Q

structure of connective tissue

A

made of cells and ECM and fibres

369
Q

ECM consists of

A

abundant intercellular proteins
amorphous ground substance

370
Q

what fibres make up ECM

A

collagen
elastic
reticular

371
Q

how are connective tissues classified

A

-connective
-supporting
-fluid

372
Q

what constitutes loose connective tissue

A

predominantly Ground substance

373
Q

what constitutes dense connective tissue

A

predominantly fibres

374
Q

how is dense connective tissue classified

A

normal and irregular

375
Q

what is regular dense connective tissue

A

collagen fibres arranged parallel

376
Q

what is irregular dense connective tissue

A

collagen fibres arranged no parallel

377
Q

function of regular dense connective tissue

A

-attach bone to bone or muscle to bone
-transmit force

378
Q

location of regular dense connective tissue

A

ligaments and tendons

379
Q

function of irregular dense connective tissue

A
380
Q

location of irregular dense connective tissue

A

fibrous sheath around bones
dermis, liver,spleen

381
Q

function of loose connective tissue

A

-nourish and cushion epithelia
-immune defence
-bind organs
-pathway for vessels and nerves

382
Q

location of loose connective tissue

A

-fascia between muscles
-under all epithelia
-pleura and pericardial sacs

383
Q

function of ground substance

A

-support cells and fibres surrounding
-regulates intercellular communication and transport of substances

384
Q

amorphous means

A

no shape

385
Q

AGS

A

Amorphous ground substance

386
Q

structure of ground substance

A

amorphous
clear, colourless
viscous
scented by CT cells

387
Q

oedema means

A

abnormal accumulation of interstitial fluid

388
Q

what is collagen

A

-most abundant fibre
-main structural protein

389
Q

function of collagen

A

provide strength and cushioning

390
Q

what is elastin

A

highly elastic
diminishes as we age

391
Q

function of elastin

A

coil and recoil plus flexiblity

392
Q

what are reticular fibres

A

delicate, irregular flexible and inelastic

393
Q

function of reticular fibres

A

support cellular structures

394
Q

what is the most common CT cell

A

fibroblast

395
Q

function of fibroblast

A

metabolically active and produces ALL fibres and ground subtstance
-repair

396
Q

structure of fibroblast

A

long cytoplasmic processes

397
Q

structure of adipocytes

A

made of white and brown fat

398
Q

function of adipocytes

A

store fats
insulation
shock absorbers

399
Q

function of leukocytes

A

immune response
inflammation
allergy

400
Q

function of macrophages

A

act by phagocytosis

401
Q

function of plasma cells

A

produce s+c FF antibodies

402
Q

function of mast cells

A

release histamine to allow for inflammation response + symptoms

403
Q

identify the characteristics of muscle tissue

A

contractile
excitable

404
Q

what does it mean if muscle tissue is excitable

A

propagates electrical signals

405
Q

what does it mean if muscle tissue is contractile

A

-capable of shortening in length
-capable of returning to natural state
-generates force

406
Q

what cells make up muscle tissue

A

mycocytes

407
Q

characteristics of myocytes

A

-elongated
-contains microfilaments
-

408
Q

identify muscle tissue types

A

Smooth, skeletal and cardiac

409
Q

structure of skeletal muscle cells

A

multi nucleated
cylindrical
large

410
Q

function of skeletal muscles

A

voluntary control, maintain posture and movement
striated

411
Q

structure of cardiac muscle cells

A

Smaller, branching and contain one central nucleus
-connected by intercalated discs

412
Q

function of cardiac muscle

A

striated and involuntary
Pumps blood through the chambers of the heart, and circulates blood to the rest of body

413
Q

structure of smooth muscle cells

A

Single nucleus, small and spindle-shaped

414
Q

function of smooth muscle

A

involuntary and non striated
-constrict blood vessels and airways
-allow food through GI tract

415
Q

CNS consists of

A

brain and spinal chord

416
Q

PNS consists of

A

nerve endings, nerves and ganglia

417
Q

Function of nervous tissue

A

Receiving and generating nervous information

418
Q

Identify the key properties of neurons

A

Excitable, conductivity, and secretory

419
Q

what does it mean if neutrons are excitable

A

Sensitive to stimuli

420
Q

what does it mean if neutrons are conductible

A

Generate and propagate signals

421
Q

what does it mean if neutrons are secretory

A

Release chemicals to communicate with other cells

422
Q
A

Foundations of Medicine (18 decks)

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